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GIAC GCIH Free Practice Exam – 2025 Updated

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Question 1

Mark works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Inc. The company has both wired and wireless networks. An attacker attempts to keep legitimate users from accessing services that they require. Mark uses IDS/IPS sensors on the wired network to mitigate the attack. Which of the following attacks best describes the attacker's intentions?
Options
A: Internal attack
B: Reconnaissance attack
C: Land attack
D: DoS attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
DoS attack
Explanation
The attacker's described intention is to "keep legitimate users from accessing services that they require." This is the textbook definition of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack. The primary goal of a DoS attack is to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users by overwhelming it with traffic or exploiting a vulnerability that causes it to crash or become unresponsive. The use of IDS/IPS sensors is a defensive measure to detect and potentially block such malicious activity, further indicating the nature of the attack being mitigated.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Internal attack: This describes the origin of an attacker (from within the network perimeter), not the objective or type of the attack itself.

B. Reconnaissance attack: This is a preliminary phase of an attack focused on gathering information about a target, not actively disrupting its services.

C. Land attack: This is a specific and now largely historical type of DoS attack. The general category "DoS attack" is the most accurate and encompassing description of the attacker's intent.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2012). Computer Security Incident Handling Guide (NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2). Section 2.3.4, "Denial of Service," states: "A denial of service (DoS) is an attack that prevents or impairs the authorized use of networks, systems, or applications by exhausting resources..."

2. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Lecture 15: Network Security & Denial of Service. The lecture notes define a DoS attack as an "attack that prevents legitimate users from using a service."

3. Mirkovic, J., & Reiher, P. (2004). A taxonomy of DDoS attack and DDoS defense mechanisms. ACM SIGCOMM Computer Communication Review, 34(2), 39โ€“53. The introduction (p. 39) defines a DoS attack as "an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users." DOI: https://doi.org/10.1145/997150.997156

Question 2

Which of the following functions in c/c++ can be the cause of buffer overflow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Options
A: printf()
B: strcat()
C: strcpy()
D: strlength()
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
strcat(), strcpy()
Explanation
The functions strcpy() and strcat() are notoriously unsafe in C/C++ because they do not perform any bounds checking. strcpy() copies a source string into a destination buffer, and strcat() appends a source string to a destination buffer. If the data from the source string is larger than the allocated size of the destination buffer, these functions will continue writing past the buffer's boundary. This overwrites adjacent memory on the stack, leading to a classic buffer overflow vulnerability which can be exploited for arbitrary code execution or to cause a denial-of-service.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. printf()

This function's primary vulnerability is related to format string bugs, not buffer overflows, as it writes to standard output, not a user-specified memory buffer.

D. strlength()

Assuming this is a typo for strlen(), this function only reads from a buffer to calculate its length; it does not write data and therefore cannot cause a buffer overflow.

References

1. Carnegie Mellon University, CERT Secure Coding Standards. The standard STR31-C, "Guarantee that storage for strings has sufficient space for character data and a null terminator," explicitly warns against the use of unbounded string functions. It states, "The strcpy() and strcat() functions are common sources of buffer overflow vulnerabilities." (See Noncompliant Code Example for STR31-C).

2. Microsoft Corporation, Official Vendor Documentation. In the documentation for the secure function strcpys, Microsoft explicitly states, "Because strcpy does not check for sufficient space in strDestination before copying strSource, it is a potential cause of buffer overruns." A similar warning is provided for strcat. (See "Security Remarks" section in the strcpy, wcscpy, mbscpy documentation on Microsoft Learn).

3. Aleph One (Elias Levy), "Smashing The Stack For Fun And Profit," Phrack Magazine, Volume 7, Issue 49, 1996. This foundational paper on buffer overflow exploitation identifies strcpy() as a primary example of a function that enables stack-based buffer overflows. It details how copying a long string into a fixed-size buffer using strcpy() can overwrite the return address on the stack. (See Section 4: "The Stack, Functions and Stack Frames" and Section 5: "Buffer Overflows").

Question 3

You work as a System Administrator in SunSoft Inc. You are running a virtual machine on Windows Server 2003. The virtual machine is protected by DPM. Now, you want to move the virtual machine to another host. Which of the following steps can you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Remove the original virtual machine from the old server and stop the protection for the original virtual machine.
B: Run consistency check.
C: Add the copied virtual machine to a protection group.
D: Copy the virtual machine to the new server.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Remove the original virtual machine from the old server and stop the protection for the original virtual machine., Add the copied virtual machine to a protection group., Copy the virtual machine to the new server.
Explanation
The process of moving a DPM-protected virtual machine to a new host involves three primary phases. First, the virtual machine must be properly decommissioned on the original host by stopping DPM protection to prevent backup job failures. Second, the virtual machine's files (e.g., VHDs, configuration files) are copied to the new host server. Finally, after the virtual machine is running on the new host, protection must be re-established by adding it to a DPM protection group. These three steps represent the core administrative actions required to complete the migration while maintaining data protection continuity.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Run consistency check.

A consistency check is a subsequent action performed after the VM is added back to a protection group (Step C) to synchronize the DPM replica. It is a sub-task of re-establishing protection, not a primary step in the migration process itself.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2010). Data Protection Manager 2010 Documentation. In the DPM Operations Guide, the procedure for moving a protected data source consistently follows the pattern of stopping protection, moving the data, and then re-configuring the protection group for the new location. For example, in the section "Managing protected servers," it states, "If you move a data source that is a member of a protection group, DPM will raise an alert that the replica is inconsistent... You must then run a consistency check." This confirms the consistency check (B) is a consequence of re-protecting (C), not a primary migration step. The primary steps are stopping protection (A), moving the data (D), and re-protecting (C).

2. Microsoft TechNet Archives. (2012). How to move a DPM protected Hyper-V guest to another CSV. This official blog post, while specific to CSVs, outlines the general procedure. The administrator must first "Stop protection of the selected data" (related to step A), then "Migrate the virtual machine" (Step D), and finally "run the Modify Protection Group wizard" to update the VM's new location (related to step C).

3. Orin, T. (2013). Microsoft Virtualization with Hyper-V. Sybex. Chapter 11, "Hyper-V and System Center," discusses integration with DPM. The text describes that when a protected VM is moved, the DPM administrator must update the protection group to reflect the new host. This action corresponds to Step C, which follows the physical move (Step D) and is preceded by stopping the original protection job (Step A).

Question 4

In the DNS Zone transfer enumeration, an attacker attempts to retrieve a copy of the entire zone file for a domain from a DNS server. The information provided by the DNS zone can help an attacker gather user names, passwords, and other valuable information. To attempt a zone transfer, an attacker must be connected to a DNS server that is the authoritative server for that zone. Besides this, an attacker can launch a Denial of Service attack against the zone's DNS servers by flooding them with a lot of requests. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform a DNS zone transfer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Host
B: Dig
C: DSniff
D: NSLookup
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Host, Dig, NSLookup
Explanation
The command-line utilities dig (Domain Information Groper), host, and nslookup are standard tools for querying Domain Name System (DNS) servers. All three possess the specific functionality to request a full zone transfer (AXFR). An attacker can use these tools to send an AXFR request to a target domain's authoritative name server. If the server is misconfigured to allow transfers to any client, it will respond with the entire zone file, revealing all DNS records for that domain. This information is valuable for network reconnaissance and mapping an organization's infrastructure.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

C. DSniff: DSniff is a suite of tools for network sniffing and traffic analysis, primarily designed to intercept and parse credentials from unencrypted protocols. It is not a DNS query tool and lacks the functionality to initiate a zone transfer.

References

1. Internet Systems Consortium (ISC), BIND 9.18 Administrator Reference Manual.

For dig: Chapter 7, "Server and Tools," section on dig, describes the usage of query types, including AXFR. The manual states, "dig supports specifying the query type on the command line... An AXFR query can be requested by specifying the type AXFR."

For host: Chapter 7, "Server and Tools," section on host, details the -l option. The manual specifies, "host -l is used to list all of the hosts in a zone; this is a synonym for -t AXFR."

For nslookup: Chapter 7, "Server and Tools," section on nslookup, explains the ls command in interactive mode, which is used to list addresses in a domain, effectively performing a zone transfer.

2. University of California, Berkeley, EECS Department Courseware, CS 161: Computer Security.

Lecture notes on Network Security II discuss DNS attacks. They explicitly mention using dig @ns.victim.com victim.com axfr as the command to attempt a DNS zone transfer, demonstrating dig as a primary tool for this enumeration technique.

3. Dug Song, "DSniff - Tools for network auditing and penetration testing."

The official documentation and description for the DSniff tool suite on the author's page at the University of Michigan (monkey.org/~dugsong/dsniff/) outlines its capabilities as a collection of sniffers (dsniff, filesnarf, msgsnarf, etc.). The tool's purpose is passive data interception, not active DNS querying or zone transfer requests.

Question 5

Which of the following types of malware can an antivirus application disable and destroy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Rootkit
B: Trojan
C: Crimeware
D: Worm
E: Adware
F: Virus
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Rootkit, Trojan, Worm, Virus
Explanation
Signature-based and heuristic antivirus engines are explicitly designed to locate, quarantine, disable, and remove classic executable-file malware such as viruses, worms, Trojan horses, andโ€”in many current productsโ€”kernel- or user-mode rootkits. These families all leave identifiable code artifacts (signatures and behaviors) that AV scanners target. Modern AV suites include anti-rootkit drivers to unhook stealth techniques once signatures are matched, allowing complete removal.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

C. Crimeware โ€“ Broad marketing term for toolkits (e.g., Zeus) that combine multiple malware elements; removal often needs specialized disinfection utilities beyond standard AV signatures.

