Peoplecert ITIL V4 Foundation Exam Questions 2025

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Our ITIL 4 Foundation Exam Questions deliver authentic, up-to-date content for the PeopleCert ITILยฎ 4 Foundation certification. Each question is reviewed by certified ITIL professionals and includes verified answers with clear explanations to help you understand IT service management principles, the service value system, and key ITIL practices. With access to our exam simulator, you can practice under real exam conditions and confidently prepare to pass on your first attempt.

 

Exam Questions

Question 1

Which will help solve incidents more quickly?
Options
A: Target resolution times
B: Escalating all incidents to support teams
C: Collaboration between teams
D: Detailed procedural steps for incident investigation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Collaboration between teams
Explanation
Collaboration is a core concept in ITIL 4, embodied by the guiding principle 'Collaborate and promote visibility'. When teams and stakeholders work together, they share knowledge, skills, and diverse perspectives. This is particularly effective in incident management, where swift diagnosis and resolution often require input from various technical and business teams. Effective collaboration breaks down organizational silos, reduces delays in handoffs, and enables a more holistic and rapid approach to resolving incidents, especially complex ones.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Target resolution times are performance goals (SLAs). They measure the speed of resolution but do not, by themselves, provide the means to achieve it.

B. Escalating all incidents is inefficient. It creates bottlenecks for specialized support teams and bypasses the service desk's ability to resolve many issues at the first point of contact.

D. While procedures are useful, overly detailed and rigid steps can slow down experienced staff and may not be suitable for novel or complex incidents, thus hindering quick resolution.

References

1. AXELOS. ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office), 2019.

For Correct Answer (C): Section 4.3.2, "Collaborate and promote visibility," states, "When initiatives involve the right people in the correct roles, efforts benefit from better buy-in, more relevance... and an increased likelihood of long-term success." This principle is directly applicable to incident resolution, where collaboration between, for example, the service desk, technical support, and developers is crucial for speed.

For Incorrect Option (A): Section 5.2.5, "Incident management," discusses the need to resolve incidents "within a timescale that has been agreed with the user." This confirms that target times are an objective, not a method for achieving speed.

For Incorrect Option (B): Section 5.2.5 describes a typical incident management process where escalation occurs only when necessary, not for every incident.

For Incorrect Option (D): Section 4.3.5, "Keep it simple and practical," advises against processes that are overly complex, stating that "If a process, service, action or metric fails to provide value or produce a useful outcome, then eliminate it." This supports the idea that overly detailed procedures can be counterproductive.

Question 2

Which practice is most likely to benefit from the use of chatbots?
Options
A: Service level management
B: Change enablement
C: Continual improvement
D: Service desk
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Service desk
Explanation
The service desk practice is the most direct and significant beneficiary of chatbot technology. The purpose of the service desk is to act as the single point of contact for users, capturing demand for incident resolution and service requests. Chatbots are highly effective at automating the handling of high-volume, simple, and repetitive user queries, such as password resets or status updates. By integrating chatbots, organizations can provide 24/7 initial support, log incidents and requests automatically, and escalate complex issues to human agents. This directly supports the core function of the service desk, improving efficiency and user satisfaction.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Service level management focuses on negotiating and monitoring service levels, which are strategic activities requiring human negotiation and analysis, not chatbot interaction.

B. Change enablement involves the assessment of risks and authorization of changes, processes that require complex human judgment beyond a chatbot's capabilities.

C. Continual improvement uses data from many sources to identify improvement opportunities; a chatbot is a potential source of data, not a primary tool for the practice itself.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 5.2.14, "Service desk": This section explicitly states, "New technologies are supporting the service desk, such as... chatbots." It further explains that service desks use chatbots "to reduce the contact that is needed with the service desk staff," directly confirming that this practice is the most likely to benefit.

