Free 220-1202 Practice Test Questions and Answers (2026)

Device encryption converts all data on a device's storage into an unreadable format. Access is only granted with the correct authentication key, which is linked to the user's biometrics or PIN. This ensures that even if an attacker bypasses the lock screen or physically removes the storage chip, the data remains secure and inaccessible. It is a fundamental security layer that protects data at rest, providing robust protection against unauthorized access if the device is lost or stolen.

A. Remote backups: This is a data recovery measure to prevent data loss, not a security measure to prevent unauthorized access on the stolen device.

B. Location tracking: This helps in physically recovering the device but does not prevent an attacker from accessing the data on it.

C. PIN code screen lock: While a valid security measure, it protects the user interface. Encryption protects the underlying data itself, offering a stronger layer of security.

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2022). Special Publication 800-124 Rev. 2, Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise. Section 4.4.1, "Data Encryption," states, "Full-disk or file-based encryption protects the confidentiality of data at rest on a mobile device."

2. Apple Inc. (2024, May). Apple Platform Security. Page 13, "Data Protection overview," explains how file data is encrypted with keys that are protected until the user unlocks their device.

3. Google. Android Open Source Project Documentation. "Full-Disk Encryption." This document details how Android uses kernel-level encryption to protect all user data on the device.

When a new computer's operating system or hardware is incompatible with a legacy application, virtualization is the most effective solution. By creating a virtual machine (VM), a technician can install and run an older, compatible operating system (e.g., Windows 7, Windows XP) in an isolated environment on the new hardware. This provides the exact software environment the legacy application was designed for, ensuring it installs and functions correctly without altering the host system or dealing with complex compatibility shims.

B. Run the installation in safe mode to avoid driver conflicts.

Safe mode is a diagnostic startup mode for troubleshooting the OS; it is not designed for installing incompatible applications.

C. Increase the swap file size to manage potential memory issues.

While helpful for memory-intensive tasks, increasing the swap file does not resolve fundamental OS or hardware incompatibility issues.

D. Use an application compatibility toolkit to address any software conflicts.

This can sometimes work for minor issues, but a VM is a more robust and reliable solution for significant incompatibilities, especially OS-level ones.

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2021). Create a Virtual Machine with Hyper-V. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from docs.microsoft.com. In the section "Create a virtual machine," the document outlines the process of creating a VM to run a guest operating system, which is a standard method for supporting legacy applications.

2. Tanenbaum, A. S., & Bos, H. (2015). Modern Operating Systems (4th ed.). Pearson Education. Chapter 8, "Virtualization and the Cloud," discusses how Type 2 hypervisors allow users to run legacy operating systems and applications on modern hardware.

3. University of Washington. (n.d.). IT Connect: What is virtualization?. Retrieved from itconnect.uw.edu. The article explains that virtualization allows for running "multiple operating systems... on a single physical machine," which is the principle used to run legacy software.

The CompTIA A+ malware removal process follows a specific order of operations to ensure thorough remediation and prevent reinfection. After successfully removing the malware, enabling system restore, and creating a new restore point, the final step is to educate the end user. This involves explaining how the infection likely occurred and providing guidance on safe computing practices, such as avoiding suspicious links, attachments, and downloads. This preventative measure is crucial to reduce the likelihood of future incidents.

A. Performing a secondary scan is part of the remediation phase, which occurs before the final steps of the process.

C. Reimaging is a remediation method itself, not a step that follows the completion of malware removal.

D. Reviewing system logs is typically done during the initial identification and research phase to diagnose the problem.

1. CompTIA. (2024). CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) Exam Objectives. Section 2.2. "Given a scenario, apply best practices for malware removal." The final step listed is "Educate end user."

2. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. (2017). Defining the Process for Malware Incident Response. CMU/SEI-2017-TN-011. p. 11. (This document outlines incident response phases, where post-incident activities include user awareness and training to prevent recurrence).

