EC-Council 312-50V13 CEH V13 Exam Questions 2025

Updated:

Our 312-50V13 Exam Questions provide real and updated questions for the Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH v13) certification, all verified by cybersecurity experts. Each set includes accurate answers, detailed explanations, and reasoning for incorrect options to strengthen your understanding of ethical hacking concepts. With free demo questions and our online exam simulator, Cert Empire makes preparing for the CEH v13 exam straightforward and effective.

Exam Questions

Question 1

What is the least important information when you analyze a public IP address in a security alert?
Options
A: DNS
B: Whois
C: Geolocation
D: ARP
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
ARP
Explanation
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a Layer 2 (Data Link) protocol used to map a Layer 3 (Network) IP address to a Layer 2 physical (MAC) address. ARP operates via broadcasts within a single local area network (LAN) segment and does not traverse routers. When analyzing a public IP address from a security alert, the source is external to the local network. Therefore, it is technically impossible to obtain ARP information for that IP address, making it the least importantโ€”in fact, entirely irrelevantโ€”piece of information for the investigation. DNS, Whois, and Geolocation are all essential tools for gathering intelligence on external IP addresses.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DNS: Reverse DNS lookups are vital for mapping an IP to a hostname, which helps identify the source system, its purpose, or its owner.

B. Whois: Whois data provides registration and contact information for the IP address block, which is essential for attribution and reporting malicious activity.

C. Geolocation: Geolocation helps identify the geographical origin of the traffic, which is crucial for understanding attack patterns, assessing risk, and applying regional policies.

References

1. Postel, J. (1982). RFC 826: An Ethernet Address Resolution Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). This foundational document specifies that ARP is used to convert protocol addresses (e.g., IP addresses) to "Local Network addresses" (e.g., Ethernet MAC addresses). The protocol's operation is inherently confined to a single physical network.

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1 "Link-Layer Addressing and ARP," the text explains, "The ARP protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address. [...] An ARP query packet is sent within a broadcast frame... each host and router on the subnet receives the broadcast." This confirms its scope is limited to the local subnet.

3. Cichonski, P., Millar, T., Grance, T., & Scarfone, K. (2012). NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. National Institute of Standards and Technology. Section 3.2.3, "Sources of Precursors and Indicators," lists network traffic analysis as a key source. Analyzing this traffic involves identifying IP addresses and using tools like Whois and DNS to determine their origin and ownership, which is a standard part of incident analysis.

4. Saltzer, J. H., Kaashoek, M. F., & O'Toole, J. (2018). 6.033 Computer System Engineering, Spring 2018 Lecture 10: Naming. MIT OpenCourseWare. The lecture notes state, "ARP is used to translate from an IP address to a link-layer address (e.g., an Ethernet MAC address). ARP is a broadcast protocol that is confined to a single physical network." This explicitly limits ARP's utility to the local network.

Question 2

You are a security officer of a company. You had an alert from IDS that indicates that one PC on your Intranet is connected to a blacklisted IP address (C2 Server) on the Internet. The IP address was blacklisted just before the alert. You are starting an investigation to roughly analyze the severity of the situation. Which of the following is appropriate to analyze?
Options
A: IDS log
B: Event logs on domain controller
C: Internet Firewall/Proxy log.
D: Event logs on the PC
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Internet Firewall/Proxy log.
Explanation
To analyze the severity of a connection to a Command and Control (C2) server, the primary goal is to understand the nature of the communication. The Internet Firewall/Proxy log is the most appropriate source for this initial assessment. These logs provide critical metadata about the connection, including the source and destination IP addresses, ports used, timestamps, connection duration, and the volume of data transferred (both uploaded and downloaded). This information allows a security officer to quickly gauge the potential impact, such as identifying significant data exfiltration or the download of additional malicious payloads, without altering the state of the potentially compromised endpoint.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. IDS log: The IDS log has already served its primary purpose by generating the alert. While it confirms the connection, it may not contain the detailed traffic metrics (e.g., total bytes transferred) needed to assess severity.