E. Adware โ€“ Generally classed as potentially-unwanted software; many AV products ignore or just flag it, leaving full removal to dedicated anti-spyware/adware tools rather than core AV engines.

References

1. NIST SP 800-83 Rev.1 โ€œGuide to Malware Incident Prevention & Handlingโ€, ยง2.2.1-2.2.3 (pp. 2-5)โ€”describes AV removal capabilities for viruses, worms, Trojans.

2. Microsoft KB 926079 โ€œDetection and Removal of Rootkitsโ€, para. 1โ€“3โ€”states up-to-date AV products incorporate anti-rootkit modules.

3. University of Maryland (UMUC) CYBR 620 Course Notes, Week 4: โ€œTraditional AV is ineffective against adware/spyware; separate tools recommended.โ€

4. US-CERT Security Tip ST04-006 โ€œVirus Basicsโ€, lines 14-22โ€”lists viruses, worms, Trojans as malware countered by antivirus software.

5. Symantec Security Response Whitepaper โ€œUnderstanding Malwareโ€, v1.0, p.6โ€”AV engines target virus, worm, Trojan, rootkit signatures; crimeware defined as composite threat often requiring specialized remediation.

Question 6

Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
Options
A: Attack phase
B: Pre-attack phase
C: Post-attack phase
D: Out-attack phase
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Pre-attack phase
Explanation
The pre-attack phase is the initial stage of a penetration test, dedicated to preparation before any active exploitation is attempted. This phase is fundamentally centered on reconnaissance and information gathering. The objective is to collect as much data as possible about the target organization, its infrastructure, personnel, and systems. This intelligence is crucial for identifying potential attack vectors, understanding the target's security posture, and planning the subsequent attack phase. Activities include both passive (e.g., open-source intelligence) and active (e.g., network scanning) reconnaissance.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Attack phase: This phase involves actively exploiting the vulnerabilities identified during the pre-attack phase to gain unauthorized access, not the initial data gathering.

C. Post-attack phase: This phase occurs after a successful compromise and includes activities like maintaining access, covering tracks, and preparing the final report.

D. Out-attack phase: This is not a recognized or standard term within established penetration testing methodologies.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2008). Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment.

Reference: Section 3.2, "Discovery," page 3-2. The document outlines a four-phase methodology. The "Discovery" phase, which precedes the "Attack" phase, is described as the stage for information gathering and scanning. It states, "The discovery phase is used to discover and probe the target systems... It begins with reconnaissance to identify networks, systems, and potential vulnerabilities." This directly corresponds to the pre-attack phase.

2. Ahmed, Z. Z., Hossain, M. A., & Maleque, M. A. (2020). A Study on Penetration Testing Process and Tools. 2020 11th International Conference on Computing, Communication and Networking Technologies (ICCCNT), 1-6.

Reference: Section III, "Penetration Testing Process," subsection A, "Information Gathering (Reconnaissance)," page 2. This academic paper details the penetration testing process, identifying "Information Gathering (Reconnaissance)" as the first major step. The authors state, "In this phase, the tester tries to collect as much information as possible about a target of evaluation." This aligns with the purpose of the pre-attack phase.

DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/ICCCNT49239.2020.9225553

3. The Penetration Testing Execution Standard (PTES). (2012). PTES Technical Guidelines.

Reference: Section "Intelligence Gathering." The PTES, a widely respected industry standard, defines "Intelligence Gathering" as a core phase that precedes vulnerability analysis and exploitation. The standard describes this phase as using "numerous techniques to learn as much as possible about the target." This phase is functionally identical to the pre-attack phase.

Question 7

You work as an Incident handling manager for a company. The public relations process of the company includes an event that responds to the e-mails queries. But since few days, it is identified that this process is providing a way to spammers to perform different types of e-mail attacks. Which of the following phases of the Incident handling process will now be involved in resolving this process and find a solution? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Eradication
B: Contamination
C: Preparation
D: Recovery
E: Identification
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Eradication, Contamination, Recovery
Explanation
Once the e-mail abuse has been detected, the incident-handling work that actually resolves the problem proceeds in three successive phases: 1. Containment โ€“ immediately limit the spammersโ€™ ability to exploit the public-relations address. 2. Eradication โ€“ remove the underlying weakness (e.g., misconfigured auto-responder, open relay). 3. Recovery โ€“ return the mail service and PR process to normal operation and verify that no residual avenues for attack remain. These three phases collectively โ€œresolve the process and find a solutionโ€; preparation and initial identification have already occurred.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

C. Preparation โ€“ concerns policies, training, and infrastructure readied before any incident; it does not fix an already discovered problem.

E. Identification โ€“ is the detection/analysis step that recognized the misuse; the question states the misuse has already been identified.

References

1. NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, ยง3.2โ€“3.3, pp. 19โ€“27, 44-48 โ€“ defines Containment, Eradication, Recovery stages used after detection.

2. Skoudis, E. & Zeltser, L., SANS Incident Handlerโ€™s Handbook, v2.6, ยง4 โ€œContainment, Eradication & Recoveryโ€, pp. 18-25 โ€“ describes limiting damage, eliminating root cause, restoring service.

3. SANS SEC504: Hacker Tools, Techniques, Exploits & Incident Handling (GIAC GCIH courseware), Day 5 notes, slides 37-46 โ€“ lists phases: Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned and details actions in each.

Question 8

Fill in the blank with the appropriate name of the rootkit. A _______ rootkit uses device or platform firmware to create a persistent malware image.

Show Answer
Correct Answer:
FIRMWARE
Explanation
A firmware rootkit is a type of malicious code that embeds itself within a device's non-volatile firmware, such as the system BIOS, UEFI, or the firmware on components like network cards or hard drives. This technique provides an extreme level of persistence, as the malware resides outside of the operating system's file system. Consequently, it can survive complete operating system reinstalls, disk formatting, and even hard drive replacement. The rootkit's code is often executed during the initial boot process, before the operating system loads, granting it high privileges and making it exceptionally difficult to detect and remove using traditional security software.
References

1. Aung, M. M., & Aung, S. H. H. (2016). Firmware-based rootkits: a survey. In 2016 IEEE Conference on Computer Applications and Information Processing Technology (CAIPT). The abstract states, "Firmware-based rootkits are a type of malware that resides in the firmware of a device, such as a computer's BIOS or a network card's firmware." DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/CAIPT.2016.7975821

2. Regenscheid, A. (2018). NIST Special Publication 800-193: Platform Firmware Resiliency Guidelines. National Institute of Standards and Technology. Section 2.1, "Introduction" (p. 3), discusses the threat: "A successful attack on firmware can be difficult to detect and can give an attacker a high degree of privilege and persistence on the platform." DOI: https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-193

3. Saltzer, J. H., & Kaashoek, M. F. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014, Lecture 15: Malware. Massachusetts Institute of Technology: MIT OpenCourseWare. Slide 23, "Rootkit Types," explicitly lists "Firmware rootkits (e.g., in BIOS)" as a category of rootkit. Retrieved from https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/6-858-computer-systems-security-fall-2014/resources/mit6858f14lec15/

Question 9

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______ is a free Unix subsystem that runs on top of Windows.

Show Answer
Correct Answer:
CYGWIN
Explanation
Cygwin is a free and open-source software collection that provides a Unix-like environment and command-line interface for Microsoft Windows. It is not an emulator or a virtual machine but a compatibility layer that implements the POSIX (Portable Operating System Interface) API in a dynamic-link library (cygwin1.dll). This allows source code from Unix-like systems (such as Linux or BSD) to be compiled and executed on Windows with minimal modification. For security professionals, Cygwin is invaluable for running familiar Unix/Linux security tools and scripts directly on a Windows system during incident response or analysis.
References

1. Silberschatz, A., Galvin, P. B., & Gagne, G. (2013). Operating System Concepts (9th ed.). John Wiley & Sons. In Chapter 2, Section 2.8.3, when discussing Windows layers, the text states, "A popular free software package that provides a UNIX-like environment on Windows is Cygwin."

2. MacKenzie, D. J., Tishler, R., Eyring, C., & Noer, G. (2001). Cygwin: A UNIX-like Environment for Windows. In Proceedings of the 2001 USENIX Windows Systems Symposium. The abstract explicitly states, "Cygwin is a project which provides a UNIX-like environment for Windows. It consists of a DLL which implements the POSIX API in terms of Win32 API calls, and a collection of tools."

3. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. In Lab 1 assignment materials, Cygwin is recommended as a necessary tool for students using Windows to "get a Unix-like environment" required for the course projects.

4. IEEE Computer Society. (2004). Porting Applications to Cygwin. IEEE Distributed Systems Online, 5(7). DOI: 10.1109/MDSO.2004.1315491. The article describes Cygwin as "a free Unix subsystem that runs on top of Windows" and details its function as a POSIX compatibility layer.

Question 10

Which of the following tools uses common UNIX/Linux tools like the strings and grep commands to search core system programs for signatures of the rootkits?
Options
A: rkhunter
B: OSSEC
C: chkrootkit
D: Blue Pill
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
chkrootkit
Explanation
chkrootkit (Check Rootkit) is a classic security tool designed as a shell script. Its primary method of operation involves using common, trusted UNIX/Linux utilities like strings and grep to scan core system programs and binaries. It searches for specific, hard-coded signatures (strings) and patterns that are characteristic of known rootkits. This approach allows it to perform checks on a live system using fundamental commands that are less likely to be compromised, making it a straightforward and effective first-pass detection tool.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. rkhunter: While also a script-based scanner, rkhunter performs more extensive checks, including comparing file hashes against known-good databases, checking for wrong file permissions, and looking for suspicious kernel modules, not just signature scanning with strings and grep.

