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Question 1

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link? A: It causes a network loop when a violation occurs. B: It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled. C: It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address. D: It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When port security is enabled on a Cisco switch interface (including a trunk link) using the switchport port-security command, default parameters are applied if not explicitly configured. The default maximum number of secure MAC addresses allowed on the port is 1. The default violation mode is shutdown. Therefore, if the trunk port learns more than one MAC address (i.e., a second MAC address), it exceeds the default limit, triggering a security violation. The shutdown violation mode causes the interface to be placed into an err- disabled state.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: It causes a network loop when a violation occurs. Port security violation actions

(shutdown, restrict, protect) are designed to secure the port, not cause network loops.

B: It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled. Enabling

port security does not inherently alter or disable the native VLAN configuration; these are

separate features.

D: It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically

configured. The default maximum MAC addresses is 1, not 10. The violation occurs upon

learning MACs beyond the limit, not specifically after static configuration of a certain

number.

References

Cisco Systems, "Configuring Port Security," Catalyst 9300 Series Switches, Cisco IOS XE

Bengaluru 17.6.x, Security Configuration Guide.

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/176/configurationguide/sec/b176sec9300cg/configuringportsecurity.html

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Relevant Sections: "Port Security Default Configuration" (states maximum MAC addresses

is 1, violation mode is Shutdown) and "Enabling Port Security on an Interface" (confirms

defaults apply to trunk ports).

Cisco Systems, "Catalyst 3750-X and 3560-X Switch Software Configuration Guide,

Release 15.0(2)SE and Later," Chapter: "Configuring Port Security."

URL:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x3560x/software/release/15

-02se/configuration/guide/scg3750x/swps.html

Relevant Section: "Port Security Default Settings" (Table 21-1 lists "Maximum number of

secure MAC addresses" as 1 and "Violation mode" as "shutdown"). "Port Security on Trunk

Ports" (explains port security applies to all VLANs on the trunk).

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Question 2

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled? A: broadcast to all ports on the switch B: flooded to all ports except the origination port C: forwarded to the first available port D: inspected and dropped by the switch
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not found in its MAC address table (an unknown unicast address), the switch floods the frame. Flooding means the switch forwards the frame out of all active ports except for the port on which the frame was originally received. This ensures the frame reaches its destination if it exists on the network segment connected to the switch.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: broadcast to all ports on the switch

C: forwarded to the first available port

D: inspected and dropped by the switch

References

Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter 2,

"Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs," Section: "Sending Data in Ethernet Networks,"

Subsection: "Switch Forwarding: The General Idea" (specifically discusses unknown unicast

frames and flooding).

"When a switch receives a frame whose destination MAC address is unicast, but that MAC

address is not in the MAC address table, the switch floods the frame. Flooding means that

the switch forwards a copy of the frame out all ports except the port on which the frame

arrived."

Cisco Networking Academy. (n.d.). CCNAv7: Switching, Routing, and Wireless Essentials.

Module 2: Switching Concepts, Section 2.2.2: The MAC Address Table.

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"If the destination MAC address is not in the table, the switch will forward the frame out all

ports except the incoming port. This is called an unknown unicast." (Accessible via Cisco

NetAcad learning platform).

Tanenbaum,

A. S., & Wetherall,

D. J. (2011). Computer Networks (5th ed.). Pearson

Education. Chapter 4, "The Medium Access Control Sublayer," Section 4.3.2 "Bridges and

Switches."

While a general networking textbook, it describes the fundamental operation: "If the

destination port is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all ports except the one it arrived on

(flooding)." (This aligns with the Cisco-specific behavior for unknown unicast frames).

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Question 3

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel? A: Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto. B: Configure the IP address of the neighboring device. C: Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command. D: Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
On the neighbor, setting each member interface to LACP passive places the port in a state that only responds to, but does not initiate, LACP frames. Because the first switch is already sending LACP packets (active by default when channel-group mode active was configured), the bundle forms even though the neighbor itself never negotiates the channel. This satisfies the requirement to bring the port channel up without negotiating the channel.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. auto is a PAgP (proprietary) mode, not valid for LACP; channel will not form.

B. An IP address is configured on the logical Port-Channel, not on individual member ports;

it does not influence LACP state.