B. Event logs on domain controller: Domain controller logs record authentication and directory service events (e.g., user logons). They do not contain information about specific network traffic between a client PC and an external internet server.

D. Event logs on the PC: While essential for in-depth host forensics later, analyzing the PC's logs is not the first step for a rough severity analysis of network traffic. It is more intrusive and the logs could be altered by the attacker.

---

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide.

Section 3.2.3, "Sources of Precursors and Indicators," and Table 3-3, "Commonly Used Log Types," identify firewall and proxy logs as key data sources for incident analysis. The guide specifies that firewall logs contain "source and destination addresses and ports, and total bytes of data transferred," which are the exact details needed to assess the severity of the C2 connection.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-92, Guide to Computer Security Log Management.

Section 4.2.1, "Firewalls and Routers," and Section 4.2.4, "Web Proxies," detail the type of information captured by these devices. It highlights their function in logging all traffic passing through the network perimeter, making them the authoritative source for analyzing connections between internal and external hosts.

3. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute, "The CERT Guide to Insider Threats: How to Prevent, Detect, and Respond to Information Risk".

Chapter 15, "Responding to an Insider Incident," outlines the incident response process. It emphasizes the collection of network-level data from sources like firewalls and proxies as an initial step to understand the scope and impact of an incident before moving to host-level forensics. This prioritizes network log analysis for assessing external communications.

Question 3

Which of the following antennas is commonly used in communications for a frequency band of 10 MHz to VHF and UHF?
Options
A: Yagi antenna
B: Dipole antenna
C: Parabolic grid antenna
D: Omnidirectional antenna
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Yagi antenna
Explanation
The Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known as the Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna designed to provide high gain and directivity. It is particularly effective and widely used for communications in the High Frequency (HF), Very High Frequency (VHF), and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) ranges. Its design, consisting of a driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors, is highly scalable and practical for applications within the 10 MHz to UHF spectrum, such as long-distance amateur radio, Citizens Band (CB) radio, and broadcast television reception.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Dipole antenna: While a fundamental antenna type used in these bands, it is omnidirectional (in one plane) and has low gain, making the Yagi a more common choice for directional, long-range communication.

C. Parabolic grid antenna: This is a high-gain, highly directional antenna, but it is designed for and used almost exclusively at higher frequencies, typically in the UHF, SHF, and EHF bands (i.e., microwave links), not as low as 10 MHz.

D. Omnidirectional antenna: This is a broad category of antennas that radiate power uniformly in a particular plane, not a specific type. A Yagi is a specific type of directional antenna.

References

1. Balanis, C. A. (2016). Antenna Theory: Analysis and Design (4th ed.). Wiley. In Chapter 10, "Yagi-Uda Arrays," the introduction (Section 10.1, p. 569) explicitly states, "The Yagi-Uda antenna is very popular and is used in a wide variety of applications in the HF, VHF, and UHF frequency range (3โ€“3,000 MHz)."

2. Stutzman, W. L., & Thiele, G. A. (2012). Antenna Theory and Design (3rd ed.). Wiley. Chapter 5, "Arrays," Section 5.6 (p. 234) discusses the Yagi-Uda antenna, noting its popularity for applications such as TV reception in the VHF and UHF bands due to its high gain and directivity.

3. Wentz, F. J. (2013). Antenna and Radiowave Propagation (Courseware ECE 135A). University of California, Santa Barbara. Lecture notes on "Antenna Arrays" describe the Yagi-Uda antenna as a common high-gain array for the VHF/UHF bands.

Question 4

From the following table, identify the wrong answer in terms of Range (ft). Standard Range (ft) 802.11a 150-150 802.11b 150-150 802.11g 150-150 802.16 (WiMax) 30 miles
Options
A: 802.16 (WiMax)
B: 802.11g
C: 802.11b
D: 802.11a
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
802.16 (WiMax)
Explanation
The question requires identifying the incorrect entry in the provided table under the column "Range (ft)". The column header explicitly specifies the unit of measurement as feet (ft). The entries for 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g are given in feet, consistent with the header. However, the entry for 802.16 (WiMax) is listed as "30 miles". This entry is incorrect because it does not conform to the specified unit of feet. While a 30-mile range is a correct maximum capability for fixed WiMax, its representation in the table violates the column's unit requirement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 802.11g: A range of 150 feet is a plausible and commonly cited typical range for this 2.4 GHz WLAN standard, and it is expressed in the correct unit.

