Free 220-1101 Practice Questions – 2026 Updated

Fiber-optic technology transmits data as pulses of light through thin strands of glass or plastic, allowing for the highest possible bandwidth and fastest speeds, often reaching multiple gigabits per second (Gbps). It is also characterized by very low latency and is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference compared to copper-based alternatives like DSL and Coaxial cable. For a company requiring the "fastest network speeds possible," fiber is the superior choice among the options provided, as its performance capabilities far exceed those of DSL, Coaxial, and Satellite technologies.

B. DSL: Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) uses existing copper telephone lines, which have limited bandwidth and are susceptible to signal degradation over distance, resulting in significantly slower speeds than fiber.

C. Satellite: This technology has inherently high latency due to the vast distance signals must travel to and from an orbiting satellite, and its speeds are generally lower and less reliable than terrestrial options.

D. Coaxial: While cable internet over coaxial lines can offer high speeds (up to 1 Gbps), it is typically a shared medium, and its maximum throughput and latency performance are inferior to a dedicated fiber-optic connection.

1. Kurose

J. F.

& Ross

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 1

Section 1.2.2 "Access Networks

" the authors compare residential access technologies

explicitly stating that Fiber-to-the-Home (FTTH) can provide speeds up to 10 Gbps

significantly exceeding the typical speeds of DSL (up to 100 Mbps) and cable (up to 1 Gbps).

2. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2011). 6.02 Introduction to EECS II: Digital Communication Systems

Fall 2011. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Lecture 14

"Wireline Communications

" discusses the physical properties of different media. The lecture notes detail how optical fiber has a bandwidth potential in the terahertz (THz) range

which is orders of magnitude greater than the megahertz (MHz) range available on copper twisted-pair (DSL) or coaxial cables.

3. Indiana University. (2023

October 24). About broadband internet connection types. University Information Technology Services Knowledge Base. Retrieved from https://kb.iu.edu/d/aium. This document compares common broadband technologies and states

"Fiber optic is the fastest and most reliable

but also the most expensive... Cable is usually faster than DSL... Satellite is a good option for rural areas where other broadband services are unavailable." This hierarchy clearly places fiber at the top for speed.

Configuring the multifunction printer to scan directly to a Server Message Block (SMB) share is the most secure option. This method allows the data to be saved to a centralized, secure location on a file server. Access to this specific network share can then be strictly controlled using Access Control Lists (ACLs), granting permissions only to the user accounts of the select group of executives. This ensures that the confidential data is protected both at rest on the server and by limiting access to only authorized individuals, providing a robust and auditable trail. This approach avoids the inherent insecurities of unencrypted email and the risks associated with manual handling.

A. Standard email protocols are often unencrypted, making documents vulnerable to interception as they travel across the network.

B. Manual distribution is a physical process, not a technical configuration, and introduces a high risk of document loss, unauthorized copying, or human error.

C. Badge access secures the physical use of the printer itself, such as releasing a print job, but it does not secure the digital path or destination of a scanned document.

1. Official Vendor Documentation: Microsoft Corporation. (2023). SMB security enhancements. Microsoft Learn. In the section "SMB Encryption

" the documentation details how SMB 3.0 and later versions provide end-to-end encryption of SMB data

which protects data from eavesdropping attacks on untrusted networks. This supports the security of the SMB protocol used in the correct answer. (Reference: learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/file-server/smb-security)

2. Official Vendor Documentation: HP Development Company

L.P. (2021). HP JetAdvantage Security Manager 3.2 - Administrator Guide. In Chapter 4

"Creating and deploying policies

" the guide discusses configuring device settings

including "Scan to Folder Settings

" which allows administrators to define secure network folder destinations (SMB or FTP) and manage credentials

enforcing secure data handling directly from the device. (Reference: Page 35

Section: "Scan to Folder Settings").

3. University Courseware: Saltzer

J. H. (1979). On the Naming and Binding of Network Destinations. MIT Laboratory for Computer Science. This foundational paper

often cited in network systems courses

discusses the principles of binding services to network locations. Applying this

an SMB share provides a persistent

securable network destination

unlike an email address which is primarily a routing instruction. The security is enforced at the destination (the file server) through its access control mechanisms. (Reference: Section 4

"Binding"). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1007/BFb0024439

The scenario describes a situation where a projector is receiving a signal and the source resolution is correct, but the resulting image is distorted. This distortion, such as the image appearing stretched or squashed, is a classic symptom of a mismatched aspect ratio. The aspect ratio is the proportional relationship between the width and height of the image. If the laptop is outputting a 16:9 (widescreen) signal but the projector is configured for a 4:3 (standard) aspect ratio, it will distort the image to fit the incorrect shape.

B. The laptop's video card has failed: A failed video card would typically result in no signal, severe visual artifacts (like lines or incorrect colors), or system crashes, not a consistently distorted image.

C. The projector's bulb is burned out: A burned-out bulb would result in no light output, meaning there would be no image at all, rather than a distorted one.

D. The display brightness needs to be adjusted: Incorrect brightness settings would make the image too dim or too bright but would not alter its shape or cause geometric distortion.

1. University of Wisconsin-Madison

Division of Information Technology (DoIT) KnowledgeBase. In the troubleshooting guide for classroom projectors

it states: "If the image on the screen appears stretched or distorted

the aspect ratio may be incorrect. Use the projector remote to change the aspect ratio. The 'Aspect' button may be on the remote itself

or it may be in the projector menu." (Document ID: 8511

Section: "Troubleshooting Projector Image Issues").

2. Epson PowerLite Projector User's Guide. In the "Solving Image Problems" troubleshooting section

a common issue listed is "The image is stretched..." The recommended solution is to "Press the [Aspect] button on the remote control to select the correct aspect ratio" or adjust the "Aspect" setting in the projector's menu system. (Reference: Epson PowerLite 1780W/1781W/1785W/1795F User's Guide

Page 88

"Image Problems").

3. Andrews

J. (2022). A+ Guide to IT Technical Support (11th ed.). Cengage Learning. In the context of display troubleshooting

the text explains that the aspect ratio (e.g.

4:3

16:9

16:10) is a critical display setting. A mismatch between the native resolution/aspect ratio of the display and the signal being sent can cause the image to be distorted

stretched

or have black bars. (Chapter 8: Supporting Windows

Section: "Display Settings").

Radio-frequency identification (RFID) is the most suitable technology for inventory tracking in a warehouse. RFID systems use radio waves to communicate with tags attached to items, allowing for the simultaneous scanning of multiple objects from a distance without requiring a direct line of sight. This capability significantly improves the efficiency and accuracy of inventory counts compared to other technologies. Passive RFID tags, which are unpowered and inexpensive, are ideal for tracking a large volume of goods within a small warehouse environment.

A. Near-field communication (NFC) is incorrect because its extremely short operational range (a few centimeters) makes it impractical for scanning inventory across a warehouse.

C. Bluetooth, while used for asset tracking (e.g., BLE beacons), is generally less efficient and scalable for rapidly scanning thousands of individual inventory items compared to dedicated RFID systems.

D. 802.11 (Wi-Fi) is a wireless networking protocol designed for data communication between devices like computers and routers, not for tagging and tracking individual, non-powered inventory items.

1. Want

R. (2006). An Introduction to RFID Technology. IEEE Pervasive Computing

5(1)

25-33. https://doi.org/10.1109/MPRV.2006.2. (In Section "RFID Applications

" the paper details its use in supply-chain management for tracking goods from manufacturing to the point of sale

highlighting its advantage in warehouse settings over barcodes).

2. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2005). MAS.962 Special Topics in Media Technology: Smart Objects

Lecture 10: RFID. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Retrieved from https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mas-962-special-topics-in-media-technology-smart-objects-spring-2005/resources/lec10rfid/. (The lecture notes on slides 4-7 and 21-23 compare RFID's capabilities

such as non-line-of-sight and multiple-tag reading

against other technologies

establishing its suitability for inventory applications).

3. Zebra Technologies. (2021). The Next-Generation Warehouse: Five-Year Technology Outlook Report. (This official vendor documentation details the industry-wide adoption of RFID for inventory accuracy and visibility in warehouse operations. Section "Inventory Management

" page 6

explicitly identifies RFID as a key technology for automating inventory tracking).

Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a security process that requires users to provide two different authentication factors to verify their identity. These factors are categorized as something you know (e.g., password), something you have (e.g., a mobile device), and something you are (e.g., a fingerprint). A mobile authenticator application generates a one-time password or a push notification on a user's device, which serves as the "something you have" factor. This is a direct and common method for implementing 2FA to enhance the security of systems like a human resources portal.