B. OSSEC: This is a comprehensive Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). Its rootkit detection relies primarily on file integrity monitoring (comparing checksums over time) and log analysis, which is a different and broader methodology.

D. Blue Pill: Blue Pill is a proof-of-concept for a virtual machine-based rootkit (VMBR). It is a type of malware, not a tool used to detect rootkits.

References

1. Shmatikov, V. (2012). Lecture 15: Malware II: Viruses, Rootkits. CS 378 - Network Security and Privacy, University of Texas at Austin. On slide 29, chkrootkit is described as a script that "runs strings, grep, etc. on system binaries to find signatures of known rootkits." Available at: https://www.cs.utexas.edu/~shmat/courses/cs378/l15.pdf

2. chkrootkit Project. (n.d.). chkrootkit - locally checks for signs of a rootkit. The official project page describes its function as checking system binaries for modification. The tool's source code is a shell script that heavily utilizes commands like strings, grep, egrep, and awk for its checks. Retrieved from: http://www.chkrootkit.org/

3. Bace, R., & Mell, P. (2001). NIST Special Publication 800-31: Intrusion Detection Systems. National Institute of Standards and Technology. Section 4.2.2 discusses signature-based detection, the method employed by chkrootkit, which involves searching for specific patterns or strings within files.

Question 11

Which of the following rootkits is used to attack against full disk encryption systems?
Options
A: Boot loader rootkit
B: Library rootkit
C: Hypervisor rootkit
D: Kernel level rootkit
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Boot loader rootkit
Explanation
A boot loader rootkit, often called a bootkit, is specifically designed to attack systems at the earliest stage of the startup process. It modifies the Master Boot Record (MBR), Volume Boot Record (VBR), or other boot-time components. This allows the malicious code to execute before the operating system kernel is loaded. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) systems require the user to enter a password or key during this pre-boot phase to decrypt the disk. A bootkit can intercept these credentials before they are passed to the legitimate FDE mechanism, effectively bypassing the encryption and gaining full access to the system's data.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Library rootkit: This rootkit operates in user-space and modifies system libraries. It only becomes active after the operating system has fully booted and the disk is already decrypted.

C. Hypervisor rootkit: While very powerful, a hypervisor rootkit typically loads the host OS as a guest. This process generally occurs after the initial boot loader has already processed the FDE credentials.

D. Kernel level rootkit: This type of rootkit modifies the core of the operating system. It cannot execute until the kernel itself is loaded, which happens after the disk has been successfully decrypted.

References

1. Tereshkin, A., & Sochor, T. (2013). Evil Maid Just Got Angrier: Why Full-Disk Encryption with TPM is Not Enough. In 2013 Central European Workshop on Security and Privacy (CEWSP). The paper describes an attack where "the attacker modifies the MBR code on the hard drive to include a simple keylogger that stores the entered passphrase." (Section 3, Paragraph 2).

2. Sparks, S., & Butler, J. (2005). Shadows on the Wall: A Study of Malicious Software in a Large-Scale Honeynet. In login; The USENIX Magazine, 30(4). This work differentiates rootkit types, explaining that boot process rootkits "subvert the system before the operating system is loaded," which is the necessary timing to attack pre-boot authentication for FDE. (Section: "Boot Process Rootkits").

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2011). Special Publication 800-155: BIOS Integrity Measurement Guidelines. Section 2.2, "Threats to BIOS Integrity," discusses malware that modifies the MBR to "gain control of the system before the operating system is loaded," which is the fundamental principle used by bootkits to defeat FDE.

4. Bratus, S., et al. (2007). Active Malware Defense with A Virtual Machine Introspection-Based Architecture. Dartmouth College, Computer Science Technical Report TR2007-603. The report discusses how bootkits like "Stoned" modify the MBR to gain control early in the boot sequence, a technique directly applicable to subverting FDE passphrase entry. (Section 2.1, "Bootkits").

Question 12

Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Options
A: It contains Trojans.
B: It is a virus.
C: It is antivirus.
D: It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
It contains Trojans., It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Explanation
Dsniff is a well-known suite of software for network auditing and penetration testing. It is not a single program but a collection of separate tools, each with a specific function, such as arpspoof for ARP poisoning, macof for MAC flooding, and dsniff for password sniffing. This directly validates that it is a "collection of various hacking tools." Furthermore, the functionality of these toolsโ€”passively sniffing credentials, intercepting traffic, and exfiltrating dataโ€”is characteristic of Trojan horse malware. Security software, such as antivirus and intrusion detection systems, frequently flag Dsniff's components as "HackTool" or "Trojan" because their behavior is indistinguishable from malicious software when used without authorization. Therefore, in a security context, it is considered to contain tools that function as Trojans.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. It is a virus.

Dsniff does not self-replicate by attaching its code to other programs, which is the defining characteristic of a computer virus.

C. It is antivirus.

Dsniff is an offensive security tool used for network attacks and analysis, which is the opposite of defensive antivirus software.

References

1. Song, D. (c. 2000). dsniff - tools for network auditing and penetration testing. University of Michigan. Retrieved from https://www.monkey.org/~dugsong/dsniff/. The official project page and its README file explicitly list the multiple tools included in the suite (dsniff, filesnarf, macof, arpspoof, etc.), confirming it is a collection of tools.

2. Cabarcos, P. A., Lama, M., & Barro, S. (2010). A multi-agent system for detecting ARP spoofing, IP spoofing and Dsniff attacks. Expert Systems with Applications, 37(8), 5654-5663. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.eswa.2010.02.021. Section 2.2, "Dsniff," describes Dsniff as "a set of tools for network auditing and penetration testing" and details its components like arpspoof and dsniff, reinforcing that it is a tool collection.

3. University of California, Berkeley. (2014). CS 161 Computer Security, Lecture 15: Network Security. Slide 33. This lecture slide lists dsniff as a primary example of a tool used for "Sniffing attacks" to capture passwords from unencrypted protocols like POP, FTP, and HTTP, demonstrating its function as a hacking tool.

4. Trend Micro. (2014). Threat Encyclopedia: HACKTOOLDSNIFF.A. This official vendor documentation classifies the tool as a "Hacktool" and describes its function as a "password sniffing program." This classification by security vendors supports the interpretation that its components are Trojan-like in function and risk.

Question 13

Which of the following rootkits patches, hooks, or replaces system calls with versions that hide information about the attacker?
Options
A: Library rootkit
B: Kernel level rootkit
C: Hypervisor rootkit
D: Boot loader rootkit
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Kernel level rootkit
Explanation
A kernel-level rootkit operates with the highest operating system privileges (Ring 0). Its primary method for hiding an attacker's presence is to directly modify the core of the OS, including the kernel's system call table (e.g., System Service Descriptor Table - SSDT in Windows). By patching, hooking, or replacing the pointers in this table, the rootkit intercepts legitimate system calls for functions like listing processes or files. The rootkit's malicious code then executes, filters out information related to the attacker, and returns a sanitized result to the user's application, effectively making the attacker's activities invisible.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Library rootkit: This modifies user-space libraries (Ring 3), intercepting function calls from applications before they reach the kernel, rather than modifying the kernel's system calls directly.

C. Hypervisor rootkit: This operates at a layer below the operating system (Ring -1), hiding its presence by intercepting and modifying hardware calls from the guest OS kernel.

D. Boot loader rootkit: This modifies the boot process (e.g., MBR) to load malicious code before the operating system starts, primarily as a persistence and loading mechanism for other rootkits.

References

1. Butler, J. (2011). Analysis of the Windows Kernel-Mode Driver and Rootkit. IEEE SoutheastCon 2011 Proceedings. Section III, Paragraph 1 describes how kernel-mode rootkits function by hooking the System Service Descriptor Table (SSDT) to intercept system calls. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/SECON.2011.5752919

2. Stavrou, A., & Keromytis, A. D. (2006). COMS E6998-04: Topics in Computer Security, Lecture 10: Malware II: Rootkits. Columbia University. Slide 17 ("Kernel-level Rootkits") explicitly states they "Modify kernel code/data structures (e.g., system call table)" to "filter output of system calls."

3. Hoglund, G., & Butler, J. (2006). Rootkits: Subverting the Windows Kernel. Addison-Wesley Professional. Chapter 5, "Kernel Hooking," provides an in-depth explanation of how kernel rootkits patch system call tables and other kernel structures to hide information. (Note: While a commercial book, this is a foundational, peer-reviewed text in the domain, often cited in academic work).

Question 14

You work as a Security Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. You want to use a scanning technique which works as a reconnaissance attack. The technique should direct to a specific host or network to determine the services that the host offers. Which of the following scanning techniques can you use to accomplish the task?
Options
A: IDLE scan
B: Nmap
C: SYN scan
D: Host port scan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Host port scan
Explanation
A host port scan is a fundamental reconnaissance technique used to probe a server or host for open ports. By systematically checking a range of ports, an administrator or attacker can determine which services and applications are running and listening for connections on the target system. This process directly accomplishes the task of identifying the services a host offers, which is a primary goal of the reconnaissance phase in an attack or security assessment. While other options represent specific types of scans or tools, "Host port scan" is the general term for the described activity.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. IDLE scan: This is a specific, advanced type of stealthy port scan, not the general technique for determining services.

B. Nmap: This is a popular software tool used to execute various scanning techniques, not the name of the technique itself.

C. SYN scan: This is a specific method of port scanning (half-open scan). "Host port scan" is the broader, more encompassing term for the task.