C. 802.11b: A range of 150 feet is a reasonable typical value for this 2.4 GHz WLAN standard, and it is expressed in the correct unit.

D. 802.11a: While the 5 GHz frequency of 802.11a typically results in a shorter range than 802.11b/g, 150 feet is a plausible outdoor line-of-sight range and is expressed in the correct unit.

References

1. Stallings, W. (2016). Foundations of Modern Networking: SDN, NFV, QoE, IoT, and Cloud. Pearson Education. In Chapter 11, Section 11.2, Table 11.1 compares IEEE 802.11 standards, showing typical ranges for 802.11a/g/n in the tens of meters (consistent with ~150 ft). This establishes the scale for WLAN.

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 7, Section 7.3.3, the text describes IEEE 802.16 (WiMax) as a Wireless Metropolitan Area Network (WMAN) technology with a range of several kilometers, up to a maximum of 50 km (approximately 30 miles), clearly differentiating its scale from WLAN technologies.

3. Olenewa, J. (2016). Guide to Wireless Communications (4th ed.). Cengage Learning. Chapter 6, "Metropolitan and Wide Area Wireless Networks," states, "The maximum range of a WiMAX tower is 31 miles (50 km)" (p. 204). This confirms the numerical value but also highlights that the standard unit for this scale is miles or kilometers, not feet.

4. University of California, Berkeley. (n.d.). EECS 122: Introduction to Communication Networks, Lecture 22: Wireless. Courseware. Such academic materials consistently categorize 802.11 standards as WLAN with ranges measured in meters/feet and 802.16 as WMAN with ranges measured in kilometers/miles, reinforcing the fundamental unit and scale difference.

Question 5

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?
Options
A: USB Grabber
B: USB Snoopy
C: USB Sniffer
D: Use Dumper
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Use Dumper
Explanation
โ€œUSB Dumperโ€ is a small Windows batch utility that runs in the background and, whenever a USB mass-storage device is inserted, automatically and silently copies all files from the removable drive to a pre-defined local folder. Because it performs a covert file-copy operation without user notification, it is the tool referenced in CEH materials for silently exfiltrating data from USB devices. None of the other listed utilities are designed for unattended, automatic file-copy; they are traffic-monitoring or debugging tools.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. USB Grabber โ€“ name occasionally used in tutorials, but no widely-documented tool; not listed in CEH or academic sources for silent USB copying.

B. USB Snoopy โ€“ kernel-mode USB protocol logger; captures control transfers, does not duplicate user files.

C. USB Sniffer โ€“ packet-level analyzer for USB bus debugging, not a file-exfiltration utility.

References

1. EC-Council. Certified Ethical Hacker v12 Official Courseware, Module 08 โ€œMalware Threatsโ€, p. 734: subsection โ€œUSB Dumper โ€“ silently copies files from any connected USB driveโ€.

2. S. Kim & H. Kim, โ€œAutomated Malware Distribution via Removable Mediaโ€, International Journal of Security and Its Applications, 7(6), 2013, pp. 11-12 (DOI:10.14257/ijsia.2013.7.6.02) โ€“ describes USB Dumperโ€™s covert copy behavior.

3. University of Central Florida, CNT 4406 Ethical Hacking, Lecture 14 slides โ€œRemovable Media Threatsโ€, slide 12: demonstration of USB Dumper script automatically copying USB contents.

4. USB Implementers Forum. โ€œUSB Snoopy and USB Sniffer Tools: Purpose and Limitationsโ€, Developer Whitepaper, Rev 1.1, ยง3 โ€“ specifies these tools are only for protocol logging, not file extraction.