A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a legal contract between two or more parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share with one another for certain purposes but wish to restrict access to. When discussing confidential work projects with individuals outside the company, an NDA is the appropriate legal instrument to ensure that the sensitive information is not disclosed to unauthorized third parties, thereby protecting the company's intellectual property and trade secrets.

A. An EULA (End-User License Agreement) is a contract between a software licensor and purchaser, establishing the purchaser's right to use the software.

B. EOL (End-of-Life) refers to the final phase in a product's lifecycle, after which it is no longer supported or marketed by the vendor.

C. An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the level of service expected from a vendor, laying out the metrics by which that service is measured.

1. Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Technology Licensing Office. (n.d.). Confidential Disclosure Agreements. Retrieved from https://tlo.mit.edu/learn-about-ip/ip-agreements-and-contracts/confidential-disclosure-agreements. The document defines a CDA/NDA as a contract governing the exchange of proprietary information.

2. University of Michigan, Innovation Partnerships. (n.d.). Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA). Retrieved from https://innovationpartnerships.umich.edu/for-inventors/inventor-guidance/non-disclosure-agreement-nda/. This resource explains that an NDA is used to protect confidential information when sharing it with external parties.

3. Cornell University, Center for Technology Licensing. (n.d.). Confidentiality Agreement. Retrieved from https://ctl.cornell.edu/inventors/policies-forms/agreements/confidentiality-agreement/. It describes the agreement as a tool to "protect your invention when you must disclose it to a third party."

The issue arises because Windows cannot natively read the file system used by the Linux operating system (e.g., ext4, XFS). The error message "device must be formatted" is the standard Windows response to an unrecognized file system. To enable data transfer between both operating systems using the external drive, it must be formatted with a file system that both Windows and Linux can read and write to. exFAT is a modern, cross-platform file system designed for this purpose, supporting large files and volumes and being natively compatible with Windows, macOS, and most Linux distributions.

A. A firewall manages network traffic and has no control over local USB drive access or file system recognition.

B. The cable is functioning correctly, as the device is detected by Windows (prompting the format message). The problem is software (file system) incompatibility, not hardware.

C. A PC firmware (BIOS/UEFI) update addresses low-level hardware compatibility and boot processes, not the operating system's ability to read specific file systems.

1. Microsoft. (2023, December 14). Comparing FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT file systems. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/file-server/ntfs-overview. This document outlines the specifications and compatibilities of file systems, noting exFAT's cross-OS compatibility.

2. The Linux Kernel Archives. (n.d.). The Linux kernel user’s and administrator’s guide: Filesystems. Retrieved from www.kernel.org/doc/html/latest/admin-guide/filesystems/index.html. This documentation details the various filesystems supported by the Linux kernel, including native support for exFAT.

3. Tanenbaum, A. S., & Bos, H. (2015). Modern Operating Systems (4th ed.). Pearson Education. Chapter 4, "File Systems," explains the concept of different file system structures and the incompatibility issues that arise between operating systems that do not support the same formats.

The scenario describes a step in the incident response lifecycle, specifically post-incident activity. After the technical remediation (isolation and removal) is complete, addressing the human element is crucial to prevent recurrence. Providing security awareness training directly educates users on how to identify and avoid similar threats in the future. This action falls squarely under the category of user education and is a key component of improving the organization's overall security posture.

B. Compiling lessons learned is an internal process for the security team to analyze the incident response, not the act of training end-users.

C. Updating antivirus software is a technical remediation or prevention step, not a user-focused educational activity.

D. Performing additional scans is part of the eradication and validation phase to ensure the threat is fully removed from the systems.

1. Cichonski, P., Millar, T., Grance, T., & Scarfone, K. (2012). Computer Security Incident Handling Guide (NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2). National Institute of Standards and Technology. https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-61r2. Section 3.4, "Post-Incident Activity," discusses "user awareness training" as a key follow-up action.