References

1. Lyon, G. F. (2009). Nmap Network Scanning: The Official Nmap Project Guide to Network Discovery and Security Scanning. Nmap Project. In Chapter 2, "Getting Started with Nmap," the text introduces port scanning as the core feature of Nmap, defining it as the process of discovering open TCP and UDP ports on a target host to determine available services.

2. Teare, D. (2017). Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) Version 9 Cert Guide. Pearson IT Certification. Chapter 4, "Scanning Networks," defines port scanning as a method for determining which ports on a network are open and could be receiving or sending data. It is categorized as a primary reconnaissance technique.

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014. MIT OpenCourseWare. In Lecture 10, "Network Security," port scanning is described as a reconnaissance step where an attacker sends packets to a target's ports to discover which services are running. This aligns with the definition of a host port scan. (ocw.mit.edu)

Question 15

Which of the following actions is performed by the netcat command given below? nc 55555 < /etc/passwd
Options
A: It changes the /etc/passwd file when connected to the UDP port 55555.
B: It resets the /etc/passwd file to the UDP port 55555.
C: It fills the incoming connections to /etc/passwd file.
D: It grabs the /etc/passwd file when connected to UDP port 55555.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
It grabs the /etc/passwd file when connected to UDP port 55555.
Explanation
The command nc 55555 < /etc/passwd initiates a netcat client connection to a listening service on port 55555 (implicitly on localhost). The shell's input redirection operator (<) reads the contents of the /etc/passwd file and pipes it to the standard input of the netcat process. netcat then sends this data across the established network connection. While the command itself sends the data, the overall purpose from an attacker's perspective (who would be listening on the port) is to "grab" or exfiltrate the file. Among the given choices, this is the only one that correctly identifies the transfer of the /etc/passwd file's contents.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. The input redirection operator (<) reads data from a file; it does not modify or change the file's contents.

B. This command only reads the /etc/passwd file. It does not have any functionality to reset or alter the file.

C. This incorrectly describes the direction of data flow. Data is sent from the /etc/passwd file, not to it.

References

1. The OpenBSD manual page for nc(1) (Netcat): This is the canonical reference for the original netcat utility. It specifies that client mode is the default and that TCP is the default protocol. The -u option must be used for UDP. This confirms the command attempts a connection and sends data over TCP, not UDP, highlighting a technical inaccuracy in option D, which is nonetheless the best-fit answer.

Source: nc(1) Manual Page, OpenBSD project. Available at: https://man.openbsd.org/nc.1 (See "DESCRIPTION" section, paragraphs 1 and 2).

2. GNU Bash Manual on Redirections: The official documentation for the Bash shell explains the function of redirection operators. It explicitly states that < filename redirects standard input from filename. This confirms that the /etc/passwd file is being read from, not written to, invalidating options A, B, and C.

Source: GNU Bash Reference Manual, Section 3.6.1 "Redirecting Input". Available at: https://www.gnu.org/software/bash/manual/htmlnode/Redirecting-Input.html

3. University Courseware on Network Security Tools: Reputable university courses frequently use netcat to demonstrate fundamental networking concepts, including data transfer and exfiltration. For example, course materials often show how to pipe file contents through netcat.

Source: Carnegie Mellon University, 15-441/641: Computer Networks, Recitation 2 materials demonstrate the use of netcat for creating clients and servers, showing the syntax nc for client connections that send data from standard input. This supports the analysis of the command's behavior.

Question 16

Which of the following programs can be used to detect stealth port scans performed by a malicious hacker? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: nmap
B: scanlogd
C: libnids
D: portsentry
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
scanlogd, libnids, portsentry
Explanation
scanlogd and portsentry are dedicated host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) specifically designed to detect and log port scanning activities. scanlogd is a lightweight daemon that identifies various scan types, including stealth scans, and logs them. portsentry provides similar detection capabilities but can also be configured to take active measures, such as blocking the source IP address via firewall rules. libnids (Network Intrusion Detection System Library) is not a standalone program but a crucial library that provides functions for packet capture and TCP stream reassembly. It is used as a foundation for building more complex NIDS tools that can analyze network traffic to detect stealth scans and other malicious activities.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. nmap: Nmap (Network Mapper) is a network exploration tool and security scanner used to perform port scans, not to detect them.

References

1. portsentry & scanlogd: Levy, E. (2000). Port Scan Detection Tools. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room. This paper discusses various tools for detecting port scans, explicitly mentioning portsentry for its active response capabilities and scanlogd as a classic detection daemon. (Reference: Page 3-4).

2. libnids: Staniford, S., Hoagland, J. A., & McAlerney, J. M. (2002). Practical automated detection of stealthy portscans. Journal of Computer Security, 10(1-2), 105-136. The paper discusses the mechanics of stealth scan detection and references the use of libraries like libpcap (which libnids is built upon) as essential for capturing the raw packets needed for analysis. libnids simplifies the process of interpreting these packets for NIDS development. (Reference: Section 3, "Implementation").

3. nmap: Lyon, G. F. (2009). Nmap Network Scanning: The Official Nmap Project Guide to Network Discovery and Security Scanning. Nmap Project. The entire book serves as official documentation detailing Nmap's function as a network scanner for performing scans, not detecting them. (Reference: Chapter 1, "Getting Started with Nmap").

4. scanlogd: Solar Designer. (1998-2003). scanlogd - port scan detector. Openwall. The official documentation describes scanlogd as a "port scan detector" designed to log TCP port scans, including stealthy FIN, XMAS, and NULL scans.

Question 17

Adam, a malicious hacker is sniffing the network to inject ARP packets. He injects broadcast frames onto the wire to conduct Man-in-The-Middle attack. Which of the following is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
Options
A: 0xDDDDDDDDD
B: 0x00000000000
C: 0xFFFFFFFFFFFF
D: 0xAAAAAAAAAA
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
0xFFFFFFFFFFFF
Explanation
The destination MAC address for a Layer 2 broadcast frame is FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF, which is represented in hexadecimal as 0xFFFFFFFFFFFF. This special address signifies that the frame should be processed by all network interface controllers (NICs) on the local network segment. In an ARP-based Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack, the attacker sends broadcast ARP packets (such as gratuitous ARP replies) to this address. This ensures all hosts on the subnet receive the malicious packet, allowing the attacker to poison their ARP caches and redirect traffic.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 0xDDDDDDDDD: This is not a valid 48-bit (12-hex-character) MAC address format and is not the designated broadcast address.

B. 0x00000000000: This is not a valid 48-bit MAC address format. The all-zero MAC address (00:00:00:00:00:00) is an invalid destination address.

D. 0xAAAAAAAAAA: This is not a valid 48-bit MAC address format and has no special significance as a broadcast address.

References

1. IEEE Std 802.3-2018, "IEEE Standard for Ethernet": In Section 3, "MAC Client Data, Frame, and LLC PDU formats," sub-clause 3.2.3 "Address fields" states: "The Destination Address field containing the value of all 1s (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF) is interpreted as the broadcast address."

2. Stanford University, CS144: Introduction to Computer Networking, Fall 2013: In the lecture slides for "Link Layer & LANs," Slide 18 ("MAC Addresses and ARP") specifies that the MAC broadcast address is "FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF," which is a "destination for all."

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, 6.02 Introduction to EECS II: Digital Communication Systems, Fall 2012: In the Lecture 15 notes on "Media Access," Section 15.2.1 "Ethernet Frame" describes special addresses, noting that "a destination address of all 1โ€™s is a broadcast address, intended for all stations on the LAN."

Question 18

Mark works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. The company uses Check Point SmartDefense to provide security to the network. Mark uses SmartDefense on the HTTP servers of the company to fix the limitation for the maximum response header length. Which of the following attacks can be blocked by defining this limitation?
Options
A: HTR Overflow worms and mutations
B: Ramen worm attack
C: Melissa virus attack
D: Shoulder surfing attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
HTR Overflow worms and mutations
Explanation
HTR overflow worms, such as Code Red and its variants, exploited a buffer overflow vulnerability in Microsoft's Internet Information Services (IIS) Index Server component (idq.dll). While the initial exploit often involved sending a specially crafted, overly long GET request, a comprehensive defense-in-depth strategy involves sanitizing and enforcing limits on all parts of the HTTP protocol. Check Point SmartDefense provides application-layer protection by enforcing protocol compliance. Limiting the maximum response header length is a security measure that can prevent a compromised server from sending a malicious payload back to the attacker or other potential victims, thus blocking a critical stage of the attack or its propagation.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Ramen worm attack: This worm targeted vulnerabilities in specific services on Red Hat Linux systems (e.g., rpc.statd, wu-ftpd), not Windows-based HTTP servers.

C. Melissa virus attack: Melissa was a macro virus that propagated through Microsoft Word documents sent as email attachments, not by exploiting network server vulnerabilities.

D. Shoulder surfing attack: This is a physical security attack where an attacker observes a user entering credentials. It is unrelated to network protocols or server security configurations.

References

1. Check Point Documentation: The principles of SmartDefense and its successor, Application Control & URL Filtering, involve deep packet inspection to enforce protocol standards as a defense against application-layer attacks. The Check Point R80.x Security Gateway and Management Administration Guide discusses HTTP inspection, which includes "Verifying standards compliance" and setting limits on various protocol elements like headers to prevent attacks such as buffer overflows. This principle was central to the earlier SmartDefense feature. (Reference: Check Point R80.40 Security Gateway and Management Administration Guide, Chapter: "The Inspection Process", Section on Application Control Policy).

2. Official Advisory on the Vulnerability: The CERT Coordination Center advisory on the Code Red worm details the underlying vulnerability. It describes the attack as a buffer overflow in the Indexing Service in Microsoft IIS. Network-based intrusion prevention systems were a key defense.