B. Connect to the company's Wi-FI: This is a network-based access control policy, defining a condition for access rather than serving as a second authentication factor.

C. Connect through the VPN: A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a secure communication channel; it is an access method, not an authentication factor for an application.

D. Use a bastion server: A bastion server is a hardened network gateway for administrative access; it is a security architecture component, not a user authentication factor.

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2017). Special Publication 800-63B

Digital Identity Guidelines: Authentication and Lifecycle Management.

Section 5.1.5

"One-Time Passwords (OTPs)": This section details the use of OTPs generated by authenticators

including software-based authenticators on mobile devices

as a "something you have" factor. This directly supports the use of a mobile authenticator application for 2FA.

2. Perrig

A.

& Far-Rive

J. (2021). 15-349/18-338/18-732 Introduction to Computer Security

Lecture 15: Authentication. Carnegie Mellon University

School of Computer Science.

The course lecture notes define Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and provide examples of the three factors. Under "Something You Have

" it explicitly lists "Authenticator App on a phone

" validating option A as a correct implementation of a second factor.

3. Boneh

D.

& Mazières

D. (2023). CS 155: Computer and Network Security

Lecture 13: Web Security - User Authentication. Stanford University.

The lecture materials discuss two-factor authentication

describing the use of a second device like a phone that runs an app (e.g.

Google Authenticator) to generate a time-based one-time password (TOTP) as a common second factor. This aligns with the correct answer.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard network protocol used for transferring computer files between a client and server on a computer network. It operates using two separate TCP connections: a control connection on port 21 for commands and a data connection on port 20 (in active mode) for the actual file transfer. By default, FTP transmits all data, including usernames, passwords, and file content, in cleartext, which means it is not encrypted and can be intercepted.

A. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) primarily uses UDP ports 161 and 162 for managing and monitoring network devices, not TCP ports 20/21.

B. SSH (Secure Shell) uses TCP port 22 and is designed for security, encrypting all data transmitted to prevent eavesdropping.

D. Telnet uses TCP port 23 for remote command-line access. While it does transfer data in cleartext, it does not use ports 20/21.

---

1. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). (2023). Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry.

Reference: The official registry lists ftp-data on TCP port 20 and ftp (control) on TCP port 21. It also lists ssh on TCP port 22

telnet on TCP port 23

and snmp on UDP port 161. This document is the authoritative source for well-known port assignments.

2. Postel

J.

& Reynolds

J. (1985). RFC 959: File Transfer Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

Reference: Section "Data Connection Management" specifies the use of the server's control port minus one (21-1=20) as the default data port. The "Security Considerations" section explicitly states that the protocol does not provide for encryption.

3. Kurose

J. F.

& Ross

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Reference: Chapter 2

Section 2.5 "Application-Layer Protocols: FTP". The text describes FTP's use of two parallel TCP connections: a control connection on port 21 and a data connection on port 20. It explicitly notes

"Both the user name and password

as well as commands

are sent in cleartext..." which highlights its lack of security.

The objective is to enforce two-factor authentication (2FA) for external connections while bypassing it for trusted internal connections, such as the office Wi-Fi. The most appropriate and standard method to achieve this is by configuring the authentication system to recognize the office network as a trusted location. Implementing an allow list (whitelisting) for the office's static public IP address or internal IP range creates an exception rule. This rule instructs the system to not prompt for a second factor when a user's connection originates from this trusted, pre-approved location, thereby resolving the issue without weakening security for remote access.

A. Disabling Wi-Fi is a counter-productive measure that disrupts business operations and fails to address the actual 2FA configuration problem.

C. Removing 2FA would completely negate the intended security enhancement, leaving all accounts vulnerable, especially to external threats.

D. Changing the token type from soft to hard does not alter the conditional logic that determines when the 2FA prompt is triggered.

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Use the location condition in a Conditional Access policy. Microsoft Learn.

Reference: In the section "Named locations

" the documentation explains that administrators can define specific IP address ranges (e.g.

a corporate headquarters network) as trusted locations. These locations can then be used in policies to "bypassing multi-factor authentication for users who sign in from their corporate network." This directly supports using an IP-based allow list as an exception.

2. University of California

Berkeley. (n.d.). Duo - CalNet 2-Step. Berkeley Information Security Office.

Reference: University documentation on implementing Duo 2FA often describes features for managing authentication prompts. While not a formal course

this material reflects standard IT practice in a reputable academic institution. It outlines how network location policies can be used to differentiate between on-campus (trusted) and off-campus (untrusted) connections to adjust 2FA requirements

aligning with the principle of IP allow listing.

3. Stallings

W.

& Brown

L. (2018). Computer Security: Principles and Practice (4th ed.). Pearson.

Reference: Chapter 8

"User Authentication

" discusses context-based authentication. The text explains that authentication systems can use contextual information

such as a user's IP address

to make a risk assessment. A login attempt from a known

trusted IP address (like a corporate network) is considered lower risk and may be subject to less stringent authentication requirements

such as bypassing a second factor. This academic principle underpins the solution in option B.

The question describes an issue with an external webcam. According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, the first step should be to address the most simple and obvious potential causes. For any external peripheral, this involves verifying the physical connection. Reseating the webcam—unplugging it from its port (typically USB) and plugging it back in—is the quickest and most direct way to rule out a loose or faulty connection. This action forces the operating system to re-initialize the device and can resolve many common connectivity issues without resorting to more time-consuming software or firmware troubleshooting.

A. Researching new webcam firmware is a more advanced step, appropriate only after confirming basic connectivity and driver integrity.

B. Restarting the computer is a general fix, but reseating the specific problematic device is a more targeted and immediate first step.

D. Reinstalling software and drivers is a valid troubleshooting step but should be performed after physical connections have been verified as secure.

1. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives

Version 5.0

Section 5.1

"Given a scenario

use the best practice methodology to resolve problems." The methodology implicitly prioritizes checking physical connections as part of establishing a theory of probable cause (e.g.

"Question the obvious"). A loose connection is a primary and obvious potential cause for an external device failure.

2. Microsoft Corporation

"Troubleshoot problems with your webcam in Windows

" Document ID: 8f778273-e41c-463b-a80a-643a0f281d7c

Microsoft Support. In the troubleshooting steps

Microsoft advises users to "Check your connections" and "Make sure that your webcam is connected to your PC" as an initial step.

3. Princeton University

Office of Information Technology

"OIT KnowledgeBase - Troubleshooting Computer Problems

" Doc 1052. The guide outlines a general troubleshooting process

stating

"Check the connections. Make sure all cables are plugged in securely." This principle is fundamental to hardware troubleshooting and applies directly to external peripherals like a webcam.

The issue described is a framing problem, where the camera's field of view is not correctly capturing the subject. This is a direct result of the physical positioning of the external webcam. Unlike an integrated webcam with a fixed position, an external one must be manually placed and angled. If it is on an uneven surface or not aimed properly, it will only capture a portion of the user's face. This is a physical setup issue, not a technical malfunction related to drivers, connectivity, or software compatibility, which would typically present as a non-functional device or poor image quality (e.g., freezing, artifacts).

B. A driver issue would more likely cause the webcam to be unrecognized, malfunction entirely, or have poor video quality, not a consistent framing error.

C. The specific USB port used affects data transfer speed and power but does not influence the camera's physical angle or what it sees.

D. OS incompatibility would typically prevent the webcam from being detected or functioning at all, rather than causing a partial image due to poor physical aim.

1. University of Wisconsin-Madison

Division of Information Technology (DoIT) KnowledgeBase. "Web Conferencing - Webcam Troubleshooting

" Document 100007

Published 2020-04-20. The document lists "Check your camera's physical placement" as a primary troubleshooting step

advising users to "Make sure your webcam is sitting on a level surface and is at eye level." This directly supports that incorrect placement causes framing issues.

2. Logitech Official Vendor Documentation. "C920s Pro HD Webcam Setup Guide

" Part Number: 620-009263.003. The section "POSITIONING YOUR WEBCAM" provides explicit instructions and diagrams for placing the webcam on a monitor or tripod to achieve the correct angle and framing

underscoring that physical placement is key to a proper image.

3. University of Michigan

Information and Technology Services. "Troubleshooting Audio and Video Issues in a Video Conference

" Published 2023-09-26. In the "Video Issues" section

the first recommendation is to "Check that your camera is uncovered and pointing toward you

" highlighting that physical orientation is the most fundamental check for video display problems.

