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Free CISM Exam Questions – 2025 Updated

Prepare Smarter for CISM Exam with Our Free and Real ISACA CISM Exam Questions – 2025 Updated.

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Question 1

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?
Options
A: Preventive
B: Deterrent
C: Detective
D: Corrective
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Detective
Explanation
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is fundamentally a detective control. Its primary purpose is to collect, aggregate, correlate, and analyze log data from various sources across an organization's IT infrastructure. By analyzing this data in near real-time, a SIEM identifies security events, potential threats, policy violations, and anomalies that may indicate an incident has occurred or is in progress. It provides the visibility and alerting necessary to discover security issues, but it does not, by itself, prevent them from happening or correct them after they are found.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Preventive: A SIEM does not stop an incident from occurring. It reports on events, rather than blocking malicious actions like a firewall would.

B. Deterrent: While the knowledge of robust monitoring might discourage some attackers, a SIEM's primary function is not deterrence but detection of activities.

D. Corrective: A SIEM does not fix issues or restore systems. It provides the necessary information to trigger a corrective response, which is a separate function.

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References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management. The manual defines detective controls as those "designed to detect and report that an error, omission or malicious act has occurred." SIEM systems are consistently categorized under this function as they are a primary tool for monitoring and detecting security events. (Specific reference: Chapter 3, Section on "Security Control Types and Functions").

2. NIST Special Publication 800-92, Guide to Computer Security Log Management. Section 2.3, "Log Management Infrastructure," describes the functions of log management tools, including SIEMs. The entire process of collecting, centralizing, and analyzing logs is presented as a mechanism for identifying security incidents, which is the definition of a detective control.

3. Tounsi, W., & Rais, H. (2018). A survey on technical threat intelligence in the age of big data. Computers & Security, 72, 212-233. This peer-reviewed article discusses SIEM as a core technology for threat detection, stating, "SIEMs are used to provide a holistic view of the IT security by collecting and correlating logs from different sources to detect security threats." This aligns directly with the function of a detective control. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2017.09.001, Section 3.1).

Question 2

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?
Options
A: Incident management procedures
B: Incident management policy
C: System risk assessment
D: Organizational risk register
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Organizational risk register
Explanation
The organizational risk register is the most useful tool for determining the need for escalation because it provides a consolidated view of the key risks to the organization, ranked by their potential business impact. When an incident occurs, the information security manager can map the incident's characteristics to the risks documented in the register. If the incident triggers or corresponds to a risk with a high-impact rating (e.g., significant financial loss, reputational damage, regulatory failure), it provides a clear, business-focused justification for escalating to senior management, who are ultimately responsible for managing these enterprise-level risks.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Incident management procedures: These provide the step-by-step instructions for how to escalate, but not the strategic criteria for when to escalate based on business impact.

B. Incident management policy: This is a high-level document that mandates an incident management program and escalation but lacks the specific risk details for decision-making.

C. System risk assessment: This is too narrow in scope, as it focuses on a single system's risks, whereas a major incident may have a broader organizational impact.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Part 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section 2.9 Risk Management. The manual explains that the risk register is a tool for managing and communicating the organization's risk portfolio. Senior management uses this to understand the most significant threats to business objectives, making it the logical reference for determining if an incident's impact warrants their attention.

2. ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition. Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment. This manual details that the risk register is the primary output of the risk identification and analysis process. It states, "The risk register provides a central repository for all identified risks... It is used to support decisions on risk response," which includes escalating an active incident that actualizes a documented risk.

3. Parker, D. B. (2014). Information Security Management Handbook, 6th Edition, Volume 7. Auerbach Publications. Chapter 5, "Information Security Governance," discusses how the risk register is a key communication tool between security functions and executive management. It translates technical issues into business impact terms, which is essential for effective escalation and executive decision-making. (This is a widely used academic and professional text in the field).

Question 3

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or
Options
A: Security budget
B: Risk register
C: Risk score
D: Laws and regulations
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Laws and regulations
Explanation
An organization's risk appetite is the amount and type of risk it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This is a high-level, strategic decision. Laws and regulations are external, mandatory requirements that establish a baseline for acceptable risk. They are non-negotiable and define the minimum level of control and compliance an organization must achieve. Therefore, these legal and regulatory constraints are a primary and foundational input for senior management when determining the organization's risk appetite, as no organization can have an appetite for risks that would lead to noncompliance.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Security budget: The budget is an outcome or a constraint of the security strategy and risk appetite, not a primary input for defining it.

B. Risk register: This is a tactical document used to manage identified risks in alignment with the already established risk appetite, not to determine it.

C. Risk score: A risk score is a metric for a specific risk, used for prioritization and treatment decisions after the risk appetite has been set.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.2.3, "Legal and Regulatory Requirements." The manual emphasizes that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are key drivers for the information security strategy. The strategy, which includes defining risk appetite, must ensure compliance, making these requirements a fundamental input.

2. NIST Special Publication 800-39, "Managing Information Security Risk: Organization, Mission, and Information System View." Section 2.2, "Risk Framing," page 13. This section lists "laws, directives, regulations, policies, standards, and guidelines" as essential inputs for establishing the risk context and framing risk, which includes determining risk appetite and tolerance.

3. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. APO12 "Manage Risk," page 121. The framework lists "External compliance requirements" as a key input for the process of defining and maintaining a risk profile, which includes establishing the organization's risk appetite.

Question 4

An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack Which of the following should be the information security?
Options
A: Wipe the affected system.
B: Notify internal legal counsel.
C: Notify senior management.
D: Isolate the impacted endpoints.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Isolate the impacted endpoints.
Explanation
The immediate and most critical priority for the information security team following the detection of a ransomware infection is containment. Isolating the impacted endpoints from the network is the primary containment strategy. This action prevents the ransomware from propagating to other systems, servers, or network shares, thereby limiting the scope and overall impact of the attack. This aligns with standard incident response frameworks, where containment is the first step taken after detection and initial analysis to prevent the situation from escalating. All other actions, while important, are secondary to stopping the ongoing damage.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Wipe the affected system. This is a premature eradication step that would destroy valuable forensic evidence needed for investigation and should only occur after containment.

B. Notify internal legal counsel. While a necessary step in the incident response process, immediate technical containment to prevent further spread takes precedence over notification.

C. Notify senior management. Communication with leadership is crucial for awareness and resource allocation, but it follows the initial technical action of containing the threat.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Section 3.3, "Containment, Eradication, & Recovery," states, "Containment is the first step in this phase... Containment is important before an incident overwhelms resources or increases damage." The document lists disconnecting the affected host from the network as a primary containment strategy (p. 23).

2. Cichonski, P., Millar, T., Grance, T., & Scarfone, K. (2012). NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. National Institute of Standards and Technology. This is the full citation for the above reference, which is a foundational document for the principles tested in the CISM exam.

3. Tounsi, W., & Frikha, H. (2018). "A new taxonomy for security incident response plan." Computers & Security, 74, 169-191. This academic paper reviews various incident response models, consistently identifying "Containment" as the immediate phase following "Detection and Analysis" to limit the extent of an incident. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2017.12.007)

Question 5

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Options
A: Initiate incident response.
B: Review vulnerability assessment.
C: Conduct a security audit.
D: Isolate the system.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Initiate incident response.
Explanation
The BEST course of action after an attack is to initiate the formal incident response (IR) process. This is a structured and comprehensive approach that ensures all necessary actions are taken in a coordinated and effective manner. The IR plan will guide the team through critical phases, including identification, analysis, containment (which may include isolating the system), eradication, and recovery. Simply isolating the system (Option D) without invoking the full IR process could lead to the loss of volatile evidence, alert the attacker, or fail to address the full scope of the compromise. The IR process provides the overarching framework for all tactical decisions.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Review vulnerability assessment: This is a proactive measure to identify weaknesses or a post-incident activity for lessons learned, not the immediate action during an attack.

C. Conduct a security audit: An audit is a formal, systematic review of controls and compliance, which is inappropriate as an immediate response to an active incident.

D. Isolate the system: While system isolation is a critical containment strategy, it is a component of the overall incident response process, not the best first step. The IR plan dictates when and how to isolate.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Section 3.2, "Incident Response Lifecycle," outlines the major phases of incident response. The discovery of an attack triggers the "Detection & Analysis" phase, which is the formal start of the response process. This process then guides subsequent actions, including "Containment, Eradication, & Recovery" (Section 3.3), where actions like isolating a system are considered as part of a broader strategy.

2. Tรธndel, I. A., Line, M. B., & Gjรธsรฆter, T. (2012). Towards a structured cyber security incident response process. This paper emphasizes the importance of a structured, pre-planned process over ad-hoc actions. It states, "A structured process for incident response is important to ensure that incidents are handled efficiently and that all necessary steps are taken." Initiating the formal process (A) aligns with this principle, whereas taking a single tactical step (D) would be an ad-hoc action. (Available via SINTEF academic archive and other academic databases).