Question 3

Where are the details of the required performance outcomes of a service denned?
Options
A: Service level agreements
B: Service requests
C: Service components
D: Service offerings
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Service level agreements
Explanation
A service level agreement (SLA) is a documented agreement between a service provider and a customer that identifies the services required and the expected level of service. It is the specific document where required performance outcomes are defined, measured, and managed. SLAs capture agreed-upon service level targets, such as uptime, response times, and resolution times, which are used to assess whether the service is delivering the intended value and meeting customer expectations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Service requests: These are formal user requests for something to be provided, such as information or a pre-approved change, not a document defining performance outcomes.

C. Service components: These are the individual parts of a service, such as applications, infrastructure, or processes, not the agreement that defines their collective performance targets.

D. Service offerings: This is a description of one or more services designed for a target consumer group; while it describes the service, the specific, measurable performance targets are detailed in the SLA.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 5.2.15, Service level management practice: "A service level agreement (SLA) is a documented agreement between a service provider and a customer that identifies both services required and the expected level of service." This section explicitly links SLAs to defining and measuring expected service levels.

Glossary, Appendix A: Defines a service level agreement as the tool for documenting "the expected level of service."

Section 2.3.3, Service offerings: Describes service offerings as a way to present services to consumers, but the detailed performance metrics are the domain of SLAs.

Question 4

Which value chain activity ensures a shared understanding of the current status and required direction for all products and services?
Options
A: Plan
B: Improve
C: Design and transition
D: Deliver and support
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Plan
Explanation
The 'plan' value chain activity is responsible for creating a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all products and services across the organization. It encompasses strategic, tactical, and operational planning, ensuring that everyone involved has a clear and unified view of the goals and the path to achieve them. This activity provides the necessary direction for all other value chain activities, making it central to establishing a common understanding and purpose.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Improve: This activity focuses on the continual improvement of products, services, and practices, rather than establishing the overall strategic direction and shared understanding.

C. Design and transition: This activity ensures products and services meet stakeholder expectations for quality, cost, and time-to-market during their creation and deployment.

D. Deliver and support: This activity is concerned with the operational aspects of ensuring services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation, ITIL 4 edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 4.5.1, Plan: "The purpose of the plan value chain activity is to ensure a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all four dimensions and all products and services across the organization." (This directly supports the correct answer).

Section 4.5.3, Improve: "The purpose of the improve value chain activity is to ensure continual improvement of products, services, and practices..."

Section 4.5.4, Design and transition: "The purpose of the design and transition value chain activity is to ensure that products and services continually meet stakeholder expectations..."

Section 4.5.6, Deliver and support: "The purpose of the deliver and support value chain activity is to ensure that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications..."

Question 5

Which two practices interact the MOST with the service desk practice?
Options
A: Incident management and service request management
B: Service request management and deployment management
C: Deployment management and change enablement
D: Change enablement and incident management
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Incident management and service request management
Explanation
The service desk practice serves as the primary point of contact between the service provider and its users. Its purpose is explicitly defined as capturing demand for incident resolution and service requests. Consequently, the service desk's daily operations are most heavily and frequently intertwined with the 'incident management' practice, which handles service disruptions, and the 'service request management' practice, which fulfills pre-defined user requests. These two practices represent the core workload and primary reason for the service desk's existence, making their interaction the most significant.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: Deployment management has a much lower frequency of direct interaction with the service desk compared to incident management.

C: The service desk's core function is user support, not the management of deployments or the authorization of changes.

D: While incident management is a key interaction, change enablement is a separate process with less frequent, direct engagement with the service desk's user-facing duties.

References

1. Axelos. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 5.2.14, 'Service desk': "The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests." This sentence directly links the service desk to these two practices as its main purpose.

Section 5.1.3, 'Service desk' (in the context of the service value chain): The text highlights the service desk's role in the 'engage' and 'deliver and support' value chain activities, which are primarily driven by user-initiated incidents and service requests.