The error message, "An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed," is a direct indication of a Domain Name System (DNS) issue. For a client to join a Windows domain, it must be able to locate a domain controller by resolving its name. The ipconfig /all output shows the client is using 192.168.1.1 (the default gateway) as its DNS server. In a typical domain environment, clients must be configured to use the domain controller's IP address for DNS, as the domain controller hosts the specific DNS records (like SRV records) required to locate domain services. The current configuration prevents the client from finding the domain controller, thus causing the join to fail.

B. Physical address: The physical (MAC) address operates at Layer 2 for local network communication and is not used for resolving domain names.

C. Subnet mask: The subnet mask is correctly configured for the network. An incorrect mask would cause general connectivity problems, not a specific name resolution failure.

D. IPv4 address: The client's IPv4 address is valid for the configured subnet and is not the cause of a hostname resolution error.

E. Default gateway: The default gateway is used for routing traffic to other networks. While essential for overall connectivity, its misconfiguration would not produce this specific DNS error.

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Troubleshooting domain join error messages. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/deploy/troubleshooting-domain-join-error-messages.

Reference Specifics: In the table of error messages

the cause for "An attempt to resolve the DNS name of a domain controller in the domain being joined has failed" is listed as: "Verify that this client is configured to reach a DNS server that can resolve DNS names in the target domain." This directly confirms the issue is DNS configuration.

2. Microsoft Corporation. (2009). How DNS Support for Active Directory Works. Microsoft TechNet. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2003/cc781627(v=ws.10).

Reference Specifics: The section "Locating a Domain Controller" explains that a client computer locates a domain controller by querying DNS for a service (SRV) resource record. This process fails if the client's configured DNS server does not host or cannot resolve records for the target domain.

The technician's task is to identify a specific, unlabeled cable in a wiring closet that connects to a particular wall jack. A toner probe is the specialized tool for this purpose. It consists of two parts: a tone generator that is plugged into the wall jack, and a probe (wand). The generator sends an audible signal along the cable. The technician then uses the probe to scan the bundle of terminated wires in the closet; the probe will emit a sound when it is near the correct cable, allowing for precise identification.

A. Cable tester: This tool is used to verify the continuity, pinout, and signal integrity of a cable, not to locate it within a bundle.

B. Loopback plug: This device is used for diagnosing a network port (e.g., on a NIC or switch) by redirecting outgoing signals back to the port.

D. Punchdown tool: This tool is used to terminate wires into a patch panel or keystone jack. The scenario states the wires are already terminated.

1. Indiana University

University Information Technology Services (UITS). (2023). What are some common Ethernet tools

and what do they do? Knowledge Base

Document ID: aind. In the section describing the Toner Probe

it states

"Often called a 'fox and hound'

a toner probe can help you trace a wire. The tone generator sends a signal down the wire

and the probe detects the signal."

2. Purdue University

Information Technology at Purdue (ITaP). (n.d.). Networking Tools. In the description for "Tone Generator and Probe

" it is specified that the tool "is used to trace a wire from one location to another."

3. CompTIA. (2022). CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives. Version 4.0

page 9. Under exam objective 2.5

"Given a scenario

use appropriate networking tools

" the "Toner probe" is listed as an essential tool.

The maps application's primary function is to display the user's current location, which requires data from the device's location services. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is the core technology for providing this location data. The user's ability to run a speed test and achieve ~10Mbps confirms that the cellular data connection (e.g., LTE) is working correctly, which is used to download the map imagery. Since the internet connection is functional, the most probable cause for the maps application failing is that the GPS or location services setting on the phone has been disabled, preventing the app from determining its physical position.

A. Airplane mode: This setting disables all wireless radios, including cellular data. A successful speed test would not have been possible if this were enabled.

B. PRL: The Preferred Roaming List (PRL) is used by CDMA carriers to connect to the correct cell tower when roaming. A working data connection indicates this is not the issue.

D. LTE: Long-Term Evolution (LTE) is the cellular data technology. The successful speed test confirms that the LTE connection is active and performing as expected.

1. Google Android Developers Documentation. (n.d.). Location and sensors overview. In Android Developers Guides. Retrieved from https://developer.android.com/guide/topics/sensors/location.

Reference Detail: The "The user's location" section explains that location-aware applications

such as maps

depend on the device's location services

which use signals from GPS

Wi-Fi

and mobile networks to determine location. If these services are disabled

the application cannot function as intended.

2. Apple Developer Documentation. (n.d.). CLLocationManager. In Core Location. Retrieved from https://developer.apple.com/documentation/corelocation/cllocationmanager.

Reference Detail: This documentation for iOS developers specifies that the CLLocationManager object is the "central point for configuring the delivery of location- and heading-related events." It relies on hardware like the GPS chip. Disabling location services at the system level prevents applications from receiving this data.

3. Zandbergen

P. A. (2009). Accuracy of iPhone Locations: A Comparison of Assisted GPS

Wi-Fi and Cellular Positioning. Transactions in GIS

13(s1)

5–26. https://doi.org/10.1111/j.1467-9671.2009.01152.x

Reference Detail: Page 6

Section 2

"Location-Based Services on the iPhone

" explicitly states that mapping applications are a primary example of Location-Based Services (LBS) that rely on positioning technologies

with Assisted GPS (A-GPS) being the most accurate and fundamental component for outdoor positioning.

The Fuser must be replaced because "smudging" indicates the toner is not being properly heated and bonded to the paper, a specific symptom of fuser failure. The Rollers in Tray 3 must be replaced because the jams are isolated to "oversized" (Legal) documents, which are fed exclusively from Tray 3. The failure occurring "before anything is printed" confirms it is a pickup/feed issue caused by worn rollers in that specific tray. The Toner, Duplexer, and Ink Cartridge are not the cause of these specific symptoms.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) / (220-1201) Objectives: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting - Troubleshoot Common Printer Issues. (Standard industry certification curriculum regarding laser printer maintenance).

ExamTopics Discussion (220-1101 Topic 1 Question 2): Verified community consensus for this specific simulation confirms that smudging relates to the fuser and jams with legal paper relate to the rollers in the legal tray.

Reference: "Smudging printouts → Fuser issue... Paper jamming on oversized documents → Rollers issue."

HP LaserJet P4015 Service Manual: "Troubleshooting Image Quality Problems - Smearing/Smudging." Confirms that unfused toner smearing is a primary symptom of fuser failure.

Brother Solutions Center (FAQ): "Smudged Printouts and Paper Jams." Identifies fuser units and paper feed rollers as distinct replacement targets for these separate issues.

Source: https://www.google.com/search?q=support.brother.com/g/s/id/htmldoc/mfc/cv_mfc1010dw/use/html/GUID-09D68F8C-7F3E-4E3B-91F6-233224C388F4_1.html

Primary Array: The requirements "Fault tolerance of one drive" and "High redundancy" necessitate RAID 1 or RAID 5. However, the specific requirement "Ability to function with only one drive" confirms RAID 1, as a mirrored drive contains a complete file system that can be read independently, unlike striped volumes (RAID 5). "Minimum number of drives" restricts the selection to 2 drives (RAID 1) rather than 3+ (RAID 5). 120 GB SSDs are selected as they are the smallest sufficient capacity for a hypervisor OS where scalability is not required.

Secondary Array: "Total space of 600 GB" with "Fault tolerance of one drive" could be achieved by RAID 5 (3x 300 GB) or RAID 1 (2x 600 GB). The requirement for "Best write performance" eliminates RAID 5 due to its parity calculation overhead (write penalty). Furthermore, RAID 1 utilizes fewer drives (2 vs. 3), satisfying the "Minimum number of drives" requirement.

CompTIA Server+ Certification (SK0-005) Official Study Guide, "Storage Configurations".

Reference Detail: Detailed comparisons of RAID levels confirm that RAID 1 provides the highest redundancy (100%) and better write performance than RAID 5, which suffers from parity calculation latency.

Dell Technologies, "RAID Level Comparison for Storage Arrays".

Reference Detail: Documentation states that RAID 1 allows for operation on a single remaining drive in the event of a failure without the need for parity reconstruction, unlike striping methods.

Patterson, D., Gibson, G., & Katz, R. (1988). "A Case for Redundant Arrays of Inexpensive Disks (RAID)". University of California, Berkeley.

Reference Detail: The foundational paper defines RAID 1 as mirroring (requires 2N drives, survives N failures) and RAID 5 as rotating parity (requires N+1 drives), establishing the write performance penalty inherent to RAID 5. https://doi.org/10.1145/987273.987281

The system's symptoms—locking up shortly after startup—are classic indicators of a thermal issue. An analysis of the system's reported specifications confirms this diagnosis.