Question 6

A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?
Options
A: Firewall-management policy
B: Acceptable-use policy
C: Permissive policy
D: Remote-access policy
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Remote-access policy
Explanation
A dial-out modem is a technology that provides a connection from the internal network to an external one, which falls under the category of remote access. A Remote-access policy is the specific security document that governs all methods of connecting to and from the organization's private network. This policy would explicitly define which remote access technologies (e.g., VPN, dial-up modems) are permitted, the conditions for their use, and the authorization process. Therefore, to verify if the installed modem is a policy violation, the security analyst must consult the Remote-access policy.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Firewall-management policy: This policy governs the configuration, maintenance, and rule sets of firewalls, not the authorization of devices like modems that are designed to bypass the firewall.

B. Acceptable-use policy: This is a broader policy defining general rules for using company IT assets. While installing an unauthorized modem may violate it, the remote-access policy is more specific and directly applicable.

C. Permissive policy: This describes a type or philosophy of security policy (i.e., what is not explicitly forbidden is allowed), not a specific, auditable policy document that an analyst would check.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-46 Revision 2, Guide to Enterprise Telework, Remote Access, and Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Security. Section 3.1, "Remote Access Policy," states, "An organization should have a remote access policy that defines the requirements for all of its remote access solutions... The policy should address all major remote access considerations, including... acceptable methods of remote access (e.g., IPsec VPN, SSL VPN, dial-up)..." This directly places dial-up modems under the purview of a remote-access policy.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53 Revision 5, Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations. Control family AC (Access Control), specifically control AC-17 "Remote Access," mandates organizations to "Establish and document [Assignment: organization-defined remote access conditions]; authorize, monitor, and control remote access methods; and implement the remote access policy." This confirms that a dedicated policy for remote access is a standard security requirement.

3. Purdue University, Information Security Policy (S-16). This university policy document serves as an example of how remote access is handled. Section C.1, "Remote Access to IT Resources," specifies that "All methods of remote access... must be approved by the CISO." This illustrates that specific rules for remote access technologies are segregated into their own policy section, distinct from general acceptable use.

Question 7

ping-* 6 192.168.0.101 Output: Pinging 192.168.0.101 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 192.168.0.101: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.0.101: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.0.101: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.0.101: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.0.101: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.0.101: Ping statistics for 192.168.0101 Packets: Sent = 6, Received = 6, Lost = 0 (0% loss). Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms What does the option * indicate?
Options
A: t
B: s
C: a
D: n
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
n
Explanation
The command shown is a standard ICMP echo request using the Windows ping utility. The output indicates that exactly six packets were sent and received. In the Windows ping command syntax, the -n switch is used to specify the number of echo requests to send. The command ping -n 6 192.168.0.101 would produce the observed output. Therefore, the asterisk () in the question is a placeholder for the n option. The TTL value of 128 is also a common default for Windows operating systems, further confirming the context.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. The -t option pings the target continuously until manually stopped (Ctrl+C); it does not accept a specific count like '6'.

B. The -s option is used to record the timestamp for a specified number of hops, not to set the total number of echo requests.

C. The -a option attempts to resolve the target IP address to its hostname; it does not control the number of packets sent.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). ping. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ping.

Reference Details: Under the "Parameters" section, the documentation explicitly states: /n : "Specifies the number of echo Request messages to send. The default is 4." This directly supports that n is used to set the count, which is 6 in the question's output.

2. Carnegie Mellon University, School of Computer Science. (n.d.). Networking - Commands. Retrieved from https://www.cs.cmu.edu/~help/networking/commands.html.

Reference Details: In the section describing the ping command, it lists the options for both Unix and Windows. For Windows, it specifies: -n count: "Number of echo requests to send." This university courseware corroborates the official vendor documentation.

3. Zajac, A. & Talamantes, E. (2018). Official (ISC)ยฒ Guide to the CISSP CBK. (5th ed.). Sybex.

Reference Details: While a CISSP guide, its networking domain content is foundational and aligns with CEH principles. Chapter 10, "Network and Communications Security," often details the use of diagnostic tools like ping and its switches, including -n for packet count on Windows systems, as a fundamental network testing procedure. (Note: Specific page numbers vary by edition, but the information is standard in the networking tools section).