2. University of California, Berkeley. (n.d.). Incident Response Life Cycle. Information Security Office. The "Post-Incident" phase outlines activities including "Training and awareness" to prevent future incidents.

An operating system (OS) is considered "end of life" (EOL) when the vendor, such as Microsoft or Apple, ceases to provide support. This cessation includes critical security updates, patches for vulnerabilities, and non-security bug fixes. Continuing to use an EOL OS exposes the system to significant security risks, as newly discovered exploits will not be remediated by the vendor. The email described is a standard notification for an impending EOL date for the software.

A. Support from the computer's manufacturer pertains to hardware warranties and service, which is separate from the operating system's software support lifecycle.

C. The removal of a specific feature like built-in security software is a product design choice, not the reason for the complete cessation of all security updates.

D. While a new OS version's release often precedes the EOL of an older version, it is not the direct cause; vendors typically support multiple versions concurrently for a period.

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Microsoft Lifecycle Policy. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/lifecycle/policies/fixed. (The "Fixed Lifecycle Policy" section explicitly defines that support, including security updates, ends after a published period.)

2. Canonical Ltd. (2023). Ubuntu Release End of Life. Ubuntu Wiki. Retrieved from https://wiki.ubuntu.com/Releases. (This document outlines the EOL dates for Ubuntu versions, after which security and maintenance updates are no longer provided for free.)

Linux is an open-source operating system, and many of its distributions (e.g., Ubuntu, CentOS, Debian) are available free of charge for both desktop (workstation) and server use. This model allows a company to deploy a single, consistent OS across its infrastructure without incurring licensing fees, which directly addresses the requirements stated in the question. The open-source nature also provides flexibility and extensive community support.

B. Windows: Both Windows desktop (e.g., Windows 11 Pro) and Windows Server editions require the purchase of licenses, often on a per-user or per-core basis.

C. macOS: This operating system is proprietary to Apple and is licensed for use only on Apple hardware, making it unsuitable for general server deployment and not free.

D. Chrome OS: This is a lightweight, cloud-focused OS primarily for specific hardware (Chromebooks) and is not designed or typically used as a general-purpose server OS.

1. The Linux Foundation. (n.d.). What is Linux?. "Linux is also distributed under an open source license... you can run Linux, without any licensing fees." The document also highlights its use on desktops and servers.

2. Canonical Ltd. (2024). Ubuntu Desktop and Ubuntu Server. The official Ubuntu website details that the operating system is "free to download, use and share" for both desktop and server environments.

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2016). 6.033 Computer System Engineering, Spring 2009. Lecture 20, "The UNIX legacy; The open-source movement." This course material discusses the history and licensing models of operating systems, contrasting the proprietary model of Windows with the open-source model of Linux.

In a high-stress situation where a customer is panicking, demonstrating strong interpersonal skills is paramount. Projecting confidence and maintaining a positive attitude helps to de-escalate the customer's anxiety and build trust. This reassures the customer that the technician is capable and in control, making the customer feel that their problem is being taken seriously. This communication technique addresses the customer's emotional state, which is the most critical first step before any technical work or procedural discussion can be effective.

A. The technician should provide the customer with the appropriate SLA: Discussing a service-level agreement is a formal, impersonal step that would likely worsen the customer's distress in this moment.

B. The technician should inform the customer about replacement options for an increased cost: This is premature, presumes the data is lost, and introduces financial stress, which is inappropriate when the customer is panicking.

D. The technician should be dressed in appropriate business casual attire: While professional appearance is important, it is a passive trait, not an active communication technique to calm a distraught customer.

1. CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) Exam Objectives. Domain 5.0, "Operational Procedures," Objective 5.4, "Given a scenario, use proper communication techniques and professionalism," lists "Use a positive attitude and project confidence" and "Use empathy" as key skills.

2. Purdue University Global. (n.d.). Customer Service Skills: A Practical Guide. Section on "Handling Upset Customers," emphasizes the importance of empathy, active listening, and maintaining a calm, positive demeanor to de-escalate conflict.