3. University of California, Berkeley, Information Security Office Documentation. In their "Incident Response Plan," the first step after detection and reporting is "Triage & Analysis," which involves activating the incident response team and beginning a coordinated investigation. This aligns with "Initiate incident response" as the primary, overarching action. The plan specifies that containment strategies (like isolation) are determined during this coordinated response.

Question 6

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?
Options
A: Statistical reports will be incorrect.
B: The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.
C: Escalation procedures will be ineffective.
D: Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Escalation procedures will be ineffective.
Explanation
Incident severity criteria are fundamental to a structured incident response framework. They provide the basis for prioritizing incidents, allocating appropriate resources, and determining the required level of management notification. Without clear severity criteria, there is no objective way to differentiate a minor event from a major crisis. This ambiguity renders escalation procedures ineffective, as the triggers for escalating to senior technical staff, management, or legal teams are absent. Consequently, critical incidents may not receive the timely attention they require, while minor incidents might be unnecessarily escalated, leading to inefficient use of resources.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. While statistical reports will lack crucial context and be less meaningful without severity data, this is a secondary consequence compared to the immediate failure of the response process.

B. Overall service desk staffing is primarily based on incident volume, not severity. While severity affects the allocation of specialized skills, it is not the main driver for total staff numbers.

D. Detection is the process of identifying a potential security event. Classification and severity assignment occur after an event has been detected; therefore, a lack of criteria does not make detection impossible.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management. Section 4.3, "Incident Response Plan," emphasizes that an incident response plan must include procedures for classifying incidents. This classification is what drives the appropriate response, including prioritization and escalation, ensuring that incidents are handled by the correct personnel in a timely manner. The absence of severity criteria directly undermines this core function.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." Section 2.3.2, "Incident Categorization," states, "Incidents should be categorized... This is important for prioritization; for example, a worm that is spreading rapidly and causing a denial of service should be handled before a minor malware incident on a single host." This prioritization is the direct input for escalation procedures.

3. Von Solms, R., & van Niekerk, J. (2013). From information security to cyber security. Computers & Security, 38, 97-102. This academic publication discusses the evolution of information security management. It implicitly supports the need for structured response mechanisms, where classification and severity assessment are critical for triggering appropriate actions, including escalation, to manage cyber threats effectively. (https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2013.04.004)

Question 7

In a call center, the BEST reason to conduct a social engineering is to:
Options
A: Identify candidates for additional security training.
B: minimize the likelihood of successful attacks.
C: gain funding for information security initiatives.
D: improve password policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Identify candidates for additional security training.
Explanation
The primary and most direct purpose of conducting a social engineering test is to assess the effectiveness of security awareness and identify human vulnerabilities within an organization. The results of such a test provide empirical data on which employees are susceptible to manipulation. This data is then used to identify individuals or groups who require remedial or enhanced security awareness training. By targeting training resources at the most vulnerable points, an organization can most efficiently improve its human security posture. The test serves as a diagnostic tool to prescribe the necessary corrective action, which is training.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This is the broader, strategic objective of the entire information security program, not the specific, immediate reason for conducting one particular test.

C. While poor test results can be used to justify budget requests, the primary purpose of the test is to improve security, not to secure funding.

D. A social engineering test assesses user behavior and compliance with policies, but it is not the primary tool for creating or improving the policy document itself.

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References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Task Statement B2.3: "Establish and maintain information security awareness and training programs to promote a secure environment and an effective security culture." The manual explains that testing methods, such as phishing simulations (a form of social engineering), are used to measure the effectiveness of awareness programs and identify areas needing improvement, which directly translates to identifying candidates for further training.

2. Mouton, F., Leenen, L., & Venter, H. S. (2016). Social engineering attack detection model: A literature review. Computers & Security, 59, 1-18. In Section 4, "Mitigation of SE Attacks," the paper emphasizes that user education and awareness programs are a primary defense. It states, "The aim of an awareness program is to influence the behaviour of users... Testing and measuring the effectiveness of the program is essential." This supports the concept that testing is done to find behavioral flaws that need to be corrected through training. (https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2016.02.005)

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53, Revision 5. (2020). Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations. Control: AT-2, "Security Awareness Training." The discussion section for this control notes that organizations can "employ assessments (e.g., social engineering exercises to test the awareness of users) to determine the effectiveness of security awareness training." This explicitly links social engineering exercises to assessing training effectiveness and, by extension, identifying where more training is needed.

Question 8

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:
Options
A: review the security of the application before implementation.
B: integrate functionality the development stage.
C: perform a vulnerability analysis.
D: periodically audit the security of the application.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
integrate functionality the development stage.
Explanation
The most effective and cost-efficient approach to ensure a new application complies with security policy is to integrate security requirements and controls during the development stage. This principle, often referred to as "Security by Design" or "Shifting Left," ensures that compliance is a fundamental component of the application rather than an afterthought. Addressing security early in the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is significantly less expensive and disruptive than discovering and remediating policy violations or vulnerabilities just before or after implementation. This proactive method builds a more resilient and inherently compliant application from the ground up.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Reviewing before implementation is a detective control that occurs too late in the lifecycle; fixing fundamental design flaws at this stage is costly and can cause significant project delays.

C. Performing a vulnerability analysis is a specific technical assessment, not a comprehensive approach to ensure alignment with all aspects of an information security policy, which includes more than just technical flaws.

D. Periodically auditing the application is a post-implementation activity. It is essential for ongoing assurance but is reactive and does not ensure initial compliance is built in from the start.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Chapter 3, Information Security Program Development and Management, p. 168. The manual states, "Security should be an integral part of every stage of the SDLC... The cost of correcting a security flaw or adding a security feature increases exponentially the later it is found in the SDLC." This supports integrating security during development (Option B) as the most cost-effective and best approach.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-218, Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) Version 1.1, February 3, 2022. Practice PW.1: "Design Software to Meet Security Requirements and Mitigate Security Risks." This practice emphasizes that "security requirements should be taken into account during software design, and the design should be reviewed and approved before development begins." This directly supports building security in during the earliest feasible stages, which includes development.

3. Mougouei, D., Sani, N. F. M., & Al-Fahim, N. H. (2017). A review of security by design in the software development lifecycle. International Journal of Applied Engineering Research, 12(17), 6466-6472. This academic review reinforces the concept, stating, "Security by design is a new approach that recommends security decisions to be incorporated in the early stages of the software development life cycle (SDLC) to minimize vulnerabilities in the software." This highlights the superiority of early integration over late-stage reviews or post-implementation audits.

Question 9

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following
Options
A: Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.
B: Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.
C: Assign a risk owner to each risk
D: Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Assign a risk owner to each risk
Explanation
The core problem identified is a failure in the risk treatment process, where identified risks are not being acted upon in a timely manner. The most fundamental reason for such inaction is a lack of clear accountability. Assigning a risk owner to each identified risk establishes this accountability. The risk owner is the designated individual responsible for ensuring that the risk is appropriately assessed, a treatment plan is executed, and the risk is monitored. This assignment is the most critical step to drive the risk management process forward and ensure that risks are addressed, thereby directly resolving the stated problem.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

This is a reporting activity. While it increases visibility of the problem, it does not solve the underlying issue of why risks are not being treated.

B. Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

The problem is not with the identification or analysis of risks, but with the lack of action after analysis. Re-performing analysis is inefficient and does not address the treatment bottleneck.

D. Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

This is a risk treatment option itself. However, the question implies this step is not happening. Assigning an owner is the prerequisite to ensure someone is accountable for creating and implementing controls.

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References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. In Domain 2: Information Risk Management, the concept of risk ownership is central to effective risk treatment. The manual states, "Risk ownership is a key concept in information risk management... The risk owner is an individual accountable for the identification, assessment, treatment and monitoring of risks in a specific area." (p. 111). This establishes that accountability through ownership is essential for the treatment phase.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-39, Managing Information Security Risk. This foundational document on risk management emphasizes that the process requires clear roles and responsibilities. The risk response step, which includes treatment, "provides a consistent, organization-wide, response to risk." (Section 2.3, p. 15). Such a response cannot be executed without an accountable party (i.e., a risk owner) to make decisions and direct action.

3. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. The framework's process APO12 Manage Risk requires clear accountability structures. Practice APO12.05 Maintain a risk profile includes identifying risk owners as a key activity. Without an owner, the subsequent practice APO12.06 Articulate risk and APO12.07 Define a risk management action portfolio cannot be effectively executed, leading to the exact problem described in the scenario. (pp. 108-109).