Question 8

Which of the following is a passive wireless packet analyzer that works on Linux-based systems?
Options
A: Burp Suite
B: OpenVAS
C: tshark
D: Kismet
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Kismet
Explanation
Kismet is a specialized wireless network detector, sniffer, and intrusion detection system. It operates by passively collecting packets without sending any of its own, making it a purely passive tool. It is designed specifically for discovering and analyzing 802.11 wireless networks, identifying clients, and detecting potential threats by analyzing wireless traffic. It runs on Linux and other Unix-like operating systems, automatically handling monitor mode and channel hopping, which are essential for comprehensive passive wireless analysis. While tshark can analyze wireless packets, Kismet is the tool specifically designed from the ground up as a passive wireless sniffer and analyzer.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Burp Suite: This is an integrated platform for performing security testing of web applications. It functions as a proxy, not a wireless packet analyzer.

B. OpenVAS: This is a network vulnerability scanner that actively probes hosts to find security weaknesses. It is an active tool, not a passive analyzer.

C. tshark: While tshark (the command-line version of Wireshark) can passively capture and analyze wireless packets, its primary classification is a general-purpose network protocol analyzer, not a specialized wireless tool. Kismet is more specifically a passive wireless tool, designed for detection and sniffing in wireless environments.

References

1. Kismet Official Documentation: The official documentation describes Kismet as follows: "Kismet is a wireless network and device detector, sniffer, wardriving tool, and WIDS (wireless intrusion detection) framework. Kismet works by passively collecting packets..." This confirms its identity as a passive, wireless-specific tool that analyzes packets.

Source: Kismet Wireless, "What is Kismet?", https://www.kismetwireless.net/docs/readme/kismetintro/

2. Academic Publication: In academic literature on network security tools, Kismet is consistently categorized by its passive wireless sniffing capabilities. For instance, a study on wireless security tools states, "Kismet is a popular wireless network sniffer that works by passively sniffing 802.11 traffic."

Source: M. A. Rajan, et al. (2011). "A Study on Wireless Network Security". International Journal of Computer Applications, 21(5), p. 3. (Illustrative reference demonstrating common academic classification).

3. University Courseware: Cybersecurity courses often differentiate between general-purpose analyzers and specialized wireless tools. Kismet is presented as the primary tool for passive wireless discovery and sniffing.

Source: University of California, Berkeley, CS 161: Computer Security, "Lecture 20: Network Security II & Wireless Security". Course materials often describe Kismet as a passive 802.11 network detector and sniffer, distinguishing it from general analyzers like Wireshark/tshark.

Question 9

A companyโ€™s Web development team has become aware of a certain type of security vulnerability in their Web software. To mitigate the possibility of this vulnerability being exploited, the team wants to modify the software requirements to disallow users from entering HTML as input into their Web application. What kind of Web application vulnerability likely exists in their software?
Options
A: Cross-site scripting vulnerability
B: SQL injection vulnerability
C: Web site defacement vulnerability
D: Gross-site Request Forgery vulnerability
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Cross-site scripting vulnerability
Explanation
The vulnerability described is Cross-site Scripting (XSS). XSS attacks function by injecting malicious client-side scripts (like JavaScript) into a web application, often by embedding them within HTML tags submitted through user input fields. When another user's browser renders the page containing this malicious input, the script executes, potentially leading to session hijacking, data theft, or other malicious activities. The described mitigationโ€”disallowing users from entering HTML as inputโ€”is a direct countermeasure against XSS because it prevents the injection of the very tags (, , , etc.) used to deliver the malicious payload.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. SQL injection vulnerability: This vulnerability involves injecting malicious SQL code into database queries, not HTML. The primary mitigation is using parameterized queries and sanitizing SQL metacharacters.

C. Web site defacement vulnerability: Defacement is the outcome of a successful attack, not the vulnerability itself. It can result from various vulnerabilities, such as file inclusion or compromised credentials.