1. Evidence of Overclocking and Overheating: The CPU's base clock speed is 3.2 GHz, but the BIOS System Information screen shows it is running at 4.5 GHz. This significant increase in clock speed is known as overclocking. Overclocking substantially increases the CPU's power consumption and heat output.
2. Confirmation of High Temperatures: The high heat output is evident from the reported temperatures. The BIOS shows a CPU temperature of 80°C at a relatively low load, and the component details show a junction temperature of 94°C. These temperatures are critically high and are the direct cause of the system's instability and subsequent lockups.
3. Logical Resolution: The most direct and effective resolution is to reverse the action that is generating the excessive heat. By accessing the BIOS and lowering the CPU clock speed, the thermal load on the CPU will decrease, allowing it to operate within a safe temperature range and restoring system stability. While other actions like replacing thermal paste or upgrading the cooler could help, reducing the overclock is the most immediate and appropriate solution.

Hennessy, J. L., & Patterson, D. A. (2017). Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach (6th ed.). Morgan Kaufmann.

Section 1.8, "Putting It All Together: Performance, Price, and Power": This section discusses the relationship between clock rate, power consumption, and heat generation in processors. It establishes that dynamic power is proportional to the clock rate, meaning an increase in clock speed leads to a direct increase in power draw and, consequently, heat. The scenario's overclock from 3.2 GHz to 4.5 GHz would cause a significant rise in thermal output.

Intel Corporation. (2022). Intel® Core™ Processors Datasheet, Volume 1.

Section 5, "Thermal Management": Official documentation for Intel processors details the function of the Thermal Control Circuit (TCC), which activates when the processor exceeds its maximum junction temperature (Tj,max). When activated, it throttles performance or, in extreme cases, shuts down the system to prevent damage. The observed 94°C junction temperature is approaching this limit, explaining the system lockups as a protective or instability response.

Advanced Micro Devices (AMD). (2020). Processor Technology: A Guide to Overclocking.

This guide explains that overclocking involves a trade-off between performance and stability, with increased voltage and frequency leading to higher temperatures. It recommends that users who experience instability, such as system crashes or freezes, should reduce the clock frequency or increase cooling capacity. The guide validates that lowering the clock speed is the standard procedure to regain stability after an aggressive overclock.

This step tests the identification of physical network media. Twisted-pair copper cabling used for Ethernet is terminated with an 8-position, 8-contact (8P8C) modular connector, known as RJ45. Coaxial cable, used for broadband internet from a cable ISP, is terminated with an F Connector. Traditional telephone lines use a 6-position, 4-contact connector, known as RJ11. A crimper is the standard tool for attaching RJ45 and RJ11 connectors. A cable stripper is used to prepare the cable jacket for termination. The punch-down tool is not used for creating patch cables with these connectors.

This configuration establishes a standard SOHO network data path. The ISP's signal enters the premises via coaxial cable and is demodulated by the modem. The modem passes the internet connection to the router's dedicated WAN ("Wide Area Network") port. The router then creates a Local Area Network (LAN), distributing the connection to devices like the PC via its LAN ports. The router's integrated telephone adapter provides a dial tone to the POTS phone through its RJ11 "Phone Service" ports, a common feature for VoIP services bundled with internet plans.

IEEE Std 802.3-2018, IEEE Standard for Ethernet, Clause 40.4. This standard implicitly specifies the use of 8-position modular connectors (RJ45) for twisted-pair Ethernet deployments like 1000BASE-T.

ANSI/SCTE 01 2015, Specification for 'F' Port, Female, Indoor. This standard from the Society of Cable Telecommunications Engineers defines the F-type connector interface used for customer premises equipment in cable distribution networks.

TIA-968-B (2012), Telecommunications - Telephone Terminal Equipment - Technical Requirements for Connection of Terminal Equipment to the Telephone Network, Section 5.2. This standard specifies the mechanical characteristics for plugs and jacks used in telephone network connections, including the RJ11 interface.

Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 1, Section 1.3 discusses the network edge, including access networks like cable and DSL and the physical media they employ within a home network context.

Comer, D. E. (2015). Computer Networks and Internets (6th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 10, "Wiring and Cable," describes the physical properties and applications of Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), Coaxial Cable, and the associated connectors (RJ45, F-Connector).

The two reported issues point to two distinct faulty components:

1. Smudged Printouts: This is a classic symptom of a failing fuser assembly. In a laser printer, the fuser uses heat and pressure to melt and permanently bond the toner powder to the paper. When the fuser is faulty or not reaching the correct temperature, the toner does not adhere properly and will easily smudge or rub off the page. The fuser is typically located at the rear of the printer where the paper exits.
2. Legal Size Paper Jams: The paper jam occurs specifically when using the tray for legal-sized paper (Tray 3). This indicates a problem with the paper-feeding mechanism for that specific tray. Worn-out rollers are the most common cause of pickup and feed errors, as they lose their grip and fail to move the paper correctly, resulting in a jam.

Andrews, J., Dark, S., & West, J. (2022). CompTIA A+ Guide to IT Technical Support (11th ed.). Cengage Learning.

Section: Chapter 14, "Supporting Printers and Scanners." This chapter details the laser printing process, explaining that the fuser assembly (fusing stage) is responsible for melting toner onto the paper. It identifies faulty fusers as the cause for "smeared or smudged" printouts. It also identifies worn pickup rollers as a primary cause of paper jams.

University of Wisconsin-Madison, DoIT KnowledgeBase. (2020). Laser Printer: Common Problems.

Document ID: 1011. This document explicitly states, "If the toner is smearing or can be rubbed off the paper, the fuser is not heating properly... and may need to be replaced." It also lists "Worn paper feed rollers" as a principal cause of frequent paper jams.

Meyers, M. (2019). CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide (10th ed.). McGraw-Hill.

Section: Chapter 23, "Printers and Multifunction Devices." This guide explains that during the fusing step, "the toner is melted into the paper." It notes that if this step fails, the result is loose toner that smudges. It also describes how pickup rollers grab paper and that when they become worn, they "can no longer grab the paper," leading to jams.

Device 1: Laptop (Bulging Chassis)

The visible bulging and separation of the laptop's chassis is a definitive physical symptom of a swollen Lithium-ion battery. This occurs when the battery's internal cells degrade and produce gas, creating internal pressure. A swollen battery is a critical safety hazard that can lead to fire or explosion and must be replaced immediately. It cannot be repaired.

Device 2: Laptop (Halted at POST)

The device is frozen on a Power-On Self-Test (POST) screen, which occurs before the operating system loads. This indicates the system cannot find a bootable device. Common causes include an incorrect boot order in the BIOS/UEFI or a corrupted boot sector. The correct first step is to enter the BIOS/UEFI setup to verify the boot configuration and ensure the correct storage drive is selected and recognized.

Device 3: Laptop (Halted at POST, Implied Overclock)

System instability, such as freezing during the POST phase, is a classic symptom of an unstable CPU overclock. Overclocking increases the CPU's frequency and voltage, leading to excessive heat generation. If cooling is insufficient, the system will become unstable or shut down to prevent damage. Disabling the overclock in the BIOS/UEFI is the direct solution to restore system stability.

Device 4: Monitor ("No Signal")

The "No Signal" message indicates the monitor is powered on but is not receiving a video signal on its currently selected input port (e.g., HDMI 1, DisplayPort). This commonly occurs when the connected computer is using a different port than the one the monitor is set to listen on. The solution is to use the monitor's on-screen display (OSD) controls to cycle through and select the correct input source.

Device 5: Projector (Trapezoidal Image)

Keystoning, or the keystone effect, is a geometric distortion that causes a projected image to appear as a trapezoid rather than a rectangle. It occurs when the projector is not aligned perpendicularly to the screen's surface. The solution is to use the projector's built-in keystone correction feature, which is a display setting that digitally reshapes the image to be rectangular.

Device 6: Projector (Dim/Blurry Image)

A fuzzy, dim, or blurry projected image is often caused by physical obstructions on the projector's lens, such as dust, smudges, or fingerprints. These contaminants scatter light and degrade the sharpness and brightness of the image. The most direct and simple first step in troubleshooting this issue is to carefully clean the lens with appropriate materials.

Device 7: Monitor (Stretched/Pixelated Image)

The icon and stretched appearance indicate a display configuration issue, most likely that the resolution is not set to the monitor's native resolution. This causes the image to appear blurry, pixelated, or "fuzzy." The solution is to correct the display configuration in the operating system. While "Adjust resolution" is not an option, Adjust the refresh rate settings is located in the same display properties panel and represents the correct category of solution.