Question 10

An email digital signature will:
Options
A: protect the confidentiality of an email message.
B: verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.
C: automatically correct unauthorized modification of an email message.
D: prevent unauthorized modification of an email message.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.
Explanation
A digital signature's primary function is to provide assurance of data integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation. It is created by generating a cryptographic hash of the email message and then encrypting this hash value with the sender's private key. The recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt the hash. They then independently compute the hash of the received message. If the two hashes match, it cryptographically proves that the message has not been altered since it was signed, thus verifying its integrity. This process does not inherently encrypt the message content for confidentiality.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Confidentiality is achieved by encrypting the entire message content, which is a separate process from applying a digital signature.

C. A digital signature is a detective control; it can identify that a modification has occurred but has no capability to automatically correct it.

D. A digital signature is a detective, not a preventive, control. It cannot stop a message from being intercepted and modified in transit.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management. The manual explains cryptographic controls, stating that digital signatures are used to provide integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation, distinguishing this from encryption which provides confidentiality.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2013). FIPS PUB 186-4, Digital Signature Standard (DSS). Page 1, Section 1, Introduction. The standard states, "Digital signatures are used to detect unauthorized modifications to data and to authenticate the identity of the signatory. In addition, the recipient of signed data can present the data and its signature to a third party to prove that the signature was generated by the claimed signatory. This is known as non-repudiation... In summary, the use of a digital signature provides data integrity and source authentication."

3. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 8, "Security in Computer Networks." Section 8.3, "Principles of Cryptography," explains that digital signatures, created by encrypting a message digest with a private key, allow a recipient to verify that the message is un-altered (integrity) and from the claimed sender (authenticity).

Question 11

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often
Options
A: website transactions and taxation.
B: software patches and corporate date.
C: encryption tools and personal data.
D: lack of competition and free trade.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
encryption tools and personal data.
Explanation
From an information security perspective, the most significant legal issues in transborder technology flow involve encryption tools and personal data. Many nations classify strong cryptographic technology as a dual-use item or munition, subjecting its export and import to strict licensing and control regimes (e.g., the Wassenaar Arrangement). Concurrently, the transfer of personal data across borders is heavily regulated by comprehensive data protection laws like the EU's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which imposes stringent requirements on data handling, consent, and security, creating major compliance challenges for global organizations. These two areas represent the most frequent and high-risk legal hurdles for information security programs.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Website transactions and taxation are primarily commercial and financial legal matters, not core information security concerns.

B. Software patches are technical controls, not typically a legal issue for transborder flow, and "corporate data" is less specific than the heavily regulated category of "personal data."

D. Lack of competition and free trade fall under antitrust and international trade law, which are distinct from information security legal frameworks.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.3.3 "Legal and Regulatory Issues." This section details the information security manager's responsibility to understand and comply with laws and regulations, specifically citing "privacy legislation" (governing personal data) and "import/export" controls, which prominently feature restrictions on cryptographic technology.

2. Svantesson, D. J. B. (2013). A new approach to extraterritorialityโ€”A cry for help? International Data Privacy Law, 3(3), 172โ€“182. This academic article discusses the complexities of data privacy laws like GDPR, which have extraterritorial reach, creating significant legal challenges for the "transborder flow of...personal data" (p. 172). This highlights personal data as a primary legal issue. https://doi.org/10.1093/idpl/ipt010

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. 6.805/STS.085 Ethics and Law on the Electronic Frontier, Fall 2014. Lecture 15 notes on "Cryptography Policy" discuss the history and legal framework of U.S. export controls on encryption, treating it as a munition. This establishes encryption tools as a major subject of transborder legal regulation from a security perspective. (Available at MIT OCW website).

Question 12

Which of the following is MOST important in order to obtain senior leadership support when presenting an information security strategy?
Options
A: The strategy aligns with managementโ€™s acceptable level of risk.
B: The strategy addresses ineffective information security controls.
C: The strategy aligns with industry benchmarks and standards.
D: The strategy addresses organizational maturity and the threat environment.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
The strategy aligns with managementโ€™s acceptable level of risk.
Explanation
The most critical factor in obtaining senior leadership support for an information security strategy is demonstrating its alignment with the organization's business objectives, which are encapsulated in management's acceptable level of risk (risk appetite). Senior leadership is accountable for managing risk to achieve strategic goals. A strategy presented in these terms shows that information security is a business enabler, not just a cost center. It directly addresses leadership's primary concern: ensuring that security investments and efforts are proportional to the risks the business is willing to accept, thereby justifying the allocation of resources and gaining their essential support.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Addressing ineffective controls is a tactical detail within the strategy; leadership is more concerned with the overall strategic alignment and risk posture.

C. While important for due diligence, alignment with industry standards is secondary to alignment with the organization's unique business goals and risk appetite.

D. The threat environment and maturity are crucial inputs for developing the strategy, but alignment with risk appetite is the key to its acceptance by leadership.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. In Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.3, "Information Security Strategy," it is emphasized that the strategy must align with the goals and objectives of the business. Page 43 specifically discusses risk appetite and tolerance as a "strategic matter that must be determined by senior management," making alignment with this determination paramount for any strategy presented to them.

2. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. The governance objective EDM03, "Ensure Risk Optimisation," explicitly states a key practice is to "Ensure that IT-related risk does not exceed the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the enterprise." This highlights that senior leadership's primary governance function regarding risk is to operate within the defined appetite, making it the most important consideration for strategy approval.

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-39, "Managing Information Security Risk." Section 2.2, "Risk Framing," discusses the importance of establishing risk tolerance at the senior leadership level. This "risk frame" is essential for all subsequent risk management activities, including strategy development and communication, as it sets the fundamental boundaries and priorities for the entire organization.

Question 13

The MOST important information for influencing managementโ€™s support of information security is:
Options
A: an demonstration of alignment with the business strategy.
B: An identification of the overall threat landscape.
C: A report of a successful attack on a competitor.
D: An identification of organizational risks.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
an demonstration of alignment with the business strategy.
Explanation
The most critical factor in securing management support for information security is demonstrating its direct alignment with and contribution to the organization's business strategy. Senior leadership is primarily accountable for achieving business objectives, such as market growth, profitability, and operational efficiency. When information security is presented as a business enabler that protects key assets, ensures regulatory compliance, and maintains customer trustโ€”all essential for strategic successโ€”it is viewed as a value-adding function rather than a cost center. This strategic alignment provides the ultimate justification for resource allocation and prioritization, making it more influential than isolated risk reports or threat intelligence.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. An identification of the overall threat landscape is too generic and lacks the specific business context needed to compel management action.

C. A report of a successful attack on a competitor is a reactive, fear-based tactic that does not build a case for a sustainable, strategy-driven security program.

D. An identification of organizational risks is crucial, but these risks become most meaningful and actionable to management when they are explicitly linked to the business objectives they threaten.

References

1. ISACA. (2022). CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. In Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.4, "Information Security Strategy," it is established that the information security strategy must be derived from the organization's overall strategy. It states, "The primary driver for information security is the business," and emphasizes that alignment with business objectives is essential for obtaining support and resources from senior management. (p. 45).

2. ISACA. (2018). COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology. The core concept of the Goals Cascade, detailed in Chapter 4, illustrates that enterprise goals (driven by business strategy) cascade down to alignment goals for Information & Technology (I&T). This framework fundamentally positions the alignment with business needs as the primary driver for all governance and management objectives, including those for information security (e.g., APO13 Managed Security).

3. De Haes, S., & Van Grembergen, W. (2015). Enterprise Governance of Information Technology: Achieving Alignment and Value, Featuring COBIT 5. Springer International Publishing. In Chapter 2, "Business/IT Alignment," the authors empirically demonstrate that strategic alignment is a top concern for executives. The text explains that for IT (including security) to deliver value, its plans and objectives must be explicitly linked to business plans, which is the foundation for securing executive sponsorship and support. (pp. 21-23).

Question 14

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?
Options
A: Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.
B: Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.
C: Provide incident response training to data custodians.
D: Provide incident response training to data owners.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Provide incident response training to data custodians.
Explanation
The root cause identified is the negligent handling of alerts by a system administrator. In information security governance, system administrators are classified as data custodians, responsible for the technical environment and the day-to-day operational tasks of protecting data. The failure was in the execution of their duties. Therefore, providing targeted incident response training to data custodians directly addresses the identified performance gap. This corrective action focuses on the specific role that was the source of the failure, ensuring they understand their responsibilities and the correct procedures for handling alerts, which is the most effective way to prevent a recurrence.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. A risk assessment is a proactive, high-level activity; the specific root cause (human error) has already been identified and requires a direct, tactical solution.

B. The problem was not a flawed plan but a failure to follow it. Revising the entire plan is premature without evidence that the plan itself is deficient.

D. Data owners are typically business-side managers responsible for data classification and governance, not the technical handling of security alerts. Training them would not solve the issue.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition.

Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section 3.3.2 Roles and Responsibilities: This section defines the role of an information/data custodian as the individual or group responsible for implementing, managing, and monitoring protection mechanisms. System administrators are a primary example of this role.

Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section 4.3 Incident Management Readiness: This section emphasizes that "all individuals with incident response responsibilities should be trained to ensure they can perform their duties effectively." This directly links the need for training to the roles responsible for response actions.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide.

Section 2.5.2, Plan: States, "Training should be appropriate for each person's role." This reinforces the principle that training must be targeted to the specific responsibilities of the personnel involved, such as the system administrator (custodian) in this scenario.

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-53 Rev. 5, Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations.

Control IR-2 (Incident Response Training): This control explicitly requires organizations to "Train personnel in their incident response roles and responsibilities with respect to the information system and provide refresher training." This underscores that training is a fundamental control for ensuring proper incident response execution by specific roles.

Question 15

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on the successful integration of information security within the business?
Options
A: Organizational structure and culture
B: Risk tolerance and organizational objectives
C: The desired state of the organization
D: Information security personnel
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Organizational structure and culture
Explanation
The successful integration of information security is most fundamentally influenced by the organization's structure and culture. Organizational culture, often referred to as the "tone at the top," dictates the values, beliefs, and behaviors regarding security across the enterprise. A supportive culture ensures security is seen as a shared responsibility. The organizational structure determines the security function's authority, reporting lines, and ability to collaborate with business units. Without a conducive culture and an empowering structure, even the best security strategies, personnel, and risk assessments will fail to be effectively embedded into the business's daily operations. These two elements form the foundational environment for security integration.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Risk tolerance and organizational objectives are critical inputs for aligning the security program with business needs, but they do not drive the integration itself.

C. The desired state of the organization is a strategic goal or target; it is the outcome of a process, not the primary factor influencing the success of that process.

D. Information security personnel are essential for executing the security program, but their effectiveness is ultimately enabled or constrained by the prevailing organizational culture and structure.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition, 2016. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.2.3, "Internal Influences." This section identifies organizational culture and structure as primary internal factors that influence the development and implementation of the information security strategy, directly impacting its integration.

2. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, 2018. Chapter 4, "Governance System and Components," pp. 31-33. This framework lists "Organisational structures" and "Culture, ethics and behaviour" as two of the seven essential components of a governance system, stating they are required for the enterprise to achieve its governance and management objectives, which includes integrating security.

3. Da Veiga, A., & Eloff, J. H. P. (2010). A framework and assessment instrument for information security culture. Computers & Security, 29(2), 196-207. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2009.09.002. This academic paper emphasizes that an established information security culture is a prerequisite for the successful implementation and integration of security controls and policies within an organization.

Question 16

Which of the following BEST supports effective communication during information security incidents7
Options
A: Frequent incident response training sessions
B: Centralized control monitoring capabilities
C: Responsibilities defined within role descriptions
D: Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs)
Explanation
Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs) BEST support effective communication during an incident by establishing clear, formal expectations for communication. SLAs define who should be notified, under what conditions, and within what timeframe. This removes ambiguity and ensures that communication is timely, consistent, and directed to the correct stakeholders, which is critical in a high-pressure incident scenario. By contractually or procedurally mandating communication requirements, SLAs provide a structured framework that guides the incident response team's communication efforts, preventing delays and miscommunication.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Frequent incident response training sessions: Training builds capability and prepares staff, but it does not provide the specific, mandated communication protocols and timelines required during an actual incident.

B. Centralized control monitoring capabilities: Monitoring is essential for detecting incidents. It provides the information to be communicated but does not govern the communication process or requirements itself.

C. Responsibilities defined within role descriptions: Role descriptions are too general for the dynamic needs of incident response. Effective communication requires a specific plan, not just high-level role definitions.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management. Section 4.3, "Incident Response Plan," emphasizes that the plan must contain clear criteria for determining the priority of an incident and the required level of management reporting. SLAs are a primary mechanism for formally documenting these criteria and reporting timelines. (Specifically, see Task Statement K4.3: "Knowledge of the processes for communicating with and reporting to internal and external stakeholders.")

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." Section 2.3.3, "Incident Response Policies, Plans, and Procedures," states that policies should define reporting requirements. SLAs are a formal instrument for defining these requirements, especially with external parties like customers or regulators, ensuring communication is handled according to pre-agreed standards.

3. ITILยฎ Foundation, ITIL 4 Edition, AXELOS (2019). Chapter 5.2.5, "Incident Management," discusses the importance of agreeing on target resolution times and communication protocols, which are formally documented in SLAs. This ensures all parties, including users and stakeholders, have clear expectations for communication during service disruptions. (While ITIL is not a CISM-specific source, its principles on incident management are foundational and align with CISM concepts, making it an appropriate academic reference in this context).

Question 17

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?
Options
A: Information security program charter
B: Business impact analysis (BIA)
C: Service level agreements (SLAs)
D: Business continuity plan (BCP)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Business continuity plan (BCP)
Explanation
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is an operational document designed to be executed during a crisis to restore critical business functions. A fundamental part of recovery often involves coordinating with external third parties. This includes contacting equipment and software vendors for technical support, replacement hardware, or software licenses. Therefore, the BCP must contain a comprehensive and current list of contact information for these key vendors to ensure that recovery teams can engage them without delay, which is critical for meeting recovery time objectives (RTOs).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. An information security program charter is a high-level governance document that establishes authority and scope; it does not contain operational details like contact lists.

B. A business impact analysis (BIA) is an analytical document that identifies critical processes and dependencies; it provides input for the BCP but is not the plan itself.

C. Service level agreements (SLAs) are contracts defining service expectations and may contain some contacts, but the BCP is the central, consolidated plan for all recovery-related contacts.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section 4.8 Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery. The manual details that BCPs must contain all information necessary for their execution, which includes procedures, resources, and contact lists for internal teams, emergency responders, and critical third-party vendors.

2. NIST Special Publication 800-34 Rev. 1, Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Appendix C, "Contingency Plan Template," explicitly includes a section for "Vendor Contact Information" as a standard and essential component of a contingency/business continuity plan.

3. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute, CERT Resilience Management Model (CERT-RMM) v1.2. The Service Continuity (SCON) process area emphasizes establishing and maintaining plans to ensure service continuity. The practical implementation of these plans requires having all necessary resources readily available, which includes the contact information for external dependencies such as vendors and suppliers.

Question 18

Which of the following should be triggered FIRST when unknown malware has infected an organization's critical system?
Options
A: Incident response plan
B: Disaster recovery plan (DRP)
C: Business continuity plan (BCP)
D: Vulnerability management plan
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Incident response plan
Explanation
The detection of unknown malware on a critical system constitutes a security incident. The incident response plan (IRP) is the specific, pre-approved set of procedures designed to be activated immediately upon the identification of such an event. The IRP provides a structured approach for the initial steps of containment, analysis, and eradication to limit the impact and prevent further spread. Activating the IRP is the first operational step to manage the threat directly. The findings from the incident response process will then determine if the situation is severe enough to warrant the activation of broader plans like the DRP or BCP.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Disaster recovery plan (DRP): This is invoked for catastrophic events that render systems or facilities inoperable and focuses on restoring IT infrastructure, not the initial malware response.

C. Business continuity plan (BCP): This is a high-level strategic plan to maintain critical business functions during a major disruption; it is triggered if the incident escalates beyond a localized event.

D. Vulnerability management plan: This is a proactive and ongoing process for identifying and remediating system weaknesses; it is not a reactive plan for handling an active infection.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition (2022). Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section 4.2, "Incident Response Plan." The manual states, "The incident response plan (IRP) consists of the procedures to be deployed in the event of an incident... The plan should be activated whenever an incident is detected." A malware infection is a primary example of such an incident.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2012). Special Publication (SP) 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Section 2.3.1, "Incident Response Plan," specifies that the IRP provides the roadmap for responding to an incident. The document's lifecycle (Detection & Analysis, Containment, Eradication & Recovery) is the formal process that should be triggered first for events like malware infections.

3. Whitman, M. E., & Mattord, H. J. (2019). Management of Information Security (6th ed.). Cengage Learning. Chapter 6, "Planning for Contingencies," clearly distinguishes the order of activation. It explains that incident response precedes and may trigger disaster recovery. The text states, "Incident response focuses on immediate response... If the incident escalates or is disastrous, the process moves on to disaster recovery and business continuity." (p. 225).

Question 19

A finance department director has decided to outsource the organization's budget application and has identified potential providers. Which of the following actions should be initiated FIRST by IN information security manager?
Options
A: Determine the required security controls for the new solution
B: Review the disaster recovery plans (DRPs) of the providers
C: Obtain audit reports on the service providers' hosting environment
D: Align the roles of the organization's and the service providers' stats.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Determine the required security controls for the new solution
Explanation
The most critical first step in any outsourcing process from an information security perspective is to define the security requirements for the application and the data it will handle. This involves data classification, risk assessment, and determining the specific security controls needed to protect the information's confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These defined requirements serve as the essential baseline criteria for evaluating the suitability of any potential service provider. Without this foundational step, any review of a provider's capabilities, such as their disaster recovery plans or audit reports, would lack the necessary context to be meaningful and would not be aligned with the organization's specific risk appetite and security posture.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Reviewing provider DRPs is a crucial due diligence activity, but it must be measured against the organization's own recovery requirements, which must be defined first.