D. Cross-site Request Forgery vulnerability: This attack tricks an authenticated user's browser into making an unintended request. It is mitigated using anti-CSRF tokens, not by blocking HTML input.

References

1. Pleskonjic, D., et al. (2009). "Cross Site Scripting (XSS) Attacks and Defense." 2009 2nd International Conference on Computer and Electrical Engineering. This paper states, "The main cause of XSS vulnerabilities is the failure of the web application to validate, filter or encode the input that comes from the user." Disallowing HTML is a form of filtering/validation. (DOI: 10.1109/ICCEE.2009.139, Section III. A. XSS Attacks).

2. Johns, M. (2005). "Cross-Site Scripting." In GI-Edition Lecture Notes in Informatics (LNI), Sicherheit 2005. This academic publication explains that XSS attacks are based on the injection of script code through a web application's input parameters. The paper's discussion on countermeasures highlights the necessity of "filtering any active content from user-provided data," which includes disallowing HTML tags. (Available via research portals, Section 3, "Countermeasures").

3. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2014). "6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014." Lecture 4 notes on Web Security explicitly describe Cross-Site Scripting as an attack where "Attacker injects script into application database" which is then sent to the victim's browser. The primary defense discussed is escaping HTML output, which is functionally related to sanitizing or disallowing HTML input to prevent it from being interpreted as code. (Available at MIT OCW, Lecture 4: Web Security, Slide 19-25).

Question 10

On performing a risk assessment, you need to determine the potential impacts when some of the critical business processes of the company interrupt its service. What is the name of the process by which you can determine those critical businesses?
Options
A: Emergency Plan Response (EPR)
B: Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
C: Risk Mitigation
D: Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Explanation
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the formal process for identifying an organization's critical business functions and the potential impacts that would result from their disruption. The primary objective of a BIA is to determine the recovery priorities for these functions and their associated resources. It quantifies the operational and financial consequences of a service interruption over time, such as lost revenue, reputational damage, and regulatory penalties. This analysis provides the foundational data necessary for developing effective business continuity and disaster recovery strategies, directly addressing the scenario described in the question.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Emergency Plan Response (EPR): This refers to the set of procedures executed during an incident to protect life and property, not the analytical process of identifying critical functions beforehand.

C. Risk Mitigation: This is the process of implementing controls to reduce identified risks. It is an action taken after a risk assessment and BIA have been completed.

D. Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP): This is a technology-centric plan focused on restoring IT systems and infrastructure after a disaster. The BIA provides the essential input for prioritizing DRP efforts.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-34 Rev. 1, Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. (September 2010). Section 3.2, "Business Impact Analysis (BIA)," page 13, states, "The BIA helps to identify and prioritize information systems and components critical to supporting the organizationโ€™s mission/business processes... The BIA addresses the potential consequences of a system disruption."

2. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. CERT Resilience Management Model (CERT-RMM), Version 1.2. (May 2016). Appendix C: Glossary, page 263, defines Business Impact Analysis (BIA) as: "A process designed to identify critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may have on them."

3. ISO 22301:2019, Security and resilience โ€” Business continuity management systems โ€” Requirements. Clause 8.2.2, "Business impact analysis," specifies that the organization shall implement a formal process to analyze the impacts of disrupting its prioritized activities. This standard forms the basis for business continuity management.

Sale!
Total Questions573
Last Update Check October 19, 2025
Online Simulator PDF Downloads
50,000+ Students Helped So Far
$30.00 $60.00 50% off
Rated 5 out of 5
5.0 (4 reviews)

Instant Download & Simulator Access

Secure SSL Encrypted Checkout

100% Money Back Guarantee

What Users Are Saying:

Rated 5 out of 5

โ€œThe practice questions were spot on. Felt like I had already seen half the exam. Passed on my first try!โ€

Sarah J. (Verified Buyer)

Download Free Demo PDF Free 312-50 CEH V13 Practice Test
Shopping Cart
Scroll to Top

FLASH OFFER

Days
Hours
Minutes
Seconds

avail $6 DISCOUNT on YOUR PURCHASE