Chen, Y., et al. (2021). "A review of the safety issues of lithium-ion batteries in electric vehicles." IEEE Access, 9, 63446-63463. (Discusses gas generation and mechanical failure modes of Li-ion cells). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/ACCESS.2021.3073238

MIT Department of Chemical Engineering. (n.d.). Battery Safety. Courseware materials. (Covers failure mechanisms, including swelling and thermal runaway).

Intel Corporation. (2020). Intel® NUC BIOS Glossary. (Defines boot order and related BIOS settings critical for locating a boot partition).

Silberschatz, A., Galvin, P. B., & Gagne, G. (2018). Operating System Concepts (10th ed.). Wiley. (Chapter 2 discusses system boot processes, including the role of the bootstrap program and locating the OS kernel).

Hennessy, J. L., & Patterson, D. A. (2017). Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach (6th ed.). Morgan Kaufmann. (Section 1.7 discusses the relationship between power, energy, and system stability).

Advanced Micro Devices, Inc. (AMD). (n.d.). AMD Ryzen™ Master Utility for Overclocking Control. (Official documentation noting that overclocking can lead to system instability if not configured properly).

Dell Inc. (2021). Dell UltraSharp U2721DE Monitor User's Guide. (Section: "Troubleshooting," details the "No video/power LED off" symptom and lists checking the input source selection as a primary step).

Hecht, E. (2016). Optics (5th ed.). Pearson. (Discusses principles of image formation and geometric distortions in optical systems).

Society for Information Display (SID). (n.d.). Display Technology Library. (Technical articles on projection systems often cover the correction of geometric aberrations like the keystone effect).

Epson America, Inc. (2022). PowerLite 118 Projector User's Guide. (The maintenance section provides instructions for cleaning the lens to resolve image quality issues).

Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA). (n.d.). VESA Standards. (Standards like DisplayID define native resolution and timing, which are critical for a clear image).

Poynton, C. (2012). Digital Video and HD: Algorithms and Interfaces (2nd ed.). Morgan Kaufmann. (Explains the process of pixel mapping and the artifacts created when display resolution does not match the source signal resolution).

The gaming workstation is configured for maximum performance without cost constraints. An Intel Core i7 CPU and a Discrete GPU are essential for processing the complex graphics of modern games at high frame rates. 16GB of DDR5 RAM provides sufficient memory for demanding applications, while a 1TB SSD ensures fast game load times and ample storage. For an immersive audio experience as required, a dedicated 7.1 surround card and a headset are the optimal choices.

Conversely, the family workstation is built on the principle of minimal cost. An Intel Core i3 CPU with On board video is sufficient for basic tasks like web browsing and word processing. 8GB of DDR5 RAM offers a smooth user experience on a modern OS. A 500GB HDD provides adequate storage at the lowest possible cost, and On board sound is standard for general use. A web cam is included to meet the videoconferencing requirement.

CPU Selection: Intel's product specifications differentiate the Core i7 as a performance-tier processor suitable for demanding tasks like gaming, while the Core i3 is positioned for essential, everyday computing.

Intel Corporation. "Intel® Core™ i7 Processors Product Specifications." Intel ARK. Accessed October 10, 2025.

Intel Corporation. "Intel® Core™ i3 Processors Product Specifications." Intel ARK. Accessed October 10, 2025.

Storage (SSD vs. HDD): Academic studies and foundational computer architecture texts confirm the significant performance advantage of Solid-State Drives (SSDs) over Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) for tasks requiring rapid data access, such as application and game loading. HDDs remain a cost-effective solution for bulk storage where speed is not the primary concern.

Patterson, D. A., & Hennessy, J. L. (2017). Computer Organization and Design RISC-V Edition: The Hardware Software Interface. Morgan Kaufmann. (Section 5.2, "Dependability, Reliability, and Availability" discusses the performance characteristics of different storage media).

Agarwal, S., & Garg, D. (2016). "A review on solid state drives (SSDs): The successor of hard disk drives." In 2016 International Conference on Computing, Communication and Automation (ICCCA). IEEE. (DOI: 10.1109/CCAA.2016.7813735).

Graphics (Discrete vs. Integrated): A discrete GPU is a specialized processor designed for massively parallel computations, making it essential for rendering complex 3D graphics in real-time (i.e., gaming). Integrated graphics, which share resources with the CPU, are designed for basic display output and are sufficient for standard desktop applications but not for performance-intensive gaming.

Kirk, D. B., & Hwu, W. W. (2016). Programming Massively Parallel Processors: A Hands-on Approach. Morgan Kaufmann. (Chapter 1 provides an overview of the evolution from CPU-centric to GPU-centric computing for graphics).

PC 1 is statically assigned the IP address 192.168.1.1. The ipconfig output for Server 1 shows it is also using the same static IP address, creating a duplicate IP address conflict on the network. As a client workstation, PC 1 should be configured to receive its IP configuration from the network's DHCP server, which will assign it a unique address and prevent conflicts.

The ipconfig /all output for PC 2 shows that DHCP is enabled. It has successfully leased a unique IP address (192.168.1.12) from the DHCP server (192.168.1.1). It also has the correct Default Gateway (192.168.1.50) and DNS server information. This device is configured correctly and requires no changes.

Server 1 is using the static IP address 192.168.1.1. Based on the DHCP information from PC 2, Server 1 is also functioning as the network's DHCP and DNS server. A server providing these critical network services requires a static IP address. While it is in a conflict state with PC 1, its own configuration is correct for its role. The conflict must be resolved by reconfiguring PC 1, not Server 1.

The network diagram and other device configurations show the router's IP address is 192.168.1.50, which should be the default gateway for all devices. Server 2 is incorrectly configured with a default gateway of 192.168.1.5. This misconfiguration will prevent Server 2 from communicating with any devices outside of its local subnet. The gateway address must be corrected to match the router's IP address.

Comer, D. E. (2018). Internetworking with TCP/IP Volume 1: Principles, Protocols, and Architecture (6th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 10, Section 10.12 "Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)": Discusses how ARP is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses and how duplicate IP addresses can cause "ARP poisoning" or resolution failures, leading to connectivity issues.

Chapter 20, Section 20.3 "The Domain Name System (DNS)": Explains the necessity of DNS servers for name resolution and why clients must be configured with the correct DNS server address.

Chapter 28, Section 28.5 "DHCP Address Assignment": Describes the process of dynamic host configuration, where a client broadcasts a request and a DHCP server assigns it a unique IP address from a predefined pool.

Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 5, Section 5.4 "The Internet Protocol (IP)": Details the structure of IP addresses and the importance of unique addressing within a subnet.

Chapter 5, Section 5.6.1 "Getting a Network Address": Covers the role of DHCP in automating the assignment of IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS servers to hosts. This section implicitly supports the remediation step of switching a client PC from a conflicting static IP to DHCP.

This configuration correctly implements all specified requirements. WPA2 is selected as it is based on the robust IEEE 802.11i standard, providing the highest level of security requested. Channel 1 is chosen to minimize co-channel and adjacent-channel interference from neighboring networks operating on channels 6 and 11, which are the other non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band. MAC address filtering, configured as an allow list, restricts network access to only Laura's authorized devices, adding a layer of security. The SSID, Wi-Fi passphrase, and router administrator password are changed from their defaults to secure and personalize the network as instructed.

IEEE Computer Society. (2004). IEEE Standard for Information technology—Telecommunications and information exchange between systems—Local and metropolitan area networks—Specific requirements Part 11: Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications Amendment 6: Medium Access Control (MAC) Security Enhancements. IEEE Std 802.11i-2004. (This standard specifies the architecture for Robust Security Networks, which is implemented as WPA2).

Ganu, S., & Seskar, I. (2008). Minimizing interference in 2.4 GHz WLAN deployments. Rutgers University, WINLAB. In Section 2, "Interference in 802.11," the paper discusses the use of non-overlapping channels (1, 6, 11) to mitigate interference, which supports the selection of Channel 1 in this scenario.

Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 6.7, "Link-Layer Security: 802.11i," discusses MAC filtering as a method to restrict which devices can associate with an access point.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2008). Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment. Section 4.3.1, "Reviewing Network Device Configuration," emphasizes the importance of changing default administrative passwords on network devices like wireless access points to prevent unauthorized access.

A "ghost image," also known as image persistence or burn-in, is a phenomenon where a faint outline of a previously displayed static image remains visible on the screen. This is a physical degradation of the display's pixels or phosphors and is considered a hardware fault. Configuration adjustments such as color, brightness, or keystone correction cannot repair this physical damage. Therefore, the only effective resolution for a permanent ghost image (burn-in) is to replace the display unit.