2. University of Washington, UW-IT Service Management Office. (n.d.). ITIL v4 Practices. IT Connect.

In its description of the Service Desk practice, it states, "The Service Desk is the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider for all users... to report issues, queries, and requests." This aligns with the core functions of incident and service request management.

Question 6

What type of change is MOST likely to be managed as a service request?
Options
A: A standard change
B: A normal change
C: An emergency change
D: An organizational change
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
A standard change
Explanation
According to ITIL 4, a standard change is a pre-authorized, low-risk change that is well-understood and fully documented. These changes can be initiated and fulfilled without needing additional authorization each time. The initiation of a standard change is very often a service request. For example, a user requesting access to a pre-approved software application or ordering a new monitor from a service catalog would be handled as a service request that triggers a standard change. This makes it the most common type of change to be managed through the service request management practice.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. A normal change: Normal changes require a full, formal authorization process based on a risk assessment and are managed through the change control practice, not as a simple service request.

C. An emergency change: Emergency changes are implemented to resolve an incident or security vulnerability and follow an expedited process, which is distinct from service request fulfillment.

D. An organizational change: This is a broad, business-level change focusing on people and culture, managed by the organizational change management practice, not as a routine IT service request.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 5.2.4, Change control: "Standard changes are pre-authorized changes that are low risk... Initiation of a standard change is typically a service request or generated from another system." (p. 151).

Section 5.2.16, Service request management: "Fulfilling these requests may include a change to services or their components; usually, these are standard changes." (p. 169).

Question 7

Which is an activity of the 'incident management" practice?
Options
A: Assessing and prioritizing improvement opportunities
B: Performing service reviews with customers
C: Providing good-quality updates when expected
D: Automating service requests to the greatest degree possible
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Providing good-quality updates when expected
Explanation
The purpose of the 'incident management' practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. A critical activity within this practice is effective communication. Providing good-quality, timely updates to users and other stakeholders is essential for managing expectations, ensuring transparency, and coordinating resolution efforts throughout the incident lifecycle. This communication is a core component of a well-managed incident response process.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Assessing and prioritizing improvement opportunities is a primary activity of the 'continual improvement' practice, although incidents can be a source for these opportunities.

B. Performing service reviews with customers is a key activity within the 'service level management' practice to ensure service delivery meets agreed-upon targets.

D. Automating service requests to the greatest degree possible is an activity of the 'service request management' practice, not incident management.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation, ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 5.2.5, Incident management: States, "...progress is tracked throughout the incident lifecycle to ensure that it is resolved in a timely way and that all stakeholders are kept informed." This directly supports option C.

Section 5.1.2, Continual improvement: Describes the activities of identifying, logging, assessing, and prioritizing improvement opportunities, which aligns with option A.

Section 5.2.15, Service level management: Details the practice's activities, including conducting service reviews and ensuring it captures and reports on service issues, which aligns with option B.

Section 5.2.16, Service request management: Mentions that "opportunities for automation should be identified and implemented to increase the efficiency of the practice," which aligns with option D.

Question 8

Which principle concentrates on service consumers?
Options
A: Start where you are
B: Optimize and automate
C: Keep it simple
D: Focus on value
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Focus on value
Explanation
The 'Focus on value' principle is fundamentally centered on the service consumer. It dictates that all organizational activities must link directly or indirectly to the value co-created for its stakeholders, with the service consumer being paramount. The first step of applying this principle is to understand who the service consumers are and what their needs and perspectives on value are. This principle ensures that the service provider remains constantly aware of the consumer's experience and desired outcomes, making the consumer the primary concentration point for all service management efforts.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Start where you are: This principle advises leveraging existing processes and resources as the starting point for improvements, focusing on the current state rather than the consumer.

B. Optimize and automate: This principle focuses on maximizing the efficiency and effectiveness of resources and work, which is a means to an end, not the consumer-centric goal itself.