C. Interfaces are already up (CDP sees the neighbor); issuing no shutdown adds nothing.

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References

1. Cisco Systems, Configuring EtherChannels, Catalyst 9000 Series Switches IOS XE 17,

section LACP Modesactive and passive. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/lanswitch/configuration/xe-17/lanswitch-xe-17-book/lnsw-etherchannel.html

2. IEEE Std 802.1AX-2020, clause 5.3.1: passive participants only respond to LACPDUs,

allowing aggregation when the peer is active.

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Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix? A: 255.255.255.240 B: 255.255.255.128 C: 255.255.248. D: 255.255.255.248
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
/561 The output of the show ip route command in the exhibit displays the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix as S 10.10.13.160/29. The /29 is the Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) notation for the prefix length, indicating that the first 29 bits of the subnet mask are set to 1. Converting this prefix length to dotted decimal notation: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 This binary representation translates to 255.255.255.248. Therefore, 255.255.255.248 is the correct subnet mask for the specified route.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: 255.255.255.240 This mask corresponds to a /28 prefix length (28 bits set to 1), not /29.

B: 255.255.255.128 This mask corresponds to a /25 prefix length (25 bits set to 1), not /29.

C: 255.255.248. This option is an improperly formatted mask. If interpreted as

255.255.248.0, it corresponds to a /21 prefix length, not /29.

References

1. Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter

13, "Implementing IP Addressing and Subnetting," Table 13-6 "Common IPv4 Prefix Lengths

and Their Equivalent Dotted-Decimal Masks" (lists /29 as 255.255.255.248). Chapter 20,

"Learning IPv4 Routes with OSPFv2," discusses interpreting show ip route output, including

prefix lengths.

2. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson. Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2 "IP Addressing: CIDR" (explains the /x prefix

notation).

3. Cisco IOS IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release

3S. (n.d.). Displaying the IP Routing Table. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/configuration/xe-3s/iri-xe-3sbook/iri-cfg-monitor-verify.html#GUID-A48873C7-059E-470B-B61C-39B9838F0371

(Illustrates show ip route command usage and output format, including prefix length

notation).

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Question 5

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller? A: to secure physical access to a data center B: to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram C: to securely manage and deploy network devices D: to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center serves as a centralized network management and command platform for Cisco's Digital Network Architecture (DNA). Its primary purpose is to simplify network operations by automating device deployment, managing configurations, enforcing policies, and providing assurance for the enterprise network. This includes secure onboarding and lifecycle management of network devices.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: to secure physical access to a data center: Cisco DNA Center is a network management

platform, not a system for controlling physical access to facilities.

B: to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram: While DNA Center can

discover devices and display network topology, this is a feature supporting its broader

management purpose, not the primary purpose itself.

D: to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points: DNA Center manages network

infrastructure, including wireless controllers or fabric-enabled APs, rather than directly

providing Layer 3 routing services to autonomous APs.

References

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center At-A-Glance. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/nb-06-dna-center-aag-ctp-en.pdf (Page 1: "Cisco DNA Center is the network

management and command center for Cisco DNA... Automate device deployment...

Manage your network... Secure your network.")

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center Data Sheet. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/datasheet-c78-739944.html (Section: "Product overview" - "Cisco DNA Center

provides a centralized management dashboard... for automation... and assurance.")

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Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 2. Cisco Press. (Chapter 23:

Introduction to Controller-Based Networking - "Cisco DNA Center provides a centralized

GUI to design, provision, apply policy, and provide assurance for the enterprise network.")

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Question 6

Which encryption method is used by WPA3? A: PSK B: TKIP C: SAE D: AES
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
WPA3 specifies AES-based ciphers (CCMP-128 for all WPA3 networks, and GCMP-256 for WPA3-Enterprise-192) as its mandatory data-encryption mechanism. While WPA3-Personal introduces the SAE handshake for authentication, the payload confidentiality and integrity are still provided exclusively by AES block-cipher suites; legacy TKIP and RC4 are prohibited.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. PSK Pre-Shared Key was the WPA/WPA2 authentication method; WPA3 replaces it with

SAE and still uses AES for encryption.

B. TKIP Deprecated after WPA; explicitly disallowed in WPA3 because it lacks modern

cryptographic strength.

C. SAE A password-authenticated key-exchange protocol, not an encryption algorithm; it

produces the keys that feed AES-based ciphers.