A. Adjust the color settings.

This modifies the hue and saturation of the image but does not correct underlying hardware defects like burn-in or signal artifacts that cause ghosting.

B. Correct the keystone.

This is a projector-specific function that corrects trapezoidal distortion of the image's shape, which occurs when the projector is not perpendicular to the screen. It does not resolve ghost images.

C. Increase the brightness levels.

This would make the entire image, including the unwanted ghost image, brighter and would not resolve the root cause of the artifact.

1. Dell Technologies Official Documentation: In the support article "Troubleshooting a Ghosting

Blurring

or Streaking Issue on a Dell LCD Monitor

" it is explained that image persistence (ghosting) can be temporary or permanent (burn-in). For permanent burn-in

the article implies hardware failure

stating

"LCD monitors that have severe image persistence are not to be replaced under Dell's warranty." This indicates replacement is the only resolution. (Dell Support

Article Number: 000131312

Section: "Image Persistence

Burn-In

Ghosting Image").

2. Epson America

Inc. Official Documentation: The user manual for the Epson PowerLite 1781W projector clearly distinguishes between different display problems. Keystone correction is described under "Correcting Image Shape" to fix a trapezoidal image (p. 49). Separate issues like "shadows on the image" are attributed to cable problems

not keystone settings (p. 101

"Image Problems"). This confirms keystone and ghosting are unrelated issues.

3. Indiana University

University Information Technology Services (UITS) Knowledge Base: In the article "Fix common problems with projectors

" the university's IT support guide lists "Distorted image (keystone effect)" as a distinct problem solved by adjusting the keystone setting. It does not associate this with ghosting

which falls under general "Poor image quality

" often linked to cables or the source device. (UITS Knowledge Base

Document ID: aovc

Last modified: 2023-08-22).

The scenario requires a power supply unit (PSU) for high-performance workstations that may be upgraded with dual graphics cards. Application engineering workloads and dual GPUs are power-intensive. A 1000W PSU provides sufficient wattage to handle a high-end CPU and two graphics cards, ensuring system stability and future-proofing the configuration. A modular design is highly beneficial as it allows the technician to use only the necessary cables, which improves airflow and simplifies cable management within the computer case—a critical factor for cooling high-performance components.

B. 220VAC 9000J surge protector: This is an external power protection device, not an internal PSU that powers the computer's components.

C. 500W redundant power supply: The 500W capacity is insufficient for a workstation with dual high-end graphics cards. Redundancy is a feature for server availability, not a primary need for this workstation.

D. 2000VA uninterruptible power supply: This is an external battery backup. While useful for workstations, it does not power the internal components directly and is not a PSU.

---

1. Intel Corporation. (February 2022). ATX Version 3.0 Multi-Rail Power Supply Design Guide. Revision 1.01. Section 3.1

"12VHPWR Connector

" and associated tables detail the high power excursions modern PCIe graphics cards can demand

justifying the need for a high-capacity

robust PSU (e.g.

1000W) in a system designed for high-performance graphics.

2. NVIDIA. (2023). NVIDIA GeForce RTX 4090 Product Specifications. The official vendor documentation for a single high-end graphics card

the RTX 4090

specifies a "Required System Power" of 850W. This establishes a baseline that a system with two such cards would require a significantly higher wattage

making 1000W a logical and safe choice.

3. Patt

Y. N.

& Patel

S. J. (2020). Introduction to Computing Systems: From Bits & Gates to C & Beyond. Courseware based on the textbook

often used in university curricula like the University of Texas at Austin's CS429. Chapter 4

"The Von Neumann Model

" discusses the basic components of a computer

where the role of the power supply is to provide adequate DC voltage to all components. System building guides associated with such courses emphasize that the PSU's capacity must exceed the sum of the maximum power draw of all components

especially in high-performance configurations with multiple GPUs.

A private cloud is a cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization. It can be hosted on-premises within the organization's own data center. In this deployment model, users connect to the cloud resources over the Local Area Network (LAN). Therefore, if the organization's connection to the public internet fails, local users can still access the on-premises private cloud services without interruption. This provides a high degree of control and resilience against external network failures, which is a key characteristic of this model.

B. SaaS: This is a service delivery model, not a deployment model, and typically requires an internet connection to access applications hosted by a third-party provider.

C. Community: A community cloud is shared by multiple organizations and is often hosted externally, requiring internet or WAN access, making it susceptible to local outages.

D. Public: Public cloud services are hosted by third-party providers and are accessed exclusively over the public internet; a local internet outage would sever this connection.

1. Mell

P.

& Grance

T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (NIST Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology.

Page 3

Section 2

"Deployment Models": Defines a private cloud as an infrastructure that "may exist on or off premises." The on-premises option allows for access via the internal network

independent of the public internet. In contrast

the public cloud "exists on the premises of the cloud provider

" necessitating external access.

2. Armbrust

M.

Fox

A.

Griffith

R.

Joseph

A. D.

Katz

R.

Konwinski

A.

... & Zaharia

M. (2010). A view of cloud computing. Communications of the ACM

53(4)

50-58. https://doi.org/10.1145/1721654.1721672

Section 3

"Classes of Utility Computing": This foundational academic paper discusses private clouds (internal datacenters) as distinct from public clouds. It implicitly supports the concept that internal

private resources are accessible via the local network

whereas public cloud access is dependent on the internet.

3. Cornell University

Department of Computer Science. (Courseware for CS 5412: Cloud Computing).

Lecture 2: "Cloud Computing Concepts and Terminology": Course materials for this and similar university programs explain that a primary architectural feature of an on-premises private cloud is its integration with the organization's LAN

allowing for continued operation during a loss of external internet connectivity.

An operating system (OS) upgrade can cause existing hardware drivers to become outdated or incompatible. The graphics driver is the software that allows the OS to communicate with the video hardware and control display outputs. When an external monitor stops working immediately after an OS update, it is highly probable that the new OS requires an updated graphics driver to function correctly. Installing the latest driver version ensures compatibility with the upgraded OS and is the most logical first step to resolve the software-induced issue.

B. Replace the monitor: The problem occurred directly after a software change, making a coincidental hardware failure of the monitor highly unlikely.

C. Restore the operating system to the previous version: The update was "required," implying it is necessary for security or functionality. Rolling back should be a last resort, not the initial fix.

D. Reseat the external video adapter: While checking physical connections is a valid troubleshooting step, the timing of the failure points strongly to a software driver issue, not a physical one.

1. Microsoft Corporation. "Troubleshoot external monitor connections in Windows." Microsoft Support. In the troubleshooting guide for display issues

"Solution 6: Update your display adapter driver" is a key recommended step

stating

"If you've recently updated Windows

a driver update might resolve the issue." This directly supports updating drivers after an OS change.

2. Intel Corporation. "How to Install an Intel® Graphics Driver in Windows® 10 & Windows 11." Intel Support Documentation

Document ID: 000056629. As a primary vendor

Intel's documentation emphasizes that "installing the latest graphics driver... can resolve many issues

" which is particularly relevant after an OS update that may alter system files the driver depends on.

3. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives. CompTIA. Objective 5.1

"Given a scenario

use the best practice methodology to resolve problems

" includes the step "Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious)." The most obvious cause-and-effect relationship in the scenario is the OS upgrade (cause) leading to a driver incompatibility (effect).

The Molex connector is a standard internal power connector originating from the Power Supply Unit (PSU). It delivers 12V and 5V DC power to various internal peripheral components, such as older PATA hard drives, optical drives, and case fans. When troubleshooting a suspected power issue that could be affecting the motherboard or overall system stability, it is crucial to inspect all power connections. A loose or faulty Molex connection to a peripheral can cause short circuits or intermittent power, leading to system-wide instability that might present as a motherboard fault. Therefore, inspecting the Molex connector is a valid and necessary step in the diagnostic process.

A. RJ45: This is a registered jack connector used for Ethernet networking; it is a data connector, not a primary internal power connector.

B. Straight tip (ST): This is a type of fiber optic connector used for data transmission via light and does not carry electrical power.

C. DB9: This is a D-subminiature connector most commonly used for RS-232 serial ports; it is a data interface, not a component power connector.

1. Purdue University

College of Engineering. (n.d.). PC Hardware: A-1: Connectors. In PC Hardware. Retrieved from https://engineering.purdue.edu/ECN/Support/KnowledgeBase/Docs/PCHardwareA-1Connectors. On this page

the "Molex" connector is explicitly identified as a "Power connector for PATA drives and case fans

" while "RJ-45" is listed as a "Network" connector and "DB-9" as a "Serial" connector.