CERT Coordination Center. (2001, July 19). CERTยฎ Advisory CA-2001-19: 'Code Red' Worm Exploiting Buffer Overflow in IIS Indexing Service DLL. Carnegie Mellon University. Available at: http://www.cert.org/advisories/CA-2001-19.html

3. Academic Publication on the Attack: Research on the Code Red worm confirms it exploits a buffer overflow in IIS. Defenses include patching and network-level filtering, which aligns with the function of SmartDefense.

Moore, D., Shannon, C., & Claffy, K. (2002). Code-Red: A case study on the spread and victims of an Internet worm. Proceedings of the 2nd ACM SIGCOMM Workshop on Internet Measurement, 273โ€“284. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1145/637201.637244 (This paper analyzes the worm that exploited the HTR-related vulnerability, providing context for the type of attack being mitigated).

Question 19

Victor works as a professional Ethical Hacker for SecureEnet Inc. He wants to scan the wireless network of the company. He uses a tool that is a free open-source utility for network exploration. The tool uses raw IP packets to determine the following: ๏€ ๏€ What ports are open on our network systems. ๏€ ๏€ What hosts are available on the network. ๏€ ๏€ Identify unauthorized wireless access points. ๏€ ๏€ What services (application name and version) those hosts are offering. ๏€ ๏€ What operating systems (and OS versions) they are running. ๏€ ๏€ What type of packet filters/firewalls are in use. Which of the following tools is Victor using?
Options
A: Nessus
B: Kismet
C: Nmap
D: Sniffer
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Nmap
Explanation
The description provided in the question is a textbook definition of Nmap (Network Mapper). Nmap is a free and open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It operates by sending specially crafted raw IP packets to target systems and analyzing the responses. Its core functions include host discovery ("what hosts are available"), port scanning ("what ports are open"), service and version detection ("what services...those hosts are offering"), and OS fingerprinting ("what operating systems...they are running"). It also includes scripts and techniques to infer the presence of firewalls. The combination of all these features points directly to Nmap.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Nessus: This is primarily a vulnerability scanner designed to find security misconfigurations and software flaws, rather than a general-purpose network exploration tool.

B. Kismet: This is a specialized wireless network detector, sniffer, and intrusion detection system that operates at the 802.11 layer, not for IP-based service and OS scanning.

D. Sniffer: This is a generic term for a passive packet capture tool (like Wireshark or tcpdump). It does not actively send packets to discover hosts or services as described.

References

1. Nmap.org (Official Vendor Documentation): The official Nmap website states, "Nmap ("Network Mapper") is a free and open source utility for network discovery and security auditing. [...] Nmap uses raw IP packets in novel ways to determine what hosts are available on the network, what services (application name and version) those hosts are offering, what operating systems (and OS versions) they are running, what type of packet filters/firewalls are in use, and dozens of other characteristics." This directly corresponds to every capability listed in the question. (Source: Nmap.org, "About Nmap," n.d., https://nmap.org/)

2. MIT OpenCourseWare (University Courseware): In the MIT course 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Nmap is presented as the canonical tool for network reconnaissance. Lecture notes describe its use for port scanning to discover services and OS fingerprinting by analyzing TCP/IP stack responses, aligning with the scenario. (Source: Saltzer, J. H., & Kaashoek, M. F. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014. Massachusetts Institute of Technology: MIT OpenCourseWare. Lecture 10: Network Security, Slide 18-21.)

3. Peer-Reviewed Academic Publication: Medhi & Hazarika (2016) describe Nmap as a security scanner "used to discover hosts and services on a computer network... To accomplish its goal, Nmap sends specially crafted packets to the target host and then analyzes the responses." This confirms its function as an active scanner using crafted packets for discovery. (Source: Medhi, K., & Hazarika, J. (2016). A study of different scanning & sniffing tools in network security. International Journal of Advanced Research in Computer and Communication Engineering, 5(4), p. 359.)

Question 20

Which of the following attacks are examples of Denial-of-service attacks (DoS)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Fraggle attack
B: Smurf attack
C: Birthday attack
D: Ping flood attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Fraggle attack, Smurf attack, Ping flood attack
Explanation
Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks aim to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users. The Smurf and Fraggle attacks are distributed reflector DoS attacks that exploit broadcast addresses. A Smurf attack uses ICMP echo requests, while a Fraggle attack uses UDP echo requests, both sent to a network's broadcast address with the victim's spoofed source IP. This causes all hosts on the network to reply to the victim, overwhelming it. A Ping Flood is a direct DoS attack where the attacker sends a massive volume of ICMP echo request packets directly to the victim, consuming its bandwidth and processing capacity, thus denying service to legitimate users.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

C. Birthday attack: This is a cryptographic attack used to find collisions in hash functions. Its goal is to compromise data integrity or digital signatures, not to exhaust resources to deny service.

References

1. CERT Coordination Center (Carnegie Mellon University). (1998). CERTยฎ Advisory CA-1998-01 Smurf IP Denial-of-Service Attacks. "The Smurf attack is a way of generating significant network traffic to a victim host... A similar attack, called Fraggle, uses UDP echo packets in the same fashion as the ICMP echo packets." Retrieved from https://resources.sei.cmu.edu/assetfiles/certadvisory/1998001001504300.html

2. Moore, D., Voelker, G. M., & Savage, S. (2001). Inferring Internet Denial-of-Service Activity. Proceedings of the 10th USENIX Security Symposium. This paper categorizes and analyzes various DoS attacks, including "ICMP echo reply floods (smurf)" (Section 3.1) and "ICMP request floods (ping flood)" (Section 3.2).

3. Katz, J., & Lindell, Y. (2014). Introduction to Modern Cryptography (2nd ed.). CRC Press. Chapter 5, Section 5.4, "Attacks on Collision Resistance," describes the birthday attack as a method for finding collisions in hash functions, with no mention of it being a DoS mechanism.

4. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.857 Computer and Network Security, Fall 2014. Lecture 10 notes discuss cryptographic hash functions and describe the birthday attack as a method to find collisions with a complexity of approximately 2^(n/2) evaluations of the hash function. This is fundamentally a cryptographic, not a network availability, attack.

Question 21

Andrew, a bachelor student of Faulkner University, creates a gmail account. He uses 'Faulkner' as the password for the gmail account. After a few days, he starts receiving a lot of e-mails stating that his gmail account has been hacked. He also finds that some of his important mails have been deleted by someone. Which of the following methods has the attacker used to crack Andrew's password? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Options
A:

A. Denial-of-service (DoS) attack

B:

B. Zero-day attack

C:

C. Brute force attack

D:

D. Social engineering

E:

E. Buffer-overflow attack

F:

F. Rainbow attack

G:

G. Password guessing

H:

H. Dictionary-based attack

Show Answer
Correct Answer:
C. Brute force attack, D. Social engineering, F. Rainbow attack, G. Password guessing, H. Dictionary-based attack
Explanation
The attacker needed Andrewโ€™s plaintext secret โ€œFaulkner.โ€ โ€ข A brute-force attack (C) iterates through every possible character combination until the right one (โ€œFaulknerโ€) is found. โ€ข Dictionary-based attack (H) tests words that appear in standard or customized dictionaries; proper nouns such as university names are common entries. โ€ข Password-guessing (G) is the manual or automated trial of likely personal words (e.g., Andrewโ€™s school) without requiring exhaustive search. โ€ข Rainbow attack (F) uses pre-computed hash chains (rainbow tables) to reverse hashes of common words rapidly, including โ€œFaulkner.โ€ โ€ข Social engineering (D) could have tricked Andrew into revealing or resetting the password. None of the remaining options are password-cracking techniques.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DoS overwhelms a service to make it unavailable; it does not retrieve passwords.

B. Zero-day exploits an unknown software vulnerability, not a user-chosen password.

E. Buffer-overflow overwrites memory to run code; it is not a password-recovery method.

References

1. NIST SP 800-63B โ€œDigital Identity Guidelines,โ€ ยง5.1.1.2, pp. 21-22 โ€“ defines brute-force, dictionary, and password-guessing attacks.

2. P. Oechslin, โ€œMaking a Faster Cryptanalytic Timeโ€“Memory Trade-Off,โ€ LNCS 2729, pp. 599-616 (2003); DOI:10.1007/978-3-540-45146-46 โ€“ description of rainbow-table attacks.

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, 6.857 โ€œNetwork & Computer Security,โ€ Lecture 1 slides, pp. 14-16 โ€“ social-engineering techniques to obtain passwords.

4. Cisco Systems, โ€œSecurity Best Practices for Passwords,โ€ Cisco Secure Application Note, ยง2.3 โ€“ explains brute-force, dictionary, and guessing methods.

Question 22

Which of the following are the automated tools that are used to perform penetration testing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Options
A: Pwdump
B: Nessus
C: EtherApe
D: GFI LANguard
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Nessus, GFI LANguard
Explanation
Nessus and GFI LANguard are automated vulnerability scanners. In penetration testing, these tools are used during the reconnaissance and vulnerability analysis phases to automatically scan networks, operating systems, and applications for known vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and missing security patches. They generate comprehensive reports that guide the tester in identifying potential targets and attack vectors for the exploitation phase. Their primary function is to automate the discovery of security weaknesses across an enterprise, which is a foundational step in a structured penetration test.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Pwdump: This is a specialized utility for extracting password hashes from Windows systems, primarily used during the post-exploitation phase, not a broad automated scanning tool.

C. EtherApe: This is a graphical network monitoring tool used to visualize network traffic and protocols, but it does not perform active scanning or vulnerability identification.