References

1. Wi-Fi Alliance, Wi-Fi CERTIFIED WPA3™ Security Technical Overview, §3.2: WPA3

networks use AES-CCMP-128 (or AES-GCMP-256 in WPA3-Enterprise-192) for data

encryption. https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wpa3-specification

2. IEEE Std 802.11-2020, Clause 12.4 & 12.6: CCMP/GCMP (AES) defined as required

suites; TKIP prohibited.

3. IEEE Std 802.11-2020, Annex J: Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) ¦ provides

authentication; encryption is achieved with AES-based CCMP or GCMP.

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Question 7

What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management? A: per-device B: centralized C: device-by-device hands-on D: CLI-oriented device
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center provides a centralized management platform for network devices. This contrasts with traditional campus device management, which typically involves configuring and monitoring devices individually (per-device, device-by-device hands-on), often through a Command Line Interface (CLI). Centralization is a core tenet of Cisco's Digital Network Architecture (DNA), enabling automation, policy consistency, and simplified operations from a single point of control.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: per-device: This describes traditional management, where administrators often configure

each device individually, which Cisco DNA Center aims to overcome.

C: device-by-device hands-on: This is characteristic of traditional network management, not

the automated, centralized approach of Cisco DNA Center.

D: CLI-oriented device: While CLI access is still possible, Cisco DNA Center emphasizes

GUI-based management and automation, moving away from primarily CLI-oriented

traditional methods.

References

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center At-a-Glance. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dnacenter/nb-06-dna-center-aag-ctp-en.html (Page 1: "Cisco DNA Center is the network

management and command center for your Cisco DNA network. This centralized, intuitive

management hub...")

Cisco. (n.d.). Cisco DNA Center Solution Overview. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna/561

center/solution-overview-c22-738477.html (Page 2: "Traditional networks are hardware-

centric, manually configured, fragmented in their management...")

Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 2. Cisco Press. (Chapter 23:

"Introduction to Controller-Based Networking" - discusses the shift from traditional per-

device management to centralized controller-based models like Cisco DNA Center).

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Question 8

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PC1 to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
Options
A: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2
B: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.16.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2
C: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 172.16.0.2
D: R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
/561 Two static routes are required. 1. A network-wide route that directs every destination in 10.0.0.0/24 to R3™ s next-hop (192.168.0.2). 2. A host-specific (/32) route that sends only 10.0.0.5 (PC1) to R2™ s next-hop (172.16.0.2). Cisco IOS always applies the longest-prefix-match rule: the /32 entry overrides the /24 only for traffic to PC1, while all other addresses in 10.0.0.0/24 follow the /24 route to R3. The command sequence in option C implements exactly this behaviour with correct masks and next-hop addresses.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Routes are reversed/24 points to R2 and /32 to R3, contradicting the requirement.

B. Uses 255.255.0.0 (/16), not /24, so it covers many unintended networks.

D. Masks are incorrect (/16 for network, /24 for host), and next-hop directions are reversed.

References

1. Cisco IOS XE 17 IP Routing: Static Routes Configuration Guide Example: host (/32)

route overriding network route.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutestatic/configuration/xe-17/irs-xe17-book/irs-static-route.html#GUID-0715F5BB-B9F2-4C56-A743-5AC1A3D6E303

2. Doyle,

J. & Carroll,

J. Routing TCP/IP, Volume I, 2nd ed., Cisco Press, 2005. Section 3.2

Static Routes and Longest-Match Routing, pp. 76-78.

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Question 9

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3? A: snmp-server host B: snmp-server community C: snmp-server enable traps D: snmp-server user
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The command snmp-server user is specifically used to configure users for SNMPv3. SNMPv3 introduces the User-based Security Model (USM), which provides message authentication and encryption. Defining a user with this command, along with their authentication and privacy credentials, is a fundamental step in setting up SNMPv3. Other commands listed are either generic or specific to older SNMP versions.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: snmp-server host: This command specifies a trap/inform receiver and can be used with

SNMPv1, v2c, or v3, depending on other parameters.

B: snmp-server community: This command configures community strings, which are

primarily used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c.

C: snmp-server enable traps: This command globally enables the sending of SNMP traps

and is not specific to any SNMP version.