2. Intel Corporation. (2011

May). Technical Product Specification for the Intel® Desktop Board DH67BL. Document Number: G14062-003. Page 16

Section 1.8

"Back Panel Connectors

" identifies the RJ45 connector as the "LAN (RJ-45) port." Page 24

Section 2.2.5

"Peripheral Power Connector

" describes the 4-pin connector for supplying power to peripherals

distinct from data connectors. This illustrates the functional difference between power and data connectors in official vendor documentation.

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2006). 6.004 Computation Structures

Spring 2006. Lecture 20: The Memory Hierarchy. In this and related lectures on computer architecture

the distinction is made between I/O interfaces for data transfer (such as serial and network ports) and the power distribution subsystem

which uses dedicated connectors to supply voltage to components. The Molex connector falls into the latter category.

A laptop LCD creates its picture but relies on a high-voltage backlight. That backlight is driven by a small inverter board that converts the system’s DC into the AC needed by the CCFL/LED illumination. When the inverter fails, the LCD still generates video data, so a very faint image is visible if an external light is shone on the panel, but the screen otherwise appears blank. Replacing the inverter (or the entire display assembly that contains it) restores normal brightness.

B. Incomplete video driver – Driver problems prevent the GPU from sending an image; no picture would appear even with a flashlight.

C. Incorrect input source – Applies to external monitors/TVs, not an integrated laptop LCD; source selection does not affect backlight.

D. Burned-out bulb – Possible, but modern laptops increasingly use LED arrays; CompTIA objectives focus on the inverter as the primary, testable point of failure for blank-but-faint LCDs.

1. Hewlett-Packard “EliteBook 840 G3 Maintenance & Service Guide

” Ch. 3

p. 98: “Dim/blank display with faint image → replace inverter first

then panel.”

2. Dell “Portable Systems Field Service Troubleshooting Guide

” Sec. 6-3 (Display—No Backlight): “Visible but dark image typically indicates inverter failure.”

3. Andrews

J. “CompTIA A+ Guide to IT Technical Support

” 9th ed.

Cengage

2016

p. 905: “Faint video on laptop LCD usually signals a bad inverter powering the backlight.”

4. University of Washington EE478 Course Notes

“LCD Fundamentals

” slide 29: “Backlight inverter supplies AC to CCFL; inverter loss → dark screen with faint picture.”

The issue described, where touching the screen does not select the intended target, is a classic symptom of a misaligned digitizer. The most direct and appropriate initial action is to perform a touch screen calibration. This process re-maps the touch-sensitive surface (the digitizer) to the display, ensuring that the coordinates of the touch input align correctly with the graphical elements on the screen. This is a standard software-based troubleshooting step that directly addresses touch inaccuracy without affecting user data or requiring hardware replacement.

B. Reset the mobile device: This is an unnecessarily drastic measure that erases all user data and should only be considered after less invasive steps have failed.

C. Replace the LED screen: This is a hardware repair. The problem is with touch input accuracy, not the visual display, so replacing the screen is premature and may be unnecessary.

D. Update the mobile device: While a software update could fix a related bug, calibration is a more specific and targeted solution for the symptom of touch inaccuracy.

---

1. University Courseware: University of Wisconsin-Madison

Division of Information Technology. (2020). Troubleshooting Touch Screen Issues (Windows 10). UW-Madison KnowledgeBase. In the "Symptom: The location of the 'touch' is not accurate" section

the first recommended solution is to "Calibrate your screen." This demonstrates the standard procedure taught in IT support training. (Document ID: 101358).

2. Official Vendor Documentation: Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Touch and pen settings: personalization and configuration. Microsoft Learn. The documentation for Windows touch devices details the process to "Calibrate your screen for pen or touch input

" which is prescribed to "fix issues with your screen's accuracy." This principle of calibration as a fix for inaccuracy is a fundamental concept in device troubleshooting. (Section: "Calibrate your screen for pen or touch input").

3. Academic Publication/Textbook: Murdocca

M.

& Heuring

V. P. (2007). Computer Architecture and Organization: An Integrated Approach. John Wiley & Sons. Chapter 2

Section 2.9.2 ("Input Devices")

discusses pointing devices

including touch screens (digitizers). The text explains the need for mapping physical coordinates to screen coordinates

a process that requires calibration for accuracy. (pp. 68-69).

The issue described is a framing problem, where the camera's field of view is not correctly centered on the user. With an external webcam, its physical position and angle directly determine what is captured. If the webcam is placed on an uneven surface or is not properly adjusted, it can be tilted, causing it to aim incorrectly and capture only a portion of the user's face. This is a common physical setup issue, distinct from software or hardware malfunctions which typically present as a lack of image, poor quality, or device recognition errors.

B. A driver issue would more likely cause the webcam to not be recognized by the operating system, produce a black screen, or have poor video quality (e.g., freezing), not a consistent framing error.

C. Plugging the webcam into a different USB port (e.g., a slower one) might affect performance like frame rate or resolution, but it would not change the physical angle or framing of the image.

D. If the webcam were incompatible with the OS, it would likely fail to install or function at all, rather than work correctly but with an improper viewing angle.

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Camera doesn't work in Windows. Microsoft Support. In the troubleshooting section "Check your hardware

" the guidance implies checking for physical issues first

stating

"Some laptops and portable devices have a physical switch or button that turns the camera on or off... Make sure nothing is blocking the lens." This establishes the principle of checking physical configuration and placement as a primary troubleshooting step for camera issues. (Section: "Check your hardware").

2. University of Wisconsin-Madison

Division of Information Technology (DoIT). (2023). Web Conferencing - Webcam Troubleshooting. KnowledgeBase

Doc 104731. The document lists "Adjust your camera" as a fundamental troubleshooting step

asking

"Is your camera pointed at you? Is the camera lens covered?" This directly supports the solution that incorrect physical positioning is a common cause of video framing problems. (Section: "Troubleshooting Steps").

3. Carnegie Mellon University

Computing Services. (n.d.). Troubleshooting Common Zoom Audio and Video Problems. This guide for a common videoconferencing application advises users to "Check that your camera is positioned correctly and that the lens is uncovered

" reinforcing that physical camera placement is a critical and basic check for video issues. (Section: "Video Problems").

Wireless radio frequencies are a finite resource managed by government regulatory bodies, such as the FCC in the United States. The spectrum is divided into licensed and unlicensed bands. Unlicensed bands (e.g., 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz) are open for public use by devices like Wi-Fi routers, but are often crowded. Licensed bands are reserved for specific entities (e.g., mobile carriers, public safety, military, weather radar) who pay for exclusive rights. The "clean" channel discovered by the technician is almost certainly within a licensed band. The equipment's firmware is designed to comply with regulations by preventing the selection of these restricted frequencies.

B. A defect would likely cause broader issues with channel selection, not a specific inability to select one clean channel, which points to a deliberate restriction.

C. While a vendor could lock a channel, the most fundamental and common reason for this restriction is legal and regulatory compliance, not a business decision.

D. The current firmware is likely operating as intended by enforcing regulatory restrictions. An update is not the root cause of the current inability to select the channel.

1. Federal Communications Commission (FCC). (2016). U.S. FREQUENCY ALLOCATION CHART. National Telecommunications and Information Administration. This official chart visually represents the division of the radio spectrum

clearly delineating bands allocated for government

non-government (commercial)

and shared use

illustrating the concept of licensed

restricted bands. Retrieved from https://www.ntia.doc.gov/files/ntia/publications/2003-allochrt.pdf (See chart sections for specific allocations

e.g.

4.9 GHz for Public Safety or various bands for RADAR).

2. Kurose

J. F.

& Ross

K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 6

Section 6.3 "Wi-Fi: 802.11 Wireless LANs

" the text discusses the use of unlicensed spectrum and the regulatory constraints imposed on wireless devices. It implicitly supports the idea that devices are manufactured to operate only within legally permitted frequency bands.

3. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2006). 6.885 Advanced Topics in Computer Networking

Lecture 10: Wireless I. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. The lecture notes discuss the physical layer of wireless communication

including the challenges of operating in the ISM (Industrial

Scientific

and Medical) bands and the existence of a regulated spectrum

which underpins why certain channels would be unavailable. (See slides on "Spectrum" and "Regulatory Bodies").

