Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Questions for Full Preparation

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Our 200-301 Exam Questions provide authentic, up-to-date content for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification. Each question is reviewed by Cisco-certified professionals and includes verified answers with clear explanations to help you master networking fundamentals, IP services, security, automation, and Cisco technologies. With access to our exam simulator, you can practice under real exam conditions and confidently prepare to pass on your first attempt.

Exam Questions

Question 1

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link? A: It causes a network loop when a violation occurs. B: It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled. C: It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address. D: It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When port security is enabled on a Cisco switch interface (including a trunk link) using the switchport port-security command, default parameters are applied if not explicitly configured. The default maximum number of secure MAC addresses allowed on the port is 1. The default violation mode is shutdown. Therefore, if the trunk port learns more than one MAC address (i.e., a second MAC address), it exceeds the default limit, triggering a security violation. The shutdown violation mode causes the interface to be placed into an err- disabled state.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: It causes a network loop when a violation occurs. Port security violation actions

(shutdown, restrict, protect) are designed to secure the port, not cause network loops.

B: It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled. Enabling

port security does not inherently alter or disable the native VLAN configuration; these are

separate features.

D: It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically

configured. The default maximum MAC addresses is 1, not 10. The violation occurs upon

learning MACs beyond the limit, not specifically after static configuration of a certain

number.

References

Cisco Systems, "Configuring Port Security," Catalyst 9300 Series Switches, Cisco IOS XE

Bengaluru 17.6.x, Security Configuration Guide.

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/176/configurationguide/sec/b176sec9300cg/configuringportsecurity.html

/561

Relevant Sections: "Port Security Default Configuration" (states maximum MAC addresses

is 1, violation mode is Shutdown) and "Enabling Port Security on an Interface" (confirms

defaults apply to trunk ports).

Cisco Systems, "Catalyst 3750-X and 3560-X Switch Software Configuration Guide,

Release 15.0(2)SE and Later," Chapter: "Configuring Port Security."

URL:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x3560x/software/release/15

-02se/configuration/guide/scg3750x/swps.html

Relevant Section: "Port Security Default Settings" (Table 21-1 lists "Maximum number of

secure MAC addresses" as 1 and "Violation mode" as "shutdown"). "Port Security on Trunk

Ports" (explains port security applies to all VLANs on the trunk).

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Question 2

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled? A: broadcast to all ports on the switch B: flooded to all ports except the origination port C: forwarded to the first available port D: inspected and dropped by the switch
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not found in its MAC address table (an unknown unicast address), the switch floods the frame. Flooding means the switch forwards the frame out of all active ports except for the port on which the frame was originally received. This ensures the frame reaches its destination if it exists on the network segment connected to the switch.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: broadcast to all ports on the switch

C: forwarded to the first available port

D: inspected and dropped by the switch

References

Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter 2,

"Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs," Section: "Sending Data in Ethernet Networks,"

Subsection: "Switch Forwarding: The General Idea" (specifically discusses unknown unicast

frames and flooding).

"When a switch receives a frame whose destination MAC address is unicast, but that MAC

address is not in the MAC address table, the switch floods the frame. Flooding means that

the switch forwards a copy of the frame out all ports except the port on which the frame

arrived."

Cisco Networking Academy. (n.d.). CCNAv7: Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials.

Module 2: Switching Concepts, Section 2.2.2: The MAC Address Table.

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"If the destination MAC address is not in the table, the switch will forward the frame out all

ports except the incoming port. This is called an unknown unicast." (Accessible via Cisco

NetAcad learning platform).

Tanenbaum,

A. S., & Wetherall,

D. J. (2011). Computer Networks (5th ed.). Pearson

Education. Chapter 4, "The Medium Access Control Sublayer," Section 4.3.2 "Bridges and

Switches."

While a general networking textbook, it describes the fundamental operation: "If the

destination port is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all ports except the one it arrived on

(flooding)." (This aligns with the Cisco-specific behavior for unknown unicast frames).