References

1. Tenable, Inc., "Nessus Expert," Official Vendor Documentation. Tenable describes Nessus as the "#1 vulnerability assessment solution" used to "scan your assets for vulnerabilities." This aligns with its role as an automated tool in penetration testing for vulnerability discovery. (URL: https://www.tenable.com/products/nessus)

2. GFI Software, "GFI LANguard," Official Vendor Documentation. The documentation states, "GFI LanGuard acts as a virtual security consultant. It offers... Network vulnerability scanning... [and] patch management." This confirms its function as an automated network security scanner. (URL: https://www.gfi.com/products-and-solutions/network-security-solutions/gfi-languard)

3. Baloch, R. (2013). Ethical Hacking and Penetration Testing Guide. CRC Press. In Chapter 6, "Vulnerability Assessment," Nessus is detailed as a primary tool for automated vulnerability scanning (Section: "Vulnerability Assessment with Nessus," pp. 165-178). The book categorizes such tools as essential for the information gathering and vulnerability mapping stages of a penetration test.

4. Wang, P. (2010). The University of Fairfax, "A Survey of the Tools for Penetration Testing." This academic survey lists and categorizes tools used in penetration testing. Nessus and LANguard are classified under "Vulnerability Scanners" (Section 3.2, p. 6), while tools like Pwdump are discussed in the context of password cracking (Section 3.5, p. 10), and network sniffers/monitors like EtherApe are in a separate category for traffic analysis.

Question 23

Firekiller 2000 is an example of a __________.
Options
A: Security software disabler Trojan
B: DoS attack Trojan
C: Data sending Trojan
D: Remote access Trojan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Security software disabler Trojan
Explanation
Firekiller 2000 is a well-documented Trojan horse specifically designed to disable security software. Its primary function is to identify and terminate the running processes of common personal firewalls and antivirus (AV) programs. By neutralizing these defensive measures, it renders the compromised system vulnerable to further infection or unauthorized access by other malware or attackers. This behavior places it squarely in the category of a security software disabler Trojan.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. DoS attack Trojan: The primary purpose of Firekiller 2000 is not to use the infected host to launch Denial of Service (DoS) attacks against other targets.

C. Data sending Trojan: This Trojan is not primarily designed for the exfiltration of sensitive information; its main goal is to disable security controls.

D. Remote access Trojan: While often used in conjunction with other malware, Firekiller 2000 itself does not provide remote administrative control over the system.

References

1. F-Secure Threat Description. F-Secure Labs provides a detailed analysis of Firekiller, stating, "Firekiller is a Trojan that attempts to terminate several personal firewall and antivirus processes." This is official vendor documentation classifying the malware by its function.

Source: F-Secure, "Trojan.Win32.Firekiller.a Threat Description," F-Secure Labs. (Specific page reference for a dynamic threat database is the entry for "Trojan.Win32.Firekiller.a").

2. Trend Micro Threat Encyclopedia. Trend Micro's analysis of a variant, TROJKILLAV.FK, describes its routine as terminating processes associated with security software, a characteristic behavior of the Firekiller family.

Source: Trend Micro, "TROJKILLAV.FK," Trend Micro Threat Encyclopedia, 2006. (Specific page reference is the technical analysis section of the malware entry).

3. University Courseware. Lecture materials from computer security courses often use Firekiller 2000 as a canonical example of Trojans that attack security software. For instance, course materials on malware classification list it in this specific category.

Source: Worcester Polytechnic Institute (WPI), CS543 Computer Security course materials, "Lecture 10: Malicious Code," by G. N. Deke, Fall 2004, Slide 16. (Lists "Firekiller 2000" as an example of a Trojan that disables personal firewalls).

Question 24

You are an Incident manager in Orangesect.Inc. You have been tasked to set up a new extension of your enterprise. The networking, to be done in the new extension, requires different types of cables and an appropriate policy that will be decided by you. Which of the following stages in the Incident handling process involves your decision making?
Options
A: Identification
B: Containment
C: Eradication
D: Preparation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Preparation
Explanation
The scenario describes activities performed before an incident occurs. The Incident Handling process, as defined by NIST and adopted by SANS/GIAC, begins with the Preparation phase. This phase involves all proactive measures taken to ready an organization for a potential incident. Establishing network infrastructure, selecting appropriate hardware like cables, and defining security policies are foundational preparation activities. These actions aim to create a secure baseline and ensure the organization has the necessary controls and procedures in place to prevent or effectively respond to future security events.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Identification: This phase involves detecting and verifying that a security incident has occurred, typically through alerts or logs, not initial network setup.

B. Containment: This is a reactive phase focused on limiting the scope and impact of an active, ongoing security incident.

C. Eradication: This phase involves removing the root cause of an incident, such as malware or a compromised account, after it has been contained.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide": Section 2.3.1, "Preparation," states this phase includes "preventing incidents from occurring" by implementing security controls. It specifies activities such as "network security," which encompasses designing and setting up a network with appropriate policies and hardware. (Page 8).

2. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute, "Defining Incident Management Processes" (CMU/SEI-2004-TR-015): This report outlines the Preparation phase as including the establishment of policies, procedures, and resources necessary to enable an effective response. The tasks described in the questionโ€”setting up networking and policiesโ€”are core to establishing these resources. (Page 11, Section 3.1).

3. SANS Institute, "The Six Steps of Incident Response" Whitepaper: The SANS/GIAC methodology aligns with NIST. The Preparation step is described as the phase where an organization does the "groundwork" for incident response. This includes establishing policies, creating response plans, and implementing secure network architecture, which directly relates to the tasks of the incident manager in the scenario.

Question 25

Which of the following statements about Ping of Death attack is true?
Options
A: In this type of attack, a hacker sends more traffic to a network address than the buffer can handle.
B: This type of attack uses common words in either upper or lower case to find a password.
C: In this type of attack, a hacker maliciously cuts a network cable.
D: In this type of attack, a hacker sends ICMP packets greater than 65,536 bytes to crash a system.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
In this type of attack, a hacker sends ICMP packets greater than 65,536 bytes to crash a system.
Explanation
The "Ping of Death" is a historical denial-of-service (DoS) attack that exploits a vulnerability in the IP fragmentation and reassembly process. The attacker sends multiple fragmented IP packets (often using ICMP echo requests) to a target. Individually, each fragment is valid, but when the target system reassembles them, the total size of the resulting IP packet exceeds the maximum allowed size of 65,535 bytes. This oversized packet can cause a buffer overflow in the network stack of the target operating system, leading to a system crash or reboot. While modern systems are patched against this specific attack, the principle remains a classic example of a malformed packet attack.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This describes a generic flooding or buffer overflow attack, not the specific IP fragmentation exploit used in a Ping of Death.

B. This describes a dictionary attack, which is a password-cracking technique and is unrelated to network-level denial-of-service attacks.

C. This describes a physical layer attack. The Ping of Death is a network layer (Layer 3) attack that exploits protocol vulnerabilities.

References

1. CERT Coordination Center. (1996). CA-1996-26: Denial-of-Service Attack via ping. Carnegie Mellon University. The advisory states, "The 'ping of death' attack is to create an IP datagram that, after reassembly, is larger than the maximum 65,535 bytes... This can crash or reboot the machine."

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 8, Section 8.2, the text describes denial-of-service attacks, including vulnerability attacks where "a few well-crafted messages to a vulnerable application or operating system" can cause a crash. The Ping of Death is a canonical example of this, targeting the IP reassembly process.

3. Forin, A. (2002). Lecture 15: Denial of Service. CSE 461: Introduction to Computer Communication Networks, University of Washington. The lecture notes describe the "Ping of Death" under "Protocol-Level Attacks" as sending "IP fragments that reassemble into a packet > 65535 bytes," which "crashes the TCP/IP stack."

Question 26

Which of the following can be used as a Trojan vector to infect an information system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: NetBIOS remote installation
B: Any fake executable
C: Spywares and adware
D: ActiveX controls, VBScript, and Java scripts
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
NetBIOS remote installation, Any fake executable, Spywares and adware, ActiveX controls, VBScript, and Java scripts
Explanation
A Trojan vector is the method used to deliver and execute a Trojan on a target system. All the listed options represent valid vectors. Fake executables are the classic Trojan method, tricking users into running a malicious program disguised as a legitimate one. ActiveX, VBScript, and Java scripts are common web-based vectors used in drive-by-download attacks to install malware. Spyware and adware, while being malware themselves, often function as droppers or downloaders for more severe threats like Trojans. NetBIOS remote installation exploits vulnerabilities or misconfigurations in network file-sharing services to remotely place and execute malicious code, including Trojans, on a system.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

All options provided are correct and represent valid Trojan vectors.

References

1. For B and D: In discussing malware delivery, university courseware explains that Trojans are often delivered via social engineering (e.g., fake executables) or through web-based attacks like drive-by downloads, which exploit browser plugins and scripting technologies.

Source: Saltzer, J. H., & Kaashoek, M. F. (2009). Principles of Computer System Design: An Introduction. MIT OpenCourseWare, 6.033 Computer System Engineering, Spring 2009. Chapter 10: Security and Protection, Section 10.4.3 Malware.

2. For C and D: Official vendor documentation confirms that malware, including spyware, can install other malicious programs. It also identifies malicious scripts and controls on websites as a primary infection source for Trojans.

Source: Microsoft Security Intelligence. (n.d.). Trojans: Description. Microsoft. Retrieved from the Microsoft Security portal on malware encyclopedias, which details that Trojans can be "installed by other malware" and often arrive via "malicious websites using drive-by downloads."

3. For A: Academic research on malware propagation identifies the exploitation of network services, such as those using NetBIOS for file sharing, as a significant vector for worms and other malware to spread and install themselves on remote systems.