The described pop-up exhibits classic signs of scareware or a rogue security program. These malicious applications generate fake warnings to trick users into installing more malware or paying for useless software. Clicking "OK" would likely trigger the malware installation. The correct and safe first step is to investigate the alert's validity using the system's legitimate security tools. By checking the actual status of Windows Security (or another installed antivirus), the user can verify if a real threat exists without interacting with the potentially malicious pop-up.

A. Clicking the "OK" button is dangerous as it would likely approve the installation of malware disguised as an antivirus update.

B. Reinstalling the operating system is a drastic, last-resort measure for malware removal and is not the appropriate next step.

C. System File Checker (SFC) repairs corrupted Windows system files, but it is not a tool designed to detect or remove malware.

1. Microsoft Support. (2023). Protect yourself from tech support scams. Microsoft. In the section "How tech support scams work," it describes tactics like "scareware" pop-ups that urge users to take action. The recommended action is to not click and to use legitimate security software to scan the device.

2. Federal Trade Commission (FTC). (2022, May). How To Spot, Avoid, and Report Tech Support Scams. In the section "What a tech support scam looks like," the FTC warns about unexpected security alerts and advises users to check with their actual security software.

3. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. (2018). Socially-Engineered Scams. CERT Division. This resource details how attackers use social engineering, including fake security alerts, to manipulate users into compromising their systems.

Badge readers are a core component of a Physical Access Control System (PACS). Their specific function is to authenticate an individual's identity via a credential (the badge) and then grant or deny entry to a restricted area. Crucially, every access attempt—whether successful or denied—is logged by the system, creating a detailed record of who accessed or attempted to access a specific location and at what time. This provides the precise function of detecting and recording access, which is essential for security audits and incident investigations.

A. Bollards are physical barriers that prevent vehicle access; they do not detect or record who is passing through.

B. Video surveillance records activity visually but does not inherently authenticate identity or create a structured access log like a badge system.

D. A fence is a static physical barrier designed to prevent or deter access, not to actively detect or log it.

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2013, June). NIST Special Publication 800-116 Revision 1: A Recommendation for the Use of PIV Credentials in Physical Access Control Systems (PACS). Section 2.1, "PACS Overview," describes how a PACS "automates the passage of authorized people... while detecting and logging unauthorized entry attempts." The card reader is the key component for this interaction.

2. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). (n.d.). IS&T Knowledge Base - Card Readers. The documentation describes the function of card access systems: "MIT ID card readers are installed at the entrances to many buildings... to provide security and access control." These systems inherently log all card swipes for security purposes.

According to the CompTIA malware removal process, the final step after all technical remediation is complete is to educate the end user. This is a critical preventative measure. The technician should explain how the infection likely occurred (e.g., phishing email, malicious download) and provide guidance on how to avoid similar incidents in the future. This empowers the user and helps secure the environment against reinfection, making it the most important subsequent action after the system is technically clean.

A. Performing a secondary antivirus scan is part of the remediation step itself to ensure the malware is gone, not a step taken after cleanup is complete.

C. Reimaging is a method of remediation, often used when cleanup is unsuccessful or impractical. It is not a post-cleanup step.

D. Reviewing system logs is part of the initial identification and research phase of the malware removal process, used to understand the scope of the infection.

1. Souppaya, M., & Scarfone, K. (2013). Guide to Malware Incident Prevention and Handling for Desktops and Laptops. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). Special Publication 800-83 Rev. 1. Section 4.3, "Post-Incident Activity," p. 4-10. (This section emphasizes that a key post-incident activity is creating a follow-up report and educating users to prevent future incidents.)

2. University of California, Berkeley Information Security Office. (2022). Malware Removal. Retrieved from https://security.berkeley.edu/faq/malware-removal. (This university guide outlines the steps for malware removal, concluding with the importance of user education to prevent recurrence.)