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Question 3

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel? A: Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto. B: Configure the IP address of the neighboring device. C: Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command. D: Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
On the neighbor, setting each member interface to LACP passive places the port in a state that only responds to, but does not initiate, LACP frames. Because the first switch is already sending LACP packets (active by default when channel-group mode active was configured), the bundle forms even though the neighbor itself never negotiates the channel. This satisfies the requirement to bring the port channel up without negotiating the channel.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. auto is a PAgP (proprietary) mode, not valid for LACP; channel will not form.

B. An IP address is configured on the logical Port-Channel, not on individual member ports;

it does not influence LACP state.

C. Interfaces are already up (CDP sees the neighbor); issuing no shutdown adds nothing.

/561

References

1. Cisco Systems, Configuring EtherChannels, Catalyst 9000 Series Switches IOS XE 17,

section LACP Modesactive and passive. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/lanswitch/configuration/xe-17/lanswitch-xe-17-book/lnsw-etherchannel.html

2. IEEE Std 802.1AX-2020, clause 5.3.1: passive participants only respond to LACPDUs,

allowing aggregation when the peer is active.

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Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix? A: 255.255.255.240 B: 255.255.255.128 C: 255.255.248. D: 255.255.255.248
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
/561 The output of the show ip route command in the exhibit displays the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix as S 10.10.13.160/29. The /29 is the Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) notation for the prefix length, indicating that the first 29 bits of the subnet mask are set to 1. Converting this prefix length to dotted decimal notation: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 This binary representation translates to 255.255.255.248. Therefore, 255.255.255.248 is the correct subnet mask for the specified route.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: 255.255.255.240 This mask corresponds to a /28 prefix length (28 bits set to 1), not /29.

B: 255.255.255.128 This mask corresponds to a /25 prefix length (25 bits set to 1), not /29.

C: 255.255.248. This option is an improperly formatted mask. If interpreted as

255.255.248.0, it corresponds to a /21 prefix length, not /29.

References

1. Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter

13, "Implementing IP Addressing and Subnetting," Table 13-6 "Common IPv4 Prefix Lengths

and Their Equivalent Dotted-Decimal Masks" (lists /29 as 255.255.255.248). Chapter 20,

"Learning IPv4 Routes with OSPFv2," discusses interpreting show ip route output, including

prefix lengths.

2. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson. Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2 "IP Addressing: CIDR" (explains the /x prefix

notation).

3. Cisco IOS IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release

3S. (n.d.). Displaying the IP Routing Table. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/configuration/xe-3s/iri-xe-3sbook/iri-cfg-monitor-verify.html#GUID-A48873C7-059E-470B-B61C-39B9838F0371

(Illustrates show ip route command usage and output format, including prefix length

notation).

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Question 5

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller? A: to secure physical access to a data center B: to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram C: to securely manage and deploy network devices D: to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center serves as a centralized network management and command platform for Cisco's Digital Network Architecture (DNA). Its primary purpose is to simplify network operations by automating device deployment, managing configurations, enforcing policies, and providing assurance for the enterprise network. This includes secure onboarding and lifecycle management of network devices.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: to secure physical access to a data center: Cisco DNA Center is a network management

platform, not a system for controlling physical access to facilities.

B: to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram: While DNA Center can

discover devices and display network topology, this is a feature supporting its broader

management purpose, not the primary purpose itself.

D: to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points: DNA Center manages network

infrastructure, including wireless controllers or fabric-enabled APs, rather than directly

providing Layer 3 routing services to autonomous APs.

References

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center At-A-Glance. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/nb-06-dna-center-aag-ctp-en.pdf (Page 1: "Cisco DNA Center is the network

management and command center for Cisco DNA... Automate device deployment...

Manage your network... Secure your network.")

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center Data Sheet. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/datasheet-c78-739944.html (Section: "Product overview" - "Cisco DNA Center

provides a centralized management dashboard... for automation... and assurance.")

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Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 2. Cisco Press. (Chapter 23:

Introduction to Controller-Based Networking - "Cisco DNA Center provides a centralized

GUI to design, provision, apply policy, and provide assurance for the enterprise network.")