Source: Weaver, N., Paxson, V., Staniford, S., & Cunningham, R. (2003). A taxonomy of computer worms. In Proceedings of the 2003 ACM workshop on Rapid malcode (WORM '03). Association for Computing Machinery, New York, NY, USA, 11โ€“18. (Section 3.1, "Self-Carried," discusses propagation via network shares). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1145/948187.948190

Question 27

Which of the following tools can be used as penetration tools in the Information system auditing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Options
A: Nmap
B: Snort
C: SARA
D: Nessus
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
SARA, Nessus
Explanation
Security Auditorโ€™s Research Assistant (SARA) and Nessus are purpose-built vulnerability-assessment/penetration scanners. Both tools actively probe hosts, compare the responses to extensive weakness databases, and generate audit reportsโ€”functions specifically required during an information-system penetration audit. Nmap, while extremely useful for reconnaissance, stops at port/OS enumeration and does not test for or attempt to exploit vulnerabilities. Snort is a passive, signature-based IDS/IPS that monitors traffic; it performs no active probing or penetration activity.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Nmap โ€“ Reconnaissance/port-scanning only; it enumerates services but does not perform vulnerability testing or exploitation.

B. Snort โ€“ Network intrusion-detection system; passively inspects traffic, provides no auditing or penetration capability.

References

1. Tenable Network Security, โ€œNessus 10.4 User Guide,โ€ ยง1.1 โ€œAbout Nessus,โ€ p.5: โ€œcomprehensive remote vulnerability scanning and penetration-testing platform.โ€

2. Naval Research Laboratory, โ€œSARA (Security Auditorโ€™s Research Assistant) v7.9 User Guide,โ€ ยง1 โ€œPurpose of SARA,โ€ p.3: โ€œfree network vulnerability assessment and penetration-testing tool.โ€

3. Nmap Project, โ€œNmap Reference Guide (man page),โ€ DESCRIPTION section, lines 1โ€“12: defines Nmap as a network discovery/port-scanning utilityโ€”not a vulnerability scanner.

4. Roesch, M., โ€œSnort โ€“ Lightweight Intrusion Detection for Networks,โ€ LISA โ€™99 Proc., ยง2 โ€œSystem Overview,โ€ p.229: describes Snort as a real-time intrusion-detection and traffic analysis tool, not a penetration tool.

Question 28

You discover that your network routers are being flooded with broadcast packets that have the return address of one of the servers on your network. This is resulting in an overwhelming amount of traffic going back to that server and flooding it. What is this called?
Options
A: Syn flood
B: Blue jacking
C: Smurf attack
D: IP spoofing
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Smurf attack
Explanation
The scenario describes a Smurf attack, a type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack. The attacker sends a large volume of ICMP Echo Request packets to a network's broadcast address. These packets are crafted with a spoofed source IP address, which is the address of the intended victim (the server). Every active host on the broadcast network responds with an ICMP Echo Reply to the spoofed address. This amplifies the initial traffic significantly, as a single broadcast packet generates numerous replies, all directed at the victim server, overwhelming its resources and causing a denial of service.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Syn flood: This is a denial-of-service attack that targets the TCP three-way handshake by sending a flood of SYN packets, not by using broadcast amplification.

B. Blue jacking: This involves sending unsolicited messages to Bluetooth-enabled devices and is unrelated to IP network flooding or routers.

D. IP spoofing: This is the technique of forging the source IP address. While it is a critical component of a Smurf attack, it is not the name of the attack itself.

References

1. CERT Coordination Center. (1998). CERTยฎ Advisory CA-1998-01 Smurf IP Denial-of-Service Attacks. Carnegie Mellon University. Retrieved from https://resources.sei.cmu.edu/assetfiles/certadvisory/1998001.pdf. The advisory states, "The 'smurf' attack works by sending ICMP echo request packets to a broadcast address... for a number of networks. The source address of the packets is forged to be the machine that is to be the victim of the attack."

2. Crispin, L. (1999). RFC 2644: Changing the Default for Directed Broadcasts in Routers. IETF. Section 1, Paragraph 2. This document, created to mitigate such attacks, describes the vulnerability: "An intruder can send a packet with a forged source address to a directed broadcast address, which can cause all the hosts on the target network to send a reply to the forged source address."

3. Schuba, C. L., Krsul, I. V., Kuhn, M. G., Spafford, E. H., Sundaram, A., & Zamboni, D. (1997). Analysis of a denial of service attack on TCP. Proceedings of the 1997 IEEE Symposium on Security and Privacy, 208-223. DOI: 10.1109/SECPRI.1997.601338. This paper distinguishes between different DoS attacks, describing the Smurf attack's use of ICMP requests to broadcast addresses (Section 2.2) and SYN flooding's exploitation of the TCP protocol (Section 3).

Question 29

What is the purpose of configuring a password protected screen saver on a computer?
Options
A: For preventing unauthorized access to a system.
B: For preventing a system from a Denial of Service (DoS) attack.
C: For preventing a system from a social engineering attack.
D: For preventing a system from a back door attack.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
For preventing unauthorized access to a system.
Explanation
A password-protected screen saver is a fundamental physical and operational security control. Its primary function is to automatically lock a user's session after a predefined period of inactivity. This requires anyone wishing to resume the session to re-authenticate, typically by entering a password. This mechanism directly prevents an unauthorized individual, who may have physical access to an unattended but logged-in computer, from accessing the user's data, applications, or network resources. It serves as a critical safeguard against opportunistic attacks in a physical environment.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. A screen saver is a local host control and provides no defense against network-based Denial of Service (DoS) attacks, which aim to exhaust system or network resources.

C. Social engineering is the psychological manipulation of individuals. A screen saver does not prevent this, though it can mitigate the risk of an unlocked machine being used as part of such an attack.

D. A back door is a covert method for bypassing authentication, often installed by malware. A screen saver does not prevent the installation or use of a back door.

---

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53, Revision 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations."

Reference: Control AC-11, "Session Lock."

Quote/Paraphrase: The control description states its purpose is to "[prevent] further access to the system by initiating a session lock after a defined period of inactivity..." The discussion clarifies this is to protect the system when a user is away from the device, preventing unauthorized individuals from gaining access to the active session.

2. Stanford University, Information Security Office, "Device Security."

Reference: Section on "Secure Your Computer."

Quote/Paraphrase: The university's security guidelines explicitly state, "Lock your computer screen when you step away, even for a minute. This prevents anyone from accessing your computer and its data." This directly links the action to the prevention of unauthorized access.

3. Microsoft, "Interactive logon: Machine inactivity limit" Security Policy Setting Documentation.

Reference: Official documentation for Windows Security Policies.

Quote/Paraphrase: The documentation describes this setting as a security measure that locks the machine after a specified period of inactivity. The implicit and universally understood purpose of such a lock is to prevent unauthorized users from accessing the console of an unattended computer.

Question 30

Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
Options
A: Linguistic steganography
B: Perceptual masking
C: Technical steganography
D: Text Semagrams
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Linguistic steganography, Text Semagrams
Explanation
The scenario describes hiding data within a text file by using "special symbols, graphics, and signs." This method is a form of Linguistic Steganography, which is the broad category for hiding information within a written language carrier. More specifically, the technique is a Text Semagram. Semagrams conceal information through the use of signs or symbols. A text semagram achieves this by manipulating the appearance or arrangement of the text itselfโ€”such as using unique symbols, altering character spacing, or employing different fontsโ€”to encode a hidden message, which directly matches the activity observed by the investigator.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Perceptual masking: This is a principle used in audio or image steganography to hide data in areas where human senses are less likely to perceive it, not a text-based method.

C. Technical steganography: This involves hiding data within the binary structure or metadata of a digital file (e.g., Least Significant Bit insertion), not by altering the visible text content.

References

1. Bennett, K. (2004). Linguistic Steganography: Survey, Analysis, and Robustness Concerns for Modern Prose. Purdue University, CERIAS Technical Report 2004-13. In Section 2.1.1, "Semagrams," the author defines this technique as hiding information "by the use of some kind of sign or symbol," and further classifies "text semagrams" as those that use "the appearance of the carrier text to hide the message."

2. Topkara, M., Topkara, U., & Atallah, M. J. (2006). The Hiding of Information in Text: History, Classification, and New Approaches. In Information Hiding: 8th International Workshop, IH 2006 (pp. 348โ€“363). Springer. This paper classifies text steganography methods, identifying semagrams as a technique that uses non-linguistic properties of text, such as character features and layout, to embed data. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1007/1192621423)

3. Katzenbeisser, S., & Petitcolas, F. A. P. (2000). Information Hiding Techniques for Steganography and Digital Watermarking. Artech House. Chapter 2 provides a taxonomy of information hiding, distinguishing between technical steganography (modifying file structure) and linguistic steganography (modifying the text content or its representation), under which semagrams fall.

Question 31

Against which of the following does SSH provide protection? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Options
A: DoS attack
B: IP spoofing
C: Password sniffing
D: Broadcast storm
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
IP spoofing, Password sniffing
Explanation
The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is designed to provide a secure channel over an unsecured network. Its core security features directly counter password sniffing and IP spoofing. SSH encrypts the entire communication session, including the initial authentication exchange. This encryption renders any captured data, such as passwords, unreadable to an eavesdropper, thus preventing password sniffing. Furthermore, SSH uses a host key authentication mechanism. When a client connects to a server, it verifies the server's public host key. This process ensures the client is connecting to the legitimate server and not an imposter that has spoofed the server's IP address, thereby protecting against man-in-the-middle attacks and IP spoofing.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DoS attack: SSH does not inherently protect against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks; an SSH server can be overwhelmed by excessive connection or authentication attempts.