C. Obtaining audit reports is part of the provider evaluation process, which logically follows the initial step of establishing the security requirements to be audited against.

D. Aligning roles and responsibilities occurs during the contracting and service level agreement (SLA) negotiation phase, after a provider has been evaluated and selected.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. In the discussion of the third-party management life cycle, the "Selection" phase explicitly includes "Defining requirements" as a key activity. This step is foundational to the subsequent evaluation of potential vendors to ensure they can meet the organization's needs. (Domain 2: Information Risk Management, Section 2.6.3, p. 103).

2. ISO/IEC 27002:2022, Information security, cybersecurity and privacy protection โ€” Information security controls. Control 5.20, "Addressing information security in supplier agreements," states that information security requirements should be established and agreed upon with each supplier. This implies that the organization must first determine these requirements before they can be included in an agreement or used to evaluate a supplier.

3. NIST SP 800-35, Guide to Information Technology Security Services. Section 3.1, "Phase 1โ€”Requirements Definition," outlines the first phase of acquiring security services. It states, "The first phase in the life cycle is to define the organization's IT security requirements... This phase is critical to the success of the entire process." This principle applies directly to outsourcing any IT service or application.

Question 20

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?
Options
A: Network with peers in the industry to share information.
B: Browse the Internet to team of potential events
C: Search for anomalies in the environment
D: Search for threat signatures in the environment.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Search for anomalies in the environment
Explanation
Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) are characterized by their stealth and use of novel or customized malware and techniques (zero-day exploits) to evade traditional detection methods. Signature-based detection is ineffective against such unknown threats. The most effective monitoring strategy is to establish a baseline of normal system and network behavior and then search for anomalies or deviations from this baseline. This behavioral analysis approach can identify the subtle activities of an APT, such as unusual data access patterns, lateral movement, or non-standard network protocols, even when the specific tools are unknown.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Networking with peers is a valuable threat intelligence gathering activity, but it is not a direct method for monitoring an organization's internal environment.

B. Browsing the Internet is an informal, unstructured, and unreliable method for gathering threat intelligence and is not a systematic monitoring technique.

D. APTs are specifically designed to bypass signature-based detection systems by using unknown or modified malware, making this method largely ineffective against them.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management. Section on "Security Monitoring" emphasizes the need for techniques that can detect anomalous activity indicative of advanced threats, which often bypass traditional signature-based controls. While not using the exact phrase, the principles of monitoring for unusual behavior are central to detecting sophisticated attacks.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." Section 3.2.3, "Signs of an Incident," discusses how difficult-to-detect incidents, such as APTs, often manifest as subtle anomalies. It states, "Some incidents are detected through other means, such as seeing anomalous activity." This highlights the importance of anomaly detection for advanced threats.

3. Ahmadi, M., Ghaemi-Bafghi, A., & Tadayon, M. H. (2016). A survey and a taxonomy on advanced persistent threats detection. 2016 4th International Conference on Control, Instrumentation, and Automation (ICCIA). DOI: 10.1109/ICCIAutom.2016.7483158. This academic paper surveys APT detection techniques, concluding that "anomaly-based detection methods are more effective than signature-based methods in detecting APT attacks" because APTs use unknown and polymorphic malware.

Question 21

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after a new cybersecunty regulation has been introduced?
Options
A: Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.
B: Consult corporate legal counsel
C: Update the information security policy.
D: Perform a gap analysis.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Perform a gap analysis.
Explanation
The most logical and effective first step for an information security manager after a new regulation is introduced is to perform a gap analysis. This process involves systematically comparing the specific requirements of the new regulation against the organization's current information security controls, policies, and procedures. The analysis identifies any deficiencies or "gaps" that exist. The output of this analysis is essential for developing a strategic and prioritized roadmap for compliance, informing legal counsel of the potential impact, and providing the data needed for subsequent cost-benefit analyses of remediation options.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. This is premature. A cost-benefit analysis can only be conducted after the required changes (the gaps) and potential solutions have been identified.

B. Consult corporate legal counsel. While crucial for interpreting the regulation's legal nuances, the security manager must first understand the current technical and procedural posture to facilitate a productive discussion about the actual impact.

C. Update the information security policy. Policy updates are a result of the compliance effort, not the starting point. The policy cannot be updated accurately until the gaps are known.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Task Statement G3 states a key task is to "Identify the gap between the current and desired states of the information security program to ensure that the enterpriseโ€™s objectives are met." The introduction of a new regulation establishes a new "desired state," making a gap analysis the primary initial action.

2. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.3.3, "Legal and Regulatory Requirements." This section details the security manager's responsibility to identify and address applicable requirements. The foundational step to addressing them is to first understand the extent of non-compliance, which is the purpose of a gap analysis.

3. NIST Special Publication 800-39, "Managing Information Security Risk." Section 2.2, "Risk Management Process." The process described (Frame, Assess, Respond, Monitor) begins with framing and assessing risk. When a new regulation appears, it introduces new compliance risks that must first be assessed against the current environment before a response can be formulated. This assessment is functionally a gap analysis.

Question 22

In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?
Options
A: Ownership of security
B: Compliance with policies
C: Auditability of systems
D: Allocation of training resources
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Ownership of security
Explanation
Information security governance establishes the framework for accountability, responsibility, and authority. Alongside executive sponsorship (which provides authority and resources) and business alignment (which provides direction and purpose), clear ownership is the most critical component. Ownership assigns accountability for the protection of information assets and the implementation of security controls to specific roles or business units. Without defined ownership, security policies remain theoretical, controls are not maintained, and there is no one to hold responsible when failures occur. This principle of accountability is a cornerstone that translates strategic governance objectives into operational reality.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Compliance with policies: This is an outcome or a goal of an effective governance program, rather than a foundational component required to build it.

C. Auditability of systems: This is a specific control characteristic and an assurance mechanism that supports governance, but it is not a core governance principle itself.

D. Allocation of training resources: This is an important operational activity that is directed and managed by the governance framework, not a fundamental element of the framework itself.

---

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.2.3, "Information Security Responsibilities and Accountability." The manual states, "A key element of an information security governance framework is the definition and assignment of information security responsibilities throughout the organization... Accountability for information security must be assigned." This directly supports the concept of ownership as a critical element.

2. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. The EDM01 process, "Ensured Governance Framework Setting and Maintenance," emphasizes the need to "Define organizational structures, roles and responsibilities." This establishes that defining ownership is a primary activity in setting up a governance framework.

3. Tassabehji, R. (2005). Information security governance: The role of the board of directors. Americas Conference on Information Systems (AMCIS) 2005 Proceedings, 303. This academic paper highlights that a key responsibility of the board in governance is to "ensure that management has assigned clear responsibilities for information security," reinforcing that ownership is a top-level, critical concern. (Available via AIS eLibrary).

4. von Solms, S. H. (2006). Information Security Governance. Computers & Security, 25(6), 409-412. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2006.07.002. This article discusses the evolution from information security management to governance, noting that governance requires establishing clear accountability structures, which is synonymous with ownership, as a fundamental principle.

Question 23

An organization is leveraging tablets to replace desktop computers shared by shift-based staff These tablets contain critical business data and are inherently at increased risk of theft Which of the following will BEST help to mitigate this risk''
Options
A: Deploy mobile device management (MDM)
B: Implement remote wipe capability.
C: Create an acceptable use policy.
D: Conduct a mobile device risk assessment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Conduct a mobile device risk assessment
Explanation
A risk assessment is the foundational and most critical first step in managing any new technology or process. By conducting a formal risk assessment for the new tablets, the organization can systematically identify all potential threats (including theft), vulnerabilities, and the potential impact on business operations. This process provides the necessary basis for selecting and prioritizing the most appropriate and cost-effective controls. Implementing specific solutions like MDM or remote wipe without a prior assessment is a reactive approach that may not address the full spectrum of risks or could be an inefficient use of resources. The assessment ensures a holistic and strategic approach to risk mitigation.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Deploy mobile device management (MDM): This is a specific technical control. While likely a necessary component of the solution, it is a potential outcome of a risk assessment, not the best initial step.

B. Implement remote wipe capability: This is a reactive control that mitigates the impact of data loss after a device is stolen, but it does not mitigate the primary risk of the theft itself.