/561

Question 6

Which encryption method is used by WPA3? A: PSK B: TKIP C: SAE D: AES
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
WPA3 specifies AES-based ciphers (CCMP-128 for all WPA3 networks, and GCMP-256 for WPA3-Enterprise-192) as its mandatory data-encryption mechanism. While WPA3-Personal introduces the SAE handshake for authentication, the payload confidentiality and integrity are still provided exclusively by AES block-cipher suites; legacy TKIP and RC4 are prohibited.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. PSK Pre-Shared Key was the WPA/WPA2 authentication method; WPA3 replaces it with

SAE and still uses AES for encryption.

B. TKIP Deprecated after WPA; explicitly disallowed in WPA3 because it lacks modern

cryptographic strength.

C. SAE A password-authenticated key-exchange protocol, not an encryption algorithm; it

produces the keys that feed AES-based ciphers.

References

1. Wi-Fi Alliance, Wi-Fi CERTIFIED WPA3™ Security Technical Overview, §3.2: WPA3

networks use AES-CCMP-128 (or AES-GCMP-256 in WPA3-Enterprise-192) for data

encryption. https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wpa3-specification

2. IEEE Std 802.11-2020, Clause 12.4 & 12.6: CCMP/GCMP (AES) defined as required

suites; TKIP prohibited.

3. IEEE Std 802.11-2020, Annex J: Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) ¦ provides

authentication; encryption is achieved with AES-based CCMP or GCMP.

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Question 7

What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management? A: per-device B: centralized C: device-by-device hands-on D: CLI-oriented device
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center provides a centralized management platform for network devices. This contrasts with traditional campus device management, which typically involves configuring and monitoring devices individually (per-device, device-by-device hands-on), often through a Command Line Interface (CLI). Centralization is a core tenet of Cisco's Digital Network Architecture (DNA), enabling automation, policy consistency, and simplified operations from a single point of control.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: per-device: This describes traditional management, where administrators often configure

each device individually, which Cisco DNA Center aims to overcome.

C: device-by-device hands-on: This is characteristic of traditional network management, not

the automated, centralized approach of Cisco DNA Center.

D: CLI-oriented device: While CLI access is still possible, Cisco DNA Center emphasizes

GUI-based management and automation, moving away from primarily CLI-oriented

traditional methods.

References

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center At-a-Glance. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/nb-06-dna-center-aag-ctp-en.html (Page 1: "Cisco DNA Center is the network

management and command center for your Cisco DNA network. This centralized, intuitive

management hub...")

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center Solution Overview. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna/561

center/solution-overview-c22-738477.html (Page 2: "Traditional networks are hardware-

centric, manually configured, fragmented in their management...")

Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 2. Cisco Press. (Chapter 23:

"Introduction to Controller-Based Networking" - discusses the shift from traditional per-

device management to centralized controller-based models like Cisco DNA Center).

/561

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PC1 to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
Options
A: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2
B: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.16.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2
C: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 172.16.0.2
D: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
/561 Two static routes are required. 1. A network-wide route that directs every destination in 10.0.0.0/24 to R3™ s next-hop (192.168.0.2). 2. A host-specific (/32) route that sends only 10.0.0.5 (PC1) to R2™ s next-hop (172.16.0.2). Cisco IOS always applies the longest-prefix-match rule: the /32 entry overrides the /24 only for traffic to PC1, while all other addresses in 10.0.0.0/24 follow the /24 route to R3. The command sequence in option C implements exactly this behaviour with correct masks and next-hop addresses.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Routes are reversed/24 points to R2 and /32 to R3, contradicting the requirement.

B. Uses 255.255.0.0 (/16), not /24, so it covers many unintended networks.

D. Masks are incorrect (/16 for network, /24 for host), and next-hop directions are reversed.

References

1. Cisco IOS XE 17 IP Routing: Static Routes Configuration Guide Example: host (/32)

route overriding network route.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutestatic/configuration/xe-17/irs-xe17-book/irs-static-route.html#GUID-0715F5BB-B9F2-4C56-A743-5AC1A3D6E303

2. Doyle,

J. & Carroll,

J. Routing TCP/IP, Volume I, 2nd ed., Cisco Press, 2005. Section 3.2

Static Routes and Longest-Match Routing, pp. 76-78.