The described symptoms are classic indicators of CPU overheating. A failing or obstructed CPU fan cannot adequately dissipate heat, causing the processor's temperature to rise during operation. To prevent permanent damage, the system's firmware activates a self-preservation mechanism called thermal throttling, which reduces the CPU's clock speed and performance, causing the computer to slow down. The fan controller will attempt to compensate for the high temperature by spinning the fan at maximum speed (very loud), and if the fan is failing intermittently, it may stop and start, explaining the alternation between silent and loud periods.

B. Memory: Failing memory typically causes system instability, freezes, or "Blue Screen of Death" (BSOD) errors, not a pattern of thermal throttling and fan cycling.

C. Power supply: A failing power supply is more likely to cause sudden shutdowns, reboots, or a complete failure to power on, not performance degradation tied to heat.

D. Hard drive: A failing hard drive would manifest as slow file access, clicking noises, or data corruption, and would not directly cause CPU thermal throttling.

1. Intel Corporation. "Overheating Symptoms and Troubleshooting for Intel® Boxed Processors." Document ID: 000005791. This official vendor documentation states

"If a processor is overheating

the system may experience performance issues (thermal throttling)... You may also hear the processor fan running loud as it's trying to cool the processor." This directly links the symptoms in the question to a CPU cooling issue.

2. Patt

Y. N.

& Patel

S. J. (2004). Introduction to Computing Systems: From Bits & Gates to C & Beyond (2nd ed.). McGraw-Hill. In Chapter 9

Section 9.5.2

"Interrupts and Exceptions

" the text discusses system-level events

including hardware-generated exceptions for thermal events

which trigger protective measures like performance throttling managed by the system's BIOS/UEFI.

3. University of Washington

UW-IT. "Troubleshooting hardware problems." In its troubleshooting guide

it lists symptoms of hardware failure

including "Computer is running slow" and "Loud or unusual noises from the fan

" and identifies overheating as a common cause for these issues

often stemming from a malfunctioning fan.

A Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) is a technology used to logically segment a physical network switch into multiple, distinct broadcast domains. Each VLAN acts as a separate network, allowing traffic from different IP subnets to traverse the same physical switch infrastructure without interfering with one another. This is accomplished by tagging Ethernet frames with a VLAN ID. A switch port configured as a "trunk" can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously, effectively allowing multiple networks to traverse a single switch.

B. VRRP: This is a first-hop redundancy protocol that provides automatic failover for routers, not for segmenting switch traffic.

C. VPN: This technology creates a secure, encrypted connection over a public network; it does not manage multiple networks on a local switch.

D. DHCP: This protocol automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration to devices; it does not create or segment networks.

1. IEEE Standards Association. (2018). IEEE Standard for Local and Metropolitan Area Networks—Bridges and Bridged Networks. IEEE Std 802.1Q-2018. Section 8.4

"VLAN-aware Bridge components

" describes the principles of how bridges (switches) handle VLAN-tagged frames to maintain traffic separation.

2. Cisco Systems

Inc. (2023). VLANs for the Cisco Catalyst 3550 Multilayer Switch. Cisco Documentation. The introduction states

"VLANs are logical connections with other similar devices. By creating VLANs in a switch

you are able to separate a LAN into different broadcast domains."

3. Stallings

W. (2016). Foundations of Modern Networking: SDN

NFV

and Cloud Computing. Pearson Education

Inc. Chapter 4

"Virtual LANs (VLANs)

" page 103

explains: "A VLAN is a logical group of network devices that appear to be on the same LAN

regardless of their physical location... VLANs allow network administrators to partition their networks to match the functional and security requirements of their systems." This is a widely used textbook in university computer science programs.

A toner probe, also known as a tone generator and probe kit, is the specific tool designed for locating and tracing a single cable within a large bundle or through walls. The tone generator is attached to one end of the cable (e.g., at the user's wall jack), and it sends a distinct electrical signal through the wire. The technician then uses the inductive probe at the other end (the network rack) to detect which cable is carrying the signal, as the probe will emit an audible tone when it is near the correct cable. This is the most efficient method in poorly documented environments.

A. Cable tester: This tool is used to verify that a cable is wired correctly and has no faults (like opens or shorts), but it does not help locate the cable's physical position in a rack.

B. Network tap: This is a device used for monitoring network traffic by creating a copy of the data flowing through a cable. It is not used for physical cable identification.

D. Loopback plug: This is a diagnostic tool used to test the functionality of a network port on a computer or switch by redirecting outgoing signals back into the port.

1. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives

Section 2.2

"Given a scenario

use the appropriate tools." The list of essential hardware tools explicitly includes "Tone generator and probe" for network cable identification tasks.

2. University of Washington

IT Connect

"Ethernet Cable Testing and Troubleshooting

" Section: "Tools for testing and troubleshooting." The document describes a "Tone and probe kit (cable toner)" as the tool used for "tracing and identifying cables within a bundle."

3. Indiana University

University Information Technology Services (UITS) Knowledge Base

Document ID: aicw

"Networking tools." This document lists and describes common networking tools

stating that a "Tone generator and probe" is used to "trace a wire from one location to another

for example

from a wall jack to a patch panel."

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. An administrator would use an IaaS platform to provision virtual servers, storage, and networking. Migrating an on-premises virtual machine (VM) to the cloud involves moving the entire VM instance, including its operating system and applications, to run on the cloud provider's infrastructure. IaaS gives the administrator the necessary control over the operating system and underlying virtual hardware to accomplish this migration and continue managing the VM in the new environment.

B. SaaS: Software as a Service (SaaS) provides access to ready-to-use software applications, not the underlying infrastructure needed to host and manage a custom virtual machine.

C. DBaaS: Database as a Service (DBaaS) is a specialized cloud service for managing databases. It does not provide the general-purpose virtual machine hosting required for a full VM migration.

D. DRaaS: Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) is a specific use case for business continuity. While it involves replicating VMs to the cloud, IaaS is the fundamental service model that enables it.

1. Mell

P.

& Grance

T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology. Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-145.

Page 2

Section "Service Models": Defines Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the capability to "provision processing

storage

networks

and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software

which can include operating systems and applications." This directly describes the environment needed to host a migrated VM.

2. Armbrust

M.

Fox

A.

Griffith

R.

Joseph

A. D.

Katz

R.

Konwinski

A.

... & Zaharia

M. (2009). Above the Clouds: A Berkeley View of Cloud Computing (Technical Report No. UCB/EECS-2009-28). University of California

Berkeley.

Page 4

Section 3.1: "IaaS is the lowest-level model... An IaaS provider sells basic infrastructure (computation

storage

and network) as a service." This aligns with the foundational resources needed for VM migration.

3. Rittinghouse

J. W.

& Ransome

J. F. (2017). Cloud Computing: Implementation

Management

and Security. CRC Press.

Chapter 4

"Understanding Cloud Architecture

" Section "Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)": This chapter details how IaaS provides the building blocks for cloud services

including virtual machines

which users can configure and manage as if it were their own hardware

making it the correct choice for VM migration.

The IP address 169.254.2.2 falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range (169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255). An operating system automatically assigns an APIPA address to a network interface when it is configured for dynamic addressing but is unable to contact a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. Since the SOHO router is configured to assign addresses from the 192.168.1.0/24 scope, the client's receipt of an APIPA address indicates a failure in the DHCP communication process. This could be due to a misconfiguration on the server, a network connectivity issue between the client and server, or a problem with the DHCP service itself.

B. IPv6: The addresses mentioned in the scenario (169.254.2.2 and 192.168.1.254) are both IPv4 addresses, making IPv6 irrelevant to the problem.

C. DNS: The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, not for assigning IP addresses to clients on a network.

D. IPv4: While the network uses the IPv4 protocol, IPv4 is the protocol suite itself, not the specific service that failed. The problem lies with DHCP, the service that automates IPv4 configuration.

1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). (May 2005). RFC 3927: Dynamic Configuration of IPv4 Link-Local Addresses. The Internet Society. Section 1

"Introduction

" states

"In the absence of a stateful address configuration protocol such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)... a host may self-configure an address... This document describes a method for IPv4 address autoconfiguration for a single link... from the 169.254/16 prefix."

2. Microsoft Corporation. (September 23

2021). How to use Automatic TCP/IP addressing without a DHCP server. Microsoft Learn. Document ID: 220760. This document states

"If the DHCP server is not available... Windows uses Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). With APIPA

DHCP clients can automatically assign an IP address... from the IP address range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254."

3. University of Michigan Information and Technology Services. (n.d.). Troubleshooting TCP/IP. ITS Documentation. This guide notes

"If your computer's IP address starts with 169.254

it has an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This means that your computer cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server."