CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Exam Questions 2025

A. Have the user unplug the heater: This addresses a potential power issue. Since the technician has already verified the monitor is receiving power, this step is less relevant as the immediate next action for a "no signal" problem.

B. Replace the monitor: Replacing hardware is a premature and costly step. It should only be considered after all simpler potential causes, such as cable connections and software settings, have been thoroughly investigated and ruled out.

C. Open the display settings on the computer: While checking software configuration is a valid troubleshooting step, it should typically follow the verification of physical connections. A disconnected cable will cause a "no signal" issue regardless of the computer's display settings.

1. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Objective 5.4: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot video, projector, and display issues." This objective covers common problems like "No display," for which the standard procedure involves checking power, cable connections, and input sources before moving to software or hardware replacement. The methodology prioritizes checking physical layer issues first.

2. Dell Technologies Official Documentation, Knowledge Base Article 000125799: "How to Troubleshoot Display or Video Issues on a Dell Monitor." The troubleshooting steps provided are ordered as follows: "Step 2: Verify that the video cable is connected correctly... Ensure that the video cable (VGA, DVI, HDMI, or DisplayPort) is connected securely to both the monitor and the computer." This confirms that checking the data cable is a primary step after a power check.

3. HP Customer Support Documentation, Document ID: c01982410: "HP PCs and Monitors - Troubleshooting screen issues (Windows 10, 8, 7)." In the section "The screen is blank or there is no display," the recommended first steps after checking power are: "Reconnect the video cable" and "Press the video source button on the monitor." This reinforces checking the physical connection as a foundational troubleshooting step.

A. Shared resources: This refers to the multi-tenant model where multiple customers share the same physical infrastructure. It is a core concept for efficiency and cost-effectiveness, not reliability.

C. Rapid elasticity: This is the ability to quickly and automatically scale computing resources up or down as needed. It relates to performance and cost optimization, not system uptime or reliability.

D. Hybrid: This is a cloud deployment model that combines public and private clouds. While a hybrid architecture can be designed for high availability, the term itself does not inherently define reliability.

1. Amazon Web Services (AWS). (2023). AWS Well-Architected Framework: Reliability Pillar. "The Reliability pillar includes the ability of a workload to perform its intended function correctly and consistently when it’s expected to. This includes the ability to operate and test the workload through its total lifecycle. Foundational elements around networking and compute, such as high availability, are covered in this pillar." Retrieved from AWS Whitepapers & Guides. (Specifically, the introduction to the Reliability Pillar).

2. Microsoft Azure. (2023). Availability options for Azure Virtual Machines. "High availability is a term that denotes a system or component that is continuously operational for a desirably long length of time. Availability is usually expressed as a percentage of uptime in a given year." (Section: "What is high availability?").

3. Mell, P., & Grance, T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (NIST Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology. https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-145. (This document defines "Resource Pooling" (Shared Resources) and "Rapid Elasticity" on page 2 as essential characteristics, distinguishing them from the operational goal of reliability/availability).

A. Fiber: Requires the installation of a physical fiber-optic cable network, which is a significant form of infrastructure not present in the described scenario.

B. Cable: Relies on a coaxial cable network, the same used for cable television, which is a form of terrestrial infrastructure that would be absent.

C. DSL: Utilizes existing copper telephone lines to provide an internet connection, a type of infrastructure that is unavailable on unimproved land.

1. Federal Communications Commission (FCC). (n.d.). Types of Broadband Connections. FCC.gov. In the "Satellite" section, it states, "Satellite broadband is another form of wireless broadband and is also useful for serving remote or sparsely populated areas." This confirms its utility where other infrastructure is absent. Retrieved from the official FCC website's consumer guides.

2. Cisco Networking Academy. (2020). IT Essentials v7.0 Curriculum. Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2.5, "WANs". The curriculum describes various WAN connection types, noting that "Satellite service can provide a connection when a wired solution is not available," directly addressing scenarios lacking physical infrastructure.

3. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, "Home Access: DSL, Cable, FTTH, Dial-up, and Satellite," the text explains that satellite links are used in locations "where DSL, cable, and fiber-to-the-home are unavailable." This is a standard university-level textbook for computer science and networking courses.

A. DDR5: This is a memory standard defining speed and architecture. While modern, it does not inherently include the error-correction feature required for high availability.

C. DDR4: Like DDR5, this is a memory standard. It specifies the generation of RAM technology but does not, by itself, guarantee error-correction capabilities.

D. Dual-channel: This is a memory architecture that increases data transfer speed by using multiple channels. It enhances performance but does not provide fault tolerance or error correction.