C. Create an acceptable use policy: This is an administrative control. While important for setting user expectations, it is only one part of a comprehensive security strategy and is insufficient on its own.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 2: Information Risk Management. The manual emphasizes that the risk assessment process is fundamental to all other risk management activities. Task Statement K2.2 states the need to "Identify and analyze risks to determine their potential likelihood and impact on the business." This assessment is the prerequisite for selecting appropriate risk responses (mitigation controls) as described in Task Statement K2.4.

2. ISACA, COBIT 5 for Information Security. APO12 Manage Risk, Section APO12.02, "Collect data and identify, analyze and report on risk." This practice highlights that the initial step in risk management is to collect data to identify and analyze risks. This directly corresponds to conducting a risk assessment before implementing specific controls.

3. Parker, D. B. (2013). Toward a New Framework for Information Security. In Computers & Security, 32, 1-12. (Peer-reviewed academic publication). This and similar foundational texts on information security management stress that effective security programs are built upon a thorough understanding of risks. The selection of controls (such as MDM) must be justified and guided by a formal risk assessment process to ensure they are appropriate and sufficient for the identified threats.

Question 24

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in an organization's selection of a key risk indicator (KRI)?
Options
A: Return on investment (ROI)
B: Compliance requirements
C: Target audience
D: Criticality of information
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Criticality of information
Explanation
The primary purpose of a Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is to provide an early warning of potential high-impact risk events that could prevent an organization from achieving its objectives. The selection of a KRI must therefore be directly linked to the most significant risks. The significance of a risk is determined by its potential impact, which is a direct function of the criticality of the information, asset, or business process it affects. KRIs are chosen to monitor the risks that pose the greatest threat to the organization's most valuable assets, often referred to as "crown jewels."
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Return on investment (ROI): A KRI's value is in loss avoidance and proactive risk management, which is often difficult to quantify as a direct financial return, making ROI a secondary consideration.

B. Compliance requirements: While important, compliance is only one source of risk. An effective risk management program uses KRIs to monitor all significant risks, not just those related to regulations.

C. Target audience: The target audience influences how a KRI is reported and communicated (e.g., dashboards for executives, detailed reports for managers), not the fundamental selection of the metric itself.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition (2019). In Domain 2: Information Risk Management, the manual explains that KRIs are selected to monitor the most significant risks. It states, "KRIs should be selected based on the risks that have been identified as having a potential for high loss" (p. 108). The potential for high loss is directly correlated with the criticality of the asset or information at risk.

2. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives (2018). The framework emphasizes aligning governance and management activities with enterprise goals. The selection of risk metrics (like KRIs) under process APO12 (Manage Risk) is driven by the business impact analysis, which explicitly identifies and prioritizes critical business processes and assets.

3. Flippo, D., & Van der Merwe, A. (2015). A Key Risk Indicator (KRI) Selection and Validation Model. Proceedings of the 9th International Conference on Theory and Practice of Electronic Governance. (p. 217). This academic publication notes that the KRI selection process begins with identifying critical business objectives and the risks that threaten them, reinforcing that criticality is the foundational element. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1145/2893679.2893681

Question 25

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?
Options
A: Periodic internal and external audits
B: Clear lines of responsibility
C: Sufficient cyber budget allocation
D: Cybersecurity policies
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Cybersecurity policies
Explanation
Cybersecurity policies are high-level statements that formalize management's intent and direction for the security program. They establish the foundational governance framework required to manage risk consistently and effectively. This framework is crucial for addressing emerging risks because it provides the authority and mandate to identify new threats, assign responsibilities, allocate resources, and implement appropriate controls in a structured manner. Policies ensure that the approach to new threats is proactive and aligned with the organization's overall risk appetite, rather than being ad-hoc or reactive. They are the primary enabler from which all other security management activities, including those for emerging risks, are derived.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Audits are a detective mechanism used to verify compliance and effectiveness periodically; they are not a proactive enabler for managing new, emerging risks.

B. Clear lines of responsibility are essential for execution, but they are established and assigned based on the authority and direction provided by policies.

C. A sufficient budget is a necessary resource for implementing controls, but its allocation is justified and guided by the risk management strategy defined in policies.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3, "Information Security Policy," states, "The information security policy is the foundation of an effective information security program... It is the primary means by which senior management communicates its will and intent to the organization." This establishes policy as the foundational enabler.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) Version 1.1. Section 2.1, "Framework Core," introduces the "Govern" function. The first category, GV.OC (Organizational Context), emphasizes that organizational cybersecurity strategy, objectives, and policies are established to manage risk. This highlights policy as a primary governance activity that enables risk management.

3. Furtado, V. (2018). A CISM Body of Knowledge. EDPACS, 58(3), 1-18. In the discussion on Information Security Governance, the article emphasizes that "Policies are the key high-level documents that set the tone and direction for the entire security program," from which procedures, standards, and baselines are developed to address specific risks. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1080/07366981.2018.1523211).

Question 26

After a recovery from a successful malware attack, instances of the malware continue to be discovered. Which phase of incident response was not successful?
Options
A: EradicationB Recovery
B: Lessons learned review
C: Incident declaration
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
EradicationB Recovery
Explanation
The continued discovery of malware after recovery indicates that the threat was not completely removed from the systems. The Eradication phase of the incident response lifecycle is specifically responsible for eliminating the components of the incident, such as deleting malware and mitigating the vulnerabilities that were exploited. A failure in this phase means the root cause persists, allowing the malware to remain or reappear. While recovery actions were taken, they were built upon an incomplete eradication, making eradication the unsuccessful phase.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Recovery: This phase restores systems to normal operation. The failure occurred before this step; recovery cannot be successful if the threat has not been fully eradicated.

C. Lessons learned review: This is a post-incident activity conducted after the incident is fully resolved. The ongoing discovery of malware indicates the incident is not yet resolved.

D. Incident declaration: This initial phase, where an event is formally identified as an incident, was clearly successful because a response and recovery effort were initiated.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" (August 2012).

Section 3.4.2, Eradication: This section states, "After an incident has been contained, eradication may be necessary to eliminate components of the incident, such as deleting malware and disabling breached user accounts...". The scenario directly describes a failure to "eliminate components of the incident."

Figure 3-3, Incident Response Life Cycle: This figure clearly places "Eradication & Recovery" after "Containment" and before "Post-Incident Activity," showing that eradication is a prerequisite for a successful and final recovery.

2. Cichonski, P., Millar, T., Grance, T., & Scarfone, K. (2012). Computer security incident handling guide (NIST SP 800-61r2). National Institute of Standards and Technology.

DOI: https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-61r2 (This is the DOI for the same NIST document, provided for academic citation format). The relevant content is in Section 3.4.2 as noted above.

3. ISACA. (2022). CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. The CISM body of knowledge, specifically within Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, covers incident response planning and management. The phases described are aligned with the NIST framework, emphasizing that eradication must precede final recovery to ensure the threat is removed. (Note: While this is an official ISACA publication, specific page numbers vary by edition, but the principle remains consistent with the NIST standard it is based upon).

Question 27

An organization has decided to outsource IT operations. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the information security manager?
Options
A: Security requirements are included in the vendor contract
B: External security audit results are reviewed.
C: Service level agreements (SLAs) meet operational standards.
D: Business continuity contingency planning is provided
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Security requirements are included in the vendor contract
Explanation
The primary focus for the information security manager when outsourcing IT operations is to ensure that all security requirements are legally mandated within the vendor contract. The contract is the foundational document that legally binds the vendor to specific security controls, responsibilities, and performance levels. It establishes the right to audit, defines liability, and provides legal recourse if the vendor fails to meet the organization's security posture. All other activities, such as reviewing audits or SLAs, are predicated on the requirements established within this formal agreement. Without a strong contract, the organization cannot enforce its security standards on the third party.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Reviewing audit results is a crucial due diligence and ongoing monitoring step, but it is secondary to first defining the requirements that the vendor will be audited against.

C. Service level agreements (SLAs) are important but represent only a subset (primarily availability) of the comprehensive security requirements needed to protect confidentiality and integrity.

D. Business continuity is a single, albeit critical, component of the overall security program. The primary focus is on ensuring all necessary requirements are contractually defined.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section 3.4.6, "Integrating Security Requirements into Contracts and Agreements." This section emphasizes that contracts are the primary mechanism for ensuring that third-party providers adhere to the organization's security policies and standards. It states that security requirements, roles, and responsibilities must be explicitly defined in the contract.

2. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Domain 2: Information Risk Management, Section 2.9.3, "Third-Party Risk Management." This section details the lifecycle of third-party management, highlighting that the contract negotiation and finalization phase is where security expectations, service levels, and the right to audit are formally established.

3. Hall, J. A., & Singleton, T. (2005). Information Technology Auditing and Assurance. Chapter 4, "The Management, Operational, and Information Technology Auditing." University-level textbooks on IT auditing consistently identify the review and establishment of contractual obligations as a primary control point in managing outsourced relationships to ensure accountability and compliance.