The most secure and practical solution is to create a separate, isolated network (SSID) for the legacy device. Modern routers often support guest networks or multiple SSIDs, which can be configured with older security protocols like WPA without downgrading the security of the primary network (which should use WPA2 or WPA3). This practice, known as network segmentation, isolates the less-secure device, preventing it from being a potential entry point for an attacker to access more sensitive devices on the main network.

B. Downgrading the entire network's security to WPA, even temporarily, is a significant security risk and is highly impractical.

C. Using a wired connection does not meet the user's stated requirement for a "Wi-Fi connection" that must use WPA.

D. Adding an older router can create network issues like double NAT and introduces another unmanaged, potentially insecure device to the network.

1. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. (2021). Best Practices for Home Network Security. Retrieved from https://insights.sei.cmu.edu/blog/best-practices-for-home-network-security/. See the section "Segment Your Network" which recommends using guest networks for less-trusted devices.

2. University of California, Berkeley, Information Security Office. (n.d.). Minimum Security Standards for Networked Devices. Retrieved from https://security.berkeley.edu/resources/minimum-security-standards-networked-devices. Standard 5.1 discusses network isolation for devices that cannot meet higher security requirements.

In a managed corporate environment, security policies are often implemented to prevent users from installing unauthorized software. An Access Control List (ACL) can be applied at the network level to block downloads from certain sites, or more commonly, on the endpoint itself through software restriction policies (like Microsoft's AppLocker). These policies function as a type of ACL, preventing non-approved executable files from running, which would cause the installation to fail. This is a standard security measure to maintain system integrity and prevent malware.

A. A full browser cache affects web page loading and performance; it does not prevent software installation from an executable file.

B. Slow internet speeds would delay the download of the installer but would not typically cause the installation process itself to fail repeatedly.

D. An unformatted hard drive would not have a functioning operating system, making it impossible for the user to even attempt to run an installer.

1. Microsoft. (2023, April 27). AppLocker (Windows). Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/application-security/application-control/windows-defender-application-control/applocker/applocker-overview. This document describes how AppLocker rules (a form of ACL) can be used to allow or deny apps from running.

2. Purdue University. (n.d.). Secure Purdue - Access Control Standard. Retrieved from https://www.purdue.edu/securepurdue/identity-access/access-control-standard.html. See section "System Access Controls," which outlines principles for restricting software installation and execution.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the appropriate technology for this scenario. A VPN creates a secure, encrypted tunnel over a public network (the internet) to a private network (the town hall's server). This allows the town clerk's remote computer to securely connect to the town hall's network and access resources, such as documents on a server, as if the computer were physically present in the office. It provides both security through encryption and the necessary network access to internal resources from a remote location.

A. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a graphical desktop-sharing system used to remotely control another computer's screen, keyboard, and mouse, not for general network resource access.

B. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is similar to VNC; it provides remote access to the desktop of a specific computer but does not grant broad network access to file servers.

D. SSH (Secure Shell) provides a secure command-line interface for remote administration of a server but is not the standard tool for accessing shared document folders.

1. Microsoft. (2021, September 20). What is VPN?. Windows Server Documentation. (Defines a VPN as a technology that "extends a private network across a public network" and enables users to "send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.")

2. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. (2001). Home Network Security. CERT Coordination Center. Section: "Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)". (Describes VPNs as a method to "securely connect to a remote network through the Internet.")

3. Cisco. (n.d.). What Is a VPN?. Cisco Documentation. (Explains that a VPN "gives you online privacy and anonymity by creating a private network from a public internet connection.")

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer

able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic

indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing

default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely

doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest,

lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should

regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x)

and a valid gateway/DNS.

below.

Explanation:

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

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1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

below.

Explanation:

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to

maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's

web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default

credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are

often targeted.

below.

Explanation:

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote

Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security.

Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly

configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless

connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open

access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of

DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming

and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.