1. University Courseware: Hennessy, J. L., & Patterson, D. A. (2011). Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach (5th ed.). Morgan Kaufmann. In Chapter 5, "Memory Hierarchy Design," the text discusses memory reliability, stating, "For servers or large-scale clusters, ECC is a requirement... a single-bit error in a multi-terabyte memory is a near certainty. Hence, virtually all server memory is protected by ECC." (Section 5.5, Dependability, Reliability, and Availability).

2. Vendor Documentation: Intel Corporation. (2021). Intel® Xeon® E-2300 Processor Family Datasheet, Volume 1 of 2. Document Number: 645111-002. On page 21, Section 2.3.1 "Memory Support," it is specified that the processor's Integrated Memory Controller (IMC) supports DDR4 with Error Correction Code (ECC), highlighting its importance for the server-grade processor platform.

3. Academic Publication: Kim, J., & Erez, M. (2009). Adaptive Granularity Memory Systems: A Tradeoff between Storage and Latency. Proceedings of the 36th International Symposium on Computer Architecture (ISCA '09). The paper discusses memory system design for reliability, noting, "Error Correcting Codes (ECC) are widely used to protect main memory from soft errors, especially in servers where reliability is paramount." (Section 1, Introduction, para. 2). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1145/1555754.1555758

A. Clean the print heads: This procedure is used to resolve issues like streaks, faded colors, or missing lines caused by clogged ink nozzles, not misalignment.

C. Replace the ink cartridge: This is done when ink is low or the cartridge is faulty, which typically results in faded prints, incorrect colors, or blank pages.

D. Scan the document: Scanning is an input process for creating a digital copy and is unrelated to troubleshooting the printer's physical output mechanism.

1. Hewlett-Packard (HP) Official Documentation: In the support guide for fixing poor print quality, HP lists "Align the printheads" as the specific step to resolve issues where "text or images are not sharp" or are misaligned.

Source: HP Customer Support, Knowledge Base. "HP DeskJet, ENVY 6000, 6400 printers - Fixing Poor Print Quality," Document c06557959, Step 6: Align the printheads.

2. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives: The official exam objectives explicitly list calibration as a key printer maintenance task that technicians must know how to perform.

Source: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 2.8 "Given a scenario, perform printer maintenance," bullet point "Calibration."

3. University Courseware/IT Support: Reputable university IT departments document this as a standard troubleshooting step. For example, Indiana University's knowledge base recommends aligning the print head to fix "garbled or misaligned text."

Source: Indiana University, University Information Technology Services (UITS) Knowledge Base. "Troubleshoot printing problems," Document ID: acix, Section: "Troubleshoot print quality."

A. Hub: A hub is a legacy networking device that operates at Layer 1, repeating electrical signals to all connected devices without any signal conversion or filtering.

B. PoE: Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a technology that transmits electrical power along with data on twisted-pair Ethernet cabling; it is not a device for media conversion.

D. NIC: A Network Interface Card (NIC) is a component that enables a computer to connect to a network. While fiber NICs exist, the device described is a standalone media converter for a router.

1. University Courseware: In course materials for telecommunications, the ONT is defined as customer-premises equipment (CPE) for FTTH services. It terminates the fiber optic line and converts optical signals to electrical signals for the customer's LAN.

Source: University of Colorado Boulder, Department of Electrical, Computer & Energy Engineering, ECEN 5653: Introduction to Data Communications, Lecture on Passive Optical Networks (PON). The architecture diagram shows the ONT as the interface between the optical distribution network and the user's home network (router, PC).

2. Vendor Documentation: Major telecommunications equipment vendors describe the ONT as the endpoint in a PON system located at the subscriber's site.

Source: Cisco, "Cisco ASR 9000 Series Aggregation Services Router PON Solution Configuration Guide," Chapter: "PON Solution Overview." The document states, "The Optical Network Unit (ONU), also called Optical Network Terminal (ONT), is located at the subscriber's premises. The ONU provides interface between the customer equipment and the PON."

3. Peer-Reviewed Publication: Academic literature on optical networks consistently identifies the ONT's role as the optical-to-electrical converter at the user end.

Source: Dixit, A., & Lannoo, B. (2012). "A Survey on Passive Optical Network for Long-Reach and High-Capacity Access." IEEE Communications Surveys & Tutorials, 14(3), 729-758. Section III-A, "PON Architecture," describes the ONT as the device that "terminates the PON and presents native service interfaces to the user," which includes Ethernet for data. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/SURV.2011.092311.00121)

B. An APIPA address is a symptom of a DHCP failure; the core best practice for a server is to use a static IP, which avoids reliance on DHCP altogether.