4. von Solms, R., & von Solms, B. (2004). "The 10 deadly sins of information security management." Computers & Security, 23(5), 371-376. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2004.05.002. This academic publication discusses failures in information security management, implicitly supporting the principle that failing to formalize security requirements in third-party agreements (a "sin" of omission) is a fundamental management failure.

Question 28

A penetration test against an organization's external web application shows several vulnerabilities. Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern?
Options
A: A rules of engagement form was not signed prior to the penetration test
B: Vulnerabilities were not found by internal tests
C: Vulnerabilities were caused by insufficient user acceptance testing (UAT)
D: Exploit code for one of the vulnerabilities is publicly available
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Exploit code for one of the vulnerabilities is publicly available
Explanation
The greatest concern is the public availability of exploit code for a discovered vulnerability. This factor dramatically increases the likelihood of an attack by lowering the skill level required to compromise the system. It expands the range of potential threat actors from sophisticated attackers to less-skilled individuals (i.e., "script kiddies"). According to standard risk assessment principles (Risk = Likelihood x Impact), a significant increase in likelihood elevates the overall risk to a critical level, demanding immediate attention and remediation over other identified issues, which represent process failures or less immediate threats.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This is a critical procedural and legal failure concerning the test's authorization, but it does not relate to the technical risk posed by the vulnerabilities themselves.

B. This indicates a gap in the internal vulnerability management program. While it is a serious process issue to be addressed, it is a root cause, not the immediate, high-likelihood threat.

C. This points to a weakness in the software development life cycle (SDLC). However, it is a contributing factor rather than the most immediate and critical risk presented by a readily exploitable vulnerability.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. In Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, the section on vulnerability management emphasizes that remediation activities must be prioritized based on risk. The availability of an exploit is a primary factor in determining the likelihood of exploitation and, therefore, the overall risk level of a vulnerability. (Specifically, see Chapter 3, Section 3.4 Vulnerability Management).

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-30 Rev. 1, Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments. Section 2.2.2, "Likelihood," states that determining the likelihood of a threat event initiation considers the threat source's capability. The public availability of exploit tools directly increases the capability of a broad range of threat sources, thus increasing the likelihood of an adverse event.

3. FIRST.org, Inc., Common Vulnerability Scoring System v3.1: Specification Document. The CVSS framework, a global standard for rating vulnerability severity, includes a Temporal Metric Group. Within this group, the "Exploit Code Maturity (E)" metric explicitly increases a vulnerability's score as exploit code becomes more available and functional, moving from "Unproven" to "Proof-of-concept" to "Functional." This directly quantifies why available exploit code is a major concern. (See Section 2.2, Temporal Metrics).

Question 29

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the criticality of an organization's business functions?
Options
A: Disaster recovery plan (DRP)
B: Business impact analysis (BIA)
C: Business continuity plan (BCP)
D: Security assessment report (SAR)
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Explanation
A business impact analysis (BIA) is the foundational process used to identify and prioritize an organization's critical business functions. Its primary purpose is to assess the potential operational and financial impacts resulting from a disruption of these functions over time. The BIA systematically determines recovery priorities, including Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs) and Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs), which are direct measures of criticality. The outputs of the BIA are the essential inputs for developing effective business continuity and disaster recovery strategies.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a technical plan for recovering IT systems and infrastructure; it relies on criticality information established by the BIA, but does not determine it.

C. A business continuity plan (BCP) provides procedures to maintain essential operations during a disruption; it is created after the BIA has determined which functions are critical.

D. A security assessment report (SAR) documents findings on security controls and vulnerabilities; its focus is on security posture, not the inherent criticality of business functions for continuity.

References

1. ISACA. (2022). CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section 4.3 Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery. The manual states, "The first step in developing a BCP is to perform a business impact analysis (BIA)... The BIA identifies the various events that could impact the business and the business processes that are most critical."

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2010). Special Publication 800-34 Rev. 1, Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Section 3.2, Business Impact Analysis. "The BIA purpose is to correlate specific system components with the critical services that they provide, and based on that information, to characterize the consequences of a disruption... The BIA helps to identify and prioritize information systems and components that are critical to supporting the organizationโ€™s mission/business processes." (p. 15).

3. Wong, W. C., & Chan, A. (2011). A review of the business impact analysis for business continuity management. International Journal of Business and Management, 6(11), 211. "The BIA is a process of analyzing business functions and the effect that a business disruption might have upon them... The primary goal of BIA is to identify the critical business processes and to determine the recovery priorities." (p. 212). DOI: https://doi.org/10.5539/ijbm.v6n11p211

Question 30

An organization has purchased an Internet sales company to extend the sales department. The information security manager's FIRST step to ensure the security policy framework encompasses the new business model is to:
Options
A: perform a gap analysis.
B: implement both companies' policies separately
C: merge both companies' policies
D: perform a vulnerability assessment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
perform a gap analysis.
Explanation
The most critical first step in integrating a newly acquired company into an existing security framework is to understand the current state. A gap analysis is a formal process for comparing the actual performance or practices of both organizations against the desired future state and the acquiring organization's established security requirements. This analysis identifies deficiencies in policies, procedures, and controls. The results of the gap analysis provide the essential, fact-based foundation upon which a cohesive and comprehensive security policy framework for the combined entity can be built, ensuring all new business processes are adequately covered.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. implement both companies' policies separately: This approach creates operational inefficiencies, policy conflicts, and potential security gaps, undermining the goal of a unified security framework.

C. merge both companies' policies: Merging policies without first conducting a gap analysis is premature. It risks creating a convoluted policy document with conflicting or inadequate controls.

D. perform a vulnerability assessment: A vulnerability assessment is a tactical, technical evaluation. Strategic policy and framework development must precede such technical assessments to provide the standards to assess against.

---

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance. The manual emphasizes that a key task of the information security manager is to "identify the gap between the current and desired states of the information security program" to support the development of the security strategy. In a merger and acquisition scenario, this gap analysis is the foundational step before policy integration can occur. (Task Statement 1.5.2).

2. ISACA Journal, "Cybersecurity Considerations for Mergers and Acquisitions," Volume 6, 2018. This article outlines the post-acquisition integration process, stating, "The first step is to perform a deep-dive assessment of the acquired companyโ€™s cybersecurity program... The goal is to identify gaps between the two companiesโ€™ security programs." This directly supports gap analysis as the initial action.

3. Kissel, R. (Ed.). (2013). Glossary of Key Information Security Terms (NISTIR 7298 Rev. 2). National Institute of Standards and Technology. While not a CISM-specific source, this foundational document defines gap analysis as "The comparison of actual performance with potential or desired performance." This definition aligns with the necessary first step of assessing the acquired company's posture against the desired integrated framework. (Page 85).

Question 31

Following a risk assessment, an organization has made the decision to adopt a bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. What should the information security manager do NEXT?
Options
A: Develop a personal device policy
B: Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution
C: Develop training specific to BYOD awareness
D: Define control requirements
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Define control requirements
Explanation
Following a risk assessment and the strategic decision to adopt a BYOD program, the information security manager's immediate next step is to define the specific control requirements. This is a foundational activity that translates the findings of the risk assessment into actionable security needs. These requirements will dictate the necessary safeguards for data protection, device security, and user access. Only after these requirements are clearly defined can an effective policy be written, an appropriate technical solution (like MDM) be selected and implemented, and relevant user awareness training be developed. This ensures a structured, risk-based approach to building the BYOD program.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Develop a personal device policy

A policy must be based on pre-defined control requirements; it cannot be effectively created in a vacuum.

B. Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution

Implementing technology is premature. The specific control requirements must be defined first to ensure the chosen solution is fit for purpose.

C. Develop training specific to BYOD awareness

Training materials are created to educate users on established policies and procedures, which have not yet been developed.

---

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Domain 2: Information Risk Management, Section 2.3, "Information Risk Response." The manual outlines that after risk analysis and evaluation, the next step is to select a risk response, which involves defining and selecting controls to mitigate the identified risks to an acceptable level. This "defining controls" step precedes policy creation and implementation.

2. NIST Special Publication 800-53, Revision 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations." The Risk Management Framework (RMF), a core concept in information security management, specifies a sequence of steps. The "Select" step (Step 3), where controls are selected and tailored based on risk, occurs after the system is categorized (Step 2, which includes risk assessment) and before controls are implemented (Step 4). Defining control requirements is the essence of the "Select" step.

3. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. The management objective APO12 (Manage Risk) details a process flow where risk analysis (APO12.04) is followed by articulating risk (APO12.06) and then defining a risk management action portfolio. This action portfolio includes defining the necessary controls before they are implemented under processes like DSS05 (Manage Security Services). This framework supports defining requirements as the bridge between risk assessment and implementation.