C. Keep it simple: This principle advocates for using the minimum necessary steps and avoiding complexity in processes and services, focusing on the design of the work.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Section 4.3.1, "Focus on value": "All activities conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for itself, its customers, and other stakeholders... The first step in focusing on value is to know who the service consumers are. The provider must then understand what is of value to the consumer." (p. 41)

Section 4.3.2, "Start where you are": "When engaging in any improvement initiative, do not start over without first considering what is already available to be leveraged." (p. 43)

Section 4.3.6, "Keep it simple and practical": "Always use the minimum number of steps to accomplish an objective. Outcome-based thinking should be used to produce practical solutions that deliver valuable outcomes." (p. 48)

Section 4.3.7, "Optimize and automate": "Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as it needs to be... Before an activity can be effectively automated, it should be optimized to whatever degree is possible and reasonable." (p. 49)

Question 9

Which is included in the purpose of the 'change enablement' practice?
Options
A: Make new and changed services available for use
B: Ensure that risks have been property assessed
C: Record and report selected changes of state
D: Plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Ensure that risks have been property assessed
Explanation
The purpose of the 'change enablement' practice is to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change schedule. Assessing risks is a fundamental component of this process to understand the potential negative impacts of a change before it is approved and implemented. This ensures that changes do not cause unexpected disruption to services and that their potential value is realized.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This is the purpose of the 'release management' practice, which focuses on making new and changed services and features available for use.

C. This describes the 'monitoring and event management' practice, which observes services and records selected changes of state as events.

D. This is the purpose of the 'IT asset management' practice, which is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation: ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

Correct Answer B & Explanation: The purpose of change enablement is defined in Section 5.2.4, page 187: "to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change schedule."

Incorrect Option A: The purpose of release management is defined in Section 5.2.14, page 199: "to make new and changed services and features available for use."

Incorrect Option C: The purpose of monitoring and event management is defined in Section 5.2.11, page 195: "to systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events."

Incorrect Option D: The purpose of IT asset management is defined in Section 5.2.8, page 192: "to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets..."

Question 10

Which activity is part of the 'continual improvement' practice?
Options
A: Identifying the cause of incidents and recommending related improvements
B: Authorizing changes to implement improvements
C: Logging and managing incidents that result in improvement opportunities
D: Making business cases for improvement action
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Making business cases for improvement action
Explanation
The 'continual improvement' practice is responsible for managing improvement ideas from identification through to final action. A key activity within this practice is to assess and prioritize improvement opportunities. Creating a business case is a fundamental part of this assessment, as it provides the justification for the improvement, outlines the benefits, costs, and risks, and supports the decision-making process for securing the necessary resources and approval to proceed. This activity is central to ensuring that only the most valuable improvements are implemented.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Identifying the cause of incidents and recommending related improvements is a primary activity of the 'problem management' practice, which then provides these recommendations as input to continual improvement.

B. Authorizing changes to implement improvements is a core responsibility of the 'change enablement' practice, which manages all changes to services and components in a controlled manner.

C. Logging and managing incidents that result in improvement opportunities is the main function of the 'incident management' practice, which focuses on service restoration.

References

1. AXELOS. (2019). ITILยฎ Foundation, ITIL 4 Edition. TSO (The Stationery Office).

For Correct Answer (D): Section 5.1.2, "Continual improvement practice," describes the activities involved, including assessing and prioritizing improvement opportunities. The text states, "For each improvement, a business case should be created to justify the action." This confirms that making business cases is a core activity of the practice.

For Incorrect Option (A): Section 5.2.8, "Problem management," details its purpose as reducing the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes. This is where incident cause identification occurs.

For Incorrect Option (B): Section 5.2.4, "Change enablement," explains that the practice's purpose is to maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are assessed and then authorizing changes to proceed.

For Incorrect Option (C): Section 5.2.5, "Incident management," defines its purpose as minimizing the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible, which includes logging and managing them.

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