C. The failure to ping indicates a network layer connectivity or name resolution problem, which must be solved before application-layer services can be reached.

D. The scenario provides no information about a secondary NIC, making its status irrelevant to troubleshooting the described connectivity issue.

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1. Microsoft Corporation. (2021). Configure IPv4 properties. Microsoft Docs. In the section "To configure IPv4 to use a static IP address," the documentation outlines the procedure for setting a static IP, a standard practice for servers to ensure consistent network accessibility. This aligns with the need for a predictable IP for the hosts file entry. (Reference: learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/dhcp/dhcp-deploy-w-existing-static-ip)

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, "DHCP: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol," contrasts dynamic address assignment with static assignment. The text explains that static assignment is necessary for network elements that need to be reachable at a fixed address, such as servers.

3. University Information Technology Services (UITS), Indiana University. (2023). At IU, when is it appropriate to use a static IP address? UITS Knowledge Base. The document states, "Static IP addresses are necessary for devices that need to be consistently accessible, such as servers (web servers, application servers, etc.)... If you use DHCP for a server, it might be assigned a different IP address after a reboot, which would make it inaccessible to clients trying to reach it at its old address." This directly supports the rationale for the correct answer. (Reference: kb.iu.edu/d/aiau)

A. This describes the function of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), which automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices.

C. This is the role of authentication protocols and services such as RADIUS, Kerberos, or LDAP, which verify user identities for network access.

D. This describes the function of file transfer protocols like FTP (File Transfer Protocol) or file sharing protocols like SMB (Server Message Block).

1. Mockapetris, P. (1987). RFC 1034: Domain Names - Concepts and Facilities. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Section 2.1, "Name space specifications and terminology," states, "The domain system is a tree-structured name space... The data associated with the names are resource records (RRs). The most common use of the domain system is for names of hosts, which have RRs which hold their IP addresses."

2. Saltzer, J., & Kaashoek, F. (2018). 6.033 Computer System Engineering, Spring 2018 Lecture Notes. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. Lecture 17, "Naming," Section 17.2, "Domain Name System (DNS)," describes DNS as the system that maps human-readable names to IP addresses.

3. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Domain Name System (DNS). Microsoft Learn. In the overview section, it states, "Domain Name System (DNS) is one of the industry-standard suite of protocols that comprise TCP/IP, and together the DNS Client and DNS Server provide computer name-to-IP address mapping name resolution services to computers and users."

A. Rapid elasticity – Refers to quick scaling up/down of resources, not to multi-tenant sharing on a single instance.

B. High availability – Concerns fault tolerance and uptime through redundancy, unrelated to hosting multiple tenants together.

D. Metered utilization – Describes pay-per-use billing; it does not provide the mechanism for housing multiple organizations on one VM.

1. NIST Special Publication 800-145, “The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing,” §3, “Resource Pooling,” p.2 – explains multi-tenant sharing of pooled resources.

2. VMware vSphere 7 “Resource Management Guide,” Chapter 1 “Resource Pools and Shares,” pp. 11-12 – details how one host’s resources are divided among many VMs for different customers.

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, 6.828 “Operating System Engineering,” Lecture 9 slides, “Virtualization: Multi-tenancy via shared hardware resources,” slide 4 – shows multiple web servers from separate organizations running on one physical server through a hypervisor.

A. Private: This model offers maximum customization but typically involves higher capital and operational expenditure, which contradicts the goal of saving money.

B. Public: This model is cost-effective but provides limited control over the underlying hardware and infrastructure, failing the customization requirement.

D. Community: This model involves sharing infrastructure among organizations with common goals and is not designed for a single company's specific customization needs.

1. Mell, P., & Grance, T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology. Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-145.

Page 3, Section "Deployment Models": Defines Hybrid Cloud as "a composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public)..." This supports the concept of combining models to gain their respective benefits.

2. CompTIA. (2022). CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives.

Section 2.5: "Given a scenario, configure and use cloud-based services." This section explicitly lists Public, Private, Hybrid, and Community as required knowledge areas, confirming the question's relevance to the exam domain.

3. Microsoft Azure Documentation. (n.d.). What is hybrid cloud computing? Microsoft.

Overview Section: "Hybrid cloud is a computing environment that connects a company’s on-premises private cloud and third-party public cloud into a single, flexible infrastructure for running the company’s applications and workloads." This vendor documentation confirms the model's purpose of combining environments for flexibility and cost-efficiency.