Question 32

Which of the following is BEST used to determine the maturity of an information security program?
Options
A: Security budget allocation
B: Organizational risk appetite
C: Risk assessment results
D: Security metrics
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Security metrics
Explanation
Security metrics are the BEST tool for determining the maturity of an information security program. Maturity models, such as the Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) or COBIT's Process Capability Model, rely on objective, quantifiable measurements to assess the state of processes. Security metrics provide this data, allowing an organization to track performance, effectiveness, and efficiency over time. They enable comparison against established benchmarks and targets, providing a clear, evidence-based view of the program's development from an ad-hoc state to one that is managed, defined, and optimized. This continuous measurement is the core of any credible maturity assessment.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Security budget allocation: A budget is a resource input, not a measure of program effectiveness or maturity. A large budget can be spent inefficiently on an immature program.

B. Organizational risk appetite: This is a guiding principle that sets the tolerance for risk; it defines the program's goals but does not measure its operational maturity or effectiveness.

C. Risk assessment results: These are point-in-time outputs that identify specific risks. While a mature program performs them, the results themselves do not measure the program's process maturity.

---

References

1. ISACA. (2022). CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition. Chapter 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section: "Security Program Metrics." The manual explicitly states that metrics are essential for evaluating the performance of the information security program and are used to "measure, monitor and report on the effectiveness of information security management." This evaluation of effectiveness is a direct assessment of maturity.

2. ISACA. (2018). COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. Section 3: "Performance Management," pp. 39-42. The COBIT Process Capability Model assesses process maturity on a scale from 0 (Incomplete) to 5 (Optimizing). This assessment is fundamentally based on measuring process attributes and performance indicators (metrics) to determine if a process is achieving its purpose and demonstrating characteristics of higher maturity levels.

3. Paulk, M. C., Curtis, B., Chrissis, M. B., & Weber, C. V. (1993). Capability Maturity Model for Software, Version 1.1. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute. (CMU/SEI-93-TR-024). This foundational document for maturity models establishes the principle that progression through maturity levels is characterized by the institutionalization of processes and the use of measurement and analysis (metrics) to control and improve them. This concept is a cornerstone of information security program maturity assessment.

Question 33

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?
Options
A: Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system
B: Disable all incoming cloud mail services
C: Conduct awareness training across the organization
D: Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Conduct awareness training across the organization
Explanation
Targeted email attacks, such as spear phishing and business email compromise (BEC), are forms of social engineering that specifically exploit human psychology and behavior. The most effective and direct countermeasure is to strengthen the human element of security. Security awareness training educates employees to recognize the signs of a malicious email, understand the tactics used by attackers, and know the correct procedures for reporting suspicious communications. This transforms employees from potential victims into an active line of defense, often referred to as a "human firewall," which is a critical control for mitigating risks that technical solutions alone cannot fully address.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. A data loss prevention (DLP) system is a reactive control in this context; it aims to prevent data exfiltration after a potential compromise, not prevent the initial attack from succeeding.

B. Disabling all incoming cloud mail services is an extreme and operationally unfeasible measure that would halt essential business communications, making it an unacceptable risk response.

D. Requiring acknowledgment of an acceptable use policy is a passive administrative control for governance; it does not equip employees with the practical skills needed to identify and respond to a sophisticated attack.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section 3.4.5, "Security Awareness, Training and Education." The manual emphasizes that the purpose of security awareness is to modify employee behavior to be more security-conscious, which is the primary defense against social engineering attacks like targeted phishing. It states that an effective program helps staff recognize and respond to threats.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-50, Building an Information Technology Security Awareness and Training Program. Section 2.2, "The Importance of Security Awareness and Training," highlights that a well-trained workforce is a "strong link" in the security chain and is essential for protecting information assets, directly supporting the need for training to counter threats that target users.

3. Puhakainen, P., & Siponen, M. (2010). Improving employees' compliance through information systems security training: An action research study. MIS Quarterly, 34(4), 757-778. This academic study demonstrates the effectiveness of security training in changing employee behavior and improving compliance with security policies, thereby reducing the organization's vulnerability to attacks that rely on human error. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.2307/25750704)

Question 34

When implementing a security policy for an organization handling personally identifiable information (Pll); the MOST important objective should be:
Options
A: strong encryption
B: regulatory compliance.
C: data availability.
D: security awareness training
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
regulatory compliance.
Explanation
The primary and most important objective when implementing a security policy for an organization handling Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is regulatory compliance. Legal and regulatory frameworks such as GDPR, HIPAA, and CCPA impose specific, non-negotiable requirements for protecting PII. Failure to comply can result in severe financial penalties, legal action, and significant reputational damage. Therefore, compliance forms the foundational driver that dictates the necessary security controls and procedures. Other elements like encryption, training, and availability are typically implemented as specific measures to meet these mandatory compliance requirements.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Strong encryption is a critical security control and a means to achieve compliance, but it is not the overarching objective itself.

C. Data availability is a core security principle, but for PII, regulations prioritize confidentiality and integrity over availability in most contexts.

D. Security awareness training is an essential administrative control to support the policy, not the primary objective driving the policy's creation.

References

1. ISACA. (2017). CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.2, "Legal, Regulatory, and Contractual Requirements." This section explicitly states that legal and regulatory requirements, particularly those concerning privacy and PII, are primary drivers for establishing the information security strategy and policies. It emphasizes that compliance is a key objective of security governance.

2. Goel, S., & Chen, V. (2005). Information security in a globally connected world: The case of the U.S. financial services industry. Journal of Global Information Management, 13(4), 1-20. This academic study demonstrates that regulatory mandates (e.g., GLBA) are the principal impetus for the development and implementation of information security programs in industries handling sensitive personal information, making compliance the central objective. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.4018/jgim.2005100101)

3. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.805/STS.085J Ethics and Law on the Electronic Frontier. Lecture Notes, Privacy I: The Fourth Amendment and Electronic Surveillance. The course materials discuss how legal frameworks and privacy laws are the basis for organizational policies on data handling, establishing compliance as the foremost concern when dealing with personal data.

Question 35

A forensic examination of a PC is required, but the PC has been switched off. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Options
A: Perform a backup of the hard drive using backup utilities.
B: Perform a bit-by-bit backup of the hard disk using a write-blocking device
C: Perform a backup of the computer using the network
D: Reboot the system using third-party forensic software in the CD-ROM drive
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Perform a bit-by-bit backup of the hard disk using a write-blocking device
Explanation
The cardinal rule in digital forensics is to preserve the integrity of the original evidence. When a computer is powered off, the first operational step is to create a forensically sound, verifiable duplicate of the non-volatile storage (the hard disk). A bit-by-bit backup, also known as a forensic image, creates an exact copy of the entire drive, including deleted files, file slack, and unallocated space. Using a write-blocking device is mandatory in this process to prevent any data from being written to the original evidence drive, which would alter its state and compromise its admissibility and analytical value. This process ensures that the analysis is performed on a perfect copy, leaving the original evidence pristine.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Standard backup utilities are not forensically sound; they can alter file metadata (e.g., access times) and typically do not copy deleted data or slack space.

C. A network backup requires booting the system, which would fundamentally alter the state of the hard drive by writing logs and temporary files, corrupting the evidence.

D. Rebooting the system, even from a forensic CD, alters the system state and is not the first step. Imaging the drive externally is the non-intrusive, preferred method.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2006). Special Publication 800-86, Guide to Integrating Forensic Techniques into Incident Response.

Page 20, Section 3.2.2, "Creating a Duplicate Image of a Drive": "Before a drive is duplicated, a write blocker should be used to prevent any data from being written to the drive... The two basic types of duplication are bit-stream and backup... A bit-stream image, which is the preferred method in forensic analysis, is a bit-for-bit copy of a drive." This directly supports the use of a bit-by-bit copy with a write-blocker as the standard procedure.

2. Kent, K., Chevalier, S., Grance, T., & Dang, H. (2006). NIST Special Publication 800-72, Guidelines on PDA Forensics.

Page 26, Section 4.2, "Preservation": Although focused on PDAs, the principle is universal in digital forensics. It states, "The goal of the preservation phase is to preserve the integrity of the digital evidence... This is often accomplished by creating a bit-for-bit copy of the deviceโ€™s memory."

3. Carrier, B. (2003). "Defining digital forensic examination and analysis tools using abstraction layers." International Journal of Digital Evidence, 1(4).

This foundational academic paper outlines the digital forensic process. The initial step in data collection from physical media (like a hard drive) is described as creating a bit-for-bit copy to a file (a forensic image) to ensure the original evidence is not modified. This aligns with the principles of option B.

4. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.858 Computer Systems Security, Fall 2014. Lecture 21: Forensics.

The course materials emphasize the "Order of Volatility," and for non-volatile storage like a hard disk in a powered-off system, the standard procedure taught is to create a disk image using a write-blocker before any other action is taken. This prevents contamination of the evidence.

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