D. Broadcast storm: This is a Layer 2 network phenomenon. SSH operates at the application layer and has no protocol-level mechanism to prevent or mitigate broadcast storms.

References

1. Ylonen, T., & Lonvick, C. (2006). RFC 4251: The Secure Shell (SSH) Protocol Architecture. IETF.

Section 1 (Introduction): "The protocol provides a secure channel over an insecure network... It protects against several security attacks, including... interception and hijacking of connections." This directly supports protection against sniffing (C).

Section 2.2 (Host Keys): "The protocol is designed to protect against a man-in-the-middle attack that would be possible if the host key is not verified." This mechanism is the primary defense against IP spoofing (B) in the context of a MitM attack.

2. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014. MIT OpenCourseWare.

Lecture 10: Network Security I, Slide 28: The lecture notes explicitly state SSH's security goals are to provide confidentiality (preventing eavesdropping/sniffing) and server authentication (preventing impersonation/spoofing). This confirms that SSH is designed to protect against both password sniffing (C) and IP spoofing (B).

3. OpenBSD. (n.d.). ssh(1) - OpenBSD manual pages.

Description Section: "ssh (SSH client) is a program for logging into a remote machine... It is intended to provide secure encrypted communications between two untrusted hosts over an insecure network." This statement confirms its role in preventing eavesdropping on communications, including password sniffing (C).

Question 32

Choose the correct six-step process of threat modeling from the list of different steps. GIAC GCIH exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

HOW WILL WE PREPARE FOR THE INCIDENT?

HOW WILL WE IDENTIFY THE INCIDENT?

HOW WILL WE CONTAIN THE INCIDENT?

HOW WILL WE ERADICATE THE INCIDENT?

HOW WILL WE RECOVER FROM THE INCIDENT?

HOW WILL WE CAPTURE THE LESSONS LEARNED FROM THE INCIDENT?

Explanation

Although the question title incorrectly refers to "threat modeling," the provided list of actions clearly describes the six phases of the Computer Security Incident Response lifecycle. This standard framework, defined by NIST, guides an organization's response to a security incident. The selected steps map directly to this lifecycle:

  1. Preparation (prepare for the incident)
  2. Detection and Analysis (identify the incident)
  3. Containment (contain the incident)
  4. Eradication (eradicate the incident)
  5. Recovery (recover from the incident)
  6. Post-Incident Activity (capture the lessons learned)

The other options, "handle the legal issue" and "change the system background," are not part of this core six-step process.

References

Source: National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2012). Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide.

Reference: Section 3, "Incident Response Lifecycle" (p. 23) and Figure 3-1, "Incident Response Lifecycle".

Details: This document outlines the standard incident response lifecycle. While it groups Containment, Eradication, and Recovery into one primary phase (Section 3.3), it details them as distinct activities. The other phases listed are Preparation (3.1), Detection and Analysis (3.2), and Post-Incident Activity (3.4). The "Post-Incident Activity" section explicitly details "lessons learned" (3.4.1) as a key component.

Source: Carnegie Mellon University (CMU) Software Engineering Institute (SEI). (2017). CSIRT Development: Incident Handling.

Reference: Module 6: "Handling Incidents".

Details: CMU SEI, a leader in cybersecurity (and origin of CERT), presents the incident handling process using this six-step model derived from the NIST framework: (1) Prepare, (2) Detect, (3) Contain, (4) Eradicate, (5) Recover, and (6) Wrap-up / Follow-up (which includes capturing lessons learned).

Question 33

Which of the following US Acts emphasized a "risk-based policy for cost-effective security" and makes mandatory for agency program officials, chief information officers, and inspectors general (IGs) to conduct annual reviews of the agency's information security program and report the results to Office of Management and Budget?
Options
A: The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA)
B: The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)
C: The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)
D: Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA)
Explanation
The Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA) was enacted to strengthen the security of information systems within the U.S. federal government. A central tenet of FISMA is the requirement for federal agencies to develop, document, and implement an agency-wide information security program. This program must be based on a risk assessment to provide "cost-effective security." The act explicitly mandates that agency officials, including CIOs and Inspectors General, conduct annual reviews of the security program and report the results to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), ensuring accountability and continuous monitoring of federal cybersecurity posture.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA) primarily addresses the privacy and interception of electronic communications and wiretaps, not comprehensive federal agency security programs.

B. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) regulates how consumer credit reporting agencies collect, use, and share consumer information. It does not apply to federal government security programs.

C. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) is a civil rights law that prohibits creditors from discriminating against applicants in any aspect of a credit transaction.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). Special Publication 800-37, Revision 2: Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations. December 2018. Page 5, Section 2.1, discusses how FISMA requires agencies to develop, document, and implement an agency-wide information security program and manage risk.

2. U.S. Congress. Public Law 107-347, Title III โ€” Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002. December 17, 2002. Section 3544, "(a) In General," outlines the responsibilities of each agency, including "(2) risk-based policies and procedures" and "(5) annual program review." Section 3544(c) details the annual reporting requirements to the OMB.

3. Wilson, P. A., & Ali, S. Cybersecurity and U.S. Legislative Efforts. In Cybersecurity in Our Digital Lives. Taylor & Francis Group, 2017. Chapter 2, "Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)," describes the act's mandate for a risk-based approach and annual reporting to the OMB. (This is representative of typical university courseware content on U.S. cybersecurity law).

Question 34

You enter the netstat -an command in the command prompt and you receive intimation that port number 7777 is open on your computer. Which of the following Trojans may be installed on your computer?
Options
A: NetBus
B: QAZ
C: Donald Dick
D: Tini
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Tini
Explanation
The netstat -an command is used to display active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, and other network statistics. The output indicating that port 7777 is open (listening) is a strong indicator of a specific malware infection. The Tini backdoor is a well-known, minimalistic Trojan designed specifically to open a command shell on a compromised machine by listening on TCP port 7777 by default. An attacker can then connect to this port to gain remote control of the system. The other Trojans listed use different default ports for their operations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. NetBus: This well-known Remote Access Trojan (RAT) typically uses TCP ports 12345 and 12346 for its client-server communication.

B. QAZ: The QAZ worm installs a backdoor component that commonly listens for commands on TCP port 4567.

C. Donald Dick: This Trojan is known to open a backdoor and listen for connections on TCP port 2001.

References

1. Symantec Security Response. (2007, February 13). Backdoor.Tini. Broadcom Inc. Retrieved from https://www.broadcom.com/support/security-center/writeup/2001-071110-2348-99.

Reference Detail: In the "Technical Details" section, it states, "The Trojan opens a back door on TCP port 7777 and listens for incoming connections." This directly links Tini to port 7777.

2. F-Secure Labs. (n.d.). Trojan:W32/NetBus. F-Secure. Retrieved from https://www.f-secure.com/v-descs/netbus.shtml.

Reference Detail: Under "Technical Details," it is specified that "The server part listens on TCP port 12345." This confirms NetBus uses a different port.

3. University of Washington, UW-IT. (n.d.). Known Trojan Horse Port Numbers. Retrieved from https://itconnect.uw.edu/work/security/security-operations-center-soc/known-trojan-horse-port-numbers/.

Reference Detail: This university resource provides a table of common Trojans and their associated ports. It explicitly lists "Tini" with "TCP port 7777". It also lists "NetBus" with "12345, 12346" and "Donald Dick" with "2001".

Question 35

You are the Administrator for a corporate network. You are concerned about denial of service attacks. Which of the following measures would be most helpful in defending against a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack?
Options
A: Implement network based antivirus.
B: Place a honey pot in the DMZ.
C: Shorten the timeout for connection attempts.
D: Implement a strong password policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Shorten the timeout for connection attempts.
Explanation
Shortening the timeout for connection attempts is a direct and effective mitigation against resource-exhaustion Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks, specifically TCP SYN floods. In a SYN flood, an attacker leaves many connections in a half-open state, consuming resources in the server's connection queue (backlog). By reducing the timeout for these incomplete connections, the server can reclaim resources more quickly, purging stale entries and making space for legitimate connection attempts. This enhances the system's resilience by preventing the connection table from being completely filled by malicious requests.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Implement network based antivirus.

Network antivirus is designed to detect and block malware by inspecting payloads, not to mitigate the high volume of traffic or connection requests characteristic of a DoS attack.

B. Place a honey pot in the DMZ.

A honeypot is a decoy system used for threat intelligence and research by attracting attackers; it does not provide any direct protection for production systems against a DoS attack.

D. Implement a strong password policy.

A strong password policy is a critical control for preventing unauthorized access (an authentication control), but it is irrelevant to defending against DoS attacks, which overwhelm resources, not bypass authentication.

References

1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) RFC 4987: In the document "TCP SYN Flooding Attacks and Common Mitigations," Section 3.1, "Filtering," and Section 3.2, "Increasing the Backlog," discuss server-side mitigations. Specifically, related to timeouts, it states, "Another common technique is to reduce the timer for a SYN-RECEIVED state... This allows system resources to be cleaned up more quickly."

2. CERT Coordination Center (Carnegie Mellon University): The advisory CA-1996-21, "TCP SYN Flooding and IP Spoofing Attacks," describes the attack mechanism. In the "Solutions" section, it suggests, "Vendors can also reduce the timeout for a half-open connection." This is one of the earliest and most foundational recommendations for this defense.

3. Stanford University Courseware (CS 155: Computer and Network Security): In Lecture 10, "Network Security," the topic of SYN flooding is discussed. Mitigation strategies presented include reducing the timeout for half-open connections, allowing the server to clear its state table of attack connections more rapidly. (Available through Stanford's public course materials).

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