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Question 9

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3? A: snmp-server host B: snmp-server community C: snmp-server enable traps D: snmp-server user
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The command snmp-server user is specifically used to configure users for SNMPv3. SNMPv3 introduces the User-based Security Model (USM), which provides message authentication and encryption. Defining a user with this command, along with their authentication and privacy credentials, is a fundamental step in setting up SNMPv3. Other commands listed are either generic or specific to older SNMP versions.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: snmp-server host: This command specifies a trap/inform receiver and can be used with

SNMPv1, v2c, or v3, depending on other parameters.

B: snmp-server community: This command configures community strings, which are

primarily used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c.

C: snmp-server enable traps: This command globally enables the sending of SNMP traps

and is not specific to any SNMP version.

References

Cisco IOS SNMP Configuration Guide: "Configuring SNMPv3 Users" section typically

details the snmp-server user command. For example, in the SNMP Configuration Guide,

Cisco IOS Release 15M&T, the snmp-server user command is described as: "To configure a

new user to an SNMP group for SNMPv3."

Direct URL (example for a specific IOS version, concept is general): Cisco.com, search for

"SNMP Configuration Guide" for relevant IOS. A general reference: Cisco Press, "CCNA

200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1," Chapter 25: IP Services, section "Configuring and

Verifying SNMP." (While commercial prep, the underlying Cisco IOS command functionality

is standard).

Official Cisco Documentation (Conceptual): "Simple Network Management Protocol

Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Gibraltar 16.12.x" - Chapter: Configuring SNMPv3. This

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guide states: "SNMPv3 provides for both security models and security levels. A security

model is an authentication strategy that is set up for a user and the group in which the user

resides. A security level is the permitted level of security within a security model." The

snmp-server user command is central to this. (Available via Cisco's public documentation

portal).

Cisco IOS Master Command List: Searching for snmp-server user will show its syntax and

purpose, clearly linking it to SNMPv3.

Direct URL (example): Cisco.com, search for "Cisco IOS Master Command List" and then

navigate to the specific command. For instance, snmp-server user command reference.

Academic Source (Conceptual understanding of SNMPv3):

Stallings, W. (2016). Foundations of Modern Networking: SDN, NFV, QoE, IoT, and Cloud.

Pearson Education, Inc. Chapter 5, "Network Management," discusses SNMPv3 and its

User-based Security Model (USM), which relies on configured users. (This provides the

theoretical background for why user configuration is key to SNMPv3).

/561

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured? A: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.248 ip ospf priority 0 B: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 100 C: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf priority 255 D: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 98
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
OSPF elects the Designated Router on broadcast/NBMA segments by comparing the interface “OSPF priority” (0-255); the highest non-zero value wins (RFC 2328 §9.4). R1 and R2 already share the WAN network 10.0.0.32. Keeping R2’s existing address (10.0.0.34) but raising its interface priority above the default 1 guarantees it will win the next election. The sequence in option B therefore makes R2 the DR: interface g0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 100
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A – Priority 0 prevents the router from participating in the DR/BDR election.

C – Places R2 in a different IP subnet (10.0.1.0/24); it would not form adjacency on the

WAN link.

D – Subnet mismatch (10.0.1.0/27) prevents adjacency; also uses lower priority than option

B.

References

1. Cisco IOS “ip ospf priority” command— Cisco Networking Software Command Reference,

IP Routing OSPF, §“Usage Guidelines”.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iosxe/iproute/command/ir-cr-book/iri1.html#wp1050757

2. RFC 2328, OSPF Version 2, J. Moy, Internet Engineering Task Force, Apr 1998, §9.4

(Router Priority).

https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc2328#section-9.4

/561

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