References

Cisco IOS SNMP Configuration Guide: "Configuring SNMPv3 Users" section typically

details the snmp-server user command. For example, in the SNMP Configuration Guide,

Cisco IOS Release 15M&T, the snmp-server user command is described as: "To configure a

new user to an SNMP group for SNMPv3."

Direct URL (example for a specific IOS version, concept is general): Cisco.com, search for

"SNMP Configuration Guide" for relevant IOS. A general reference: Cisco Press, "CCNA

200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1," Chapter 25: IP Services, section "Configuring and

Verifying SNMP." (While commercial prep, the underlying Cisco IOS command functionality

is standard).

Official Cisco Documentation (Conceptual): "Simple Network Management Protocol

Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Gibraltar 16.12.x" - Chapter: Configuring SNMPv3. This

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guide states: "SNMPv3 provides for both security models and security levels. A security

model is an authentication strategy that is set up for a user and the group in which the user

resides. A security level is the permitted level of security within a security model." The

snmp-server user command is central to this. (Available via Cisco's public documentation

portal).

Cisco IOS Master Command List: Searching for snmp-server user will show its syntax and

purpose, clearly linking it to SNMPv3.

Direct URL (example): Cisco.com, search for "Cisco IOS Master Command List" and then

navigate to the specific command. For instance, snmp-server user command reference.

Academic Source (Conceptual understanding of SNMPv3):

Stallings, W. (2016). Foundations of Modern Networking: SDN, NFV, QoE, IoT, and Cloud.

Pearson Education, Inc. Chapter 5, "Network Management," discusses SNMPv3 and its

User-based Security Model (USM), which relies on configured users. (This provides the

theoretical background for why user configuration is key to SNMPv3).

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Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured? A: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.248 ip ospf priority 0 B: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 100 C: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf priority 255 D: interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 98
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
OSPF elects the Designated Router on broadcast/NBMA segments by comparing the interface “OSPF priority” (0-255); the highest non-zero value wins (RFC 2328 §9.4). R1 and R2 already share the WAN network 10.0.0.32. Keeping R2’s existing address (10.0.0.34) but raising its interface priority above the default 1 guarantees it will win the next election. The sequence in option B therefore makes R2 the DR: interface g0/0 ip address 10.0.0.34 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 100
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A – Priority 0 prevents the router from participating in the DR/BDR election.

C – Places R2 in a different IP subnet (10.0.1.0/24); it would not form adjacency on the

WAN link.

D – Subnet mismatch (10.0.1.0/27) prevents adjacency; also uses lower priority than option

B.

References

1. Cisco IOS “ip ospf priority” command— Cisco Networking Software Command Reference,

IP Routing OSPF, §“Usage Guidelines”.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iosxe/iproute/command/ir-cr-book/iri1.html#wp1050757

2. RFC 2328, OSPF Version 2, J. Moy, Internet Engineering Task Force, Apr 1998, §9.4

(Router Priority).

https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc2328#section-9.4

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Question 11

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output? A: key B: array C: value D: object
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
In JSON syntax the label before a colon is a name (key), while the data that appears after the colon is its value (RFC 8259, §2). Inside the shown structure, R1 and SW1 appear to the right of the colon and inside quotation marks; therefore they are string values, not keys, arrays, or objects.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. key Keys are the names on the left side of the colon; R1, SW1 are on the right.

B. array An array is an ordered list enclosed in [ ]; R1, SW1 are individual elements, not the

array container itself.

D. object A JSON object is a collection of name/value pairs delimited by { }; R1, SW1 are

primitive string values inside the object, not the object itself.

References

1. IETF RFC 8259: The JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) Data Interchange Format, §2

Objects and Values https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8259#section-2

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2. ECMA-404: The JSON Data Interchange Standard, §5 Values https://www.ecmainternational.org/wp-content/uploads/ECMA-4042ndeditiondecember2017.pdf

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Question 12

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.) A: single sign-on B: unique user knowledge C: passwords that expire D: soft tokens E: shared password responsibility
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Multifactor Authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring users to provide two or more distinct verification factors. These factors typically fall into categories: something you know, something you have, or something you are. "Unique user knowledge" (e.g., a password or PIN) represents the "something you know" factor. "Soft tokens" (software- based authenticators generating one-time codes on a device like a smartphone) represent the "something you have" factor. Combining these two distinct types of factors, such as a password and a code from a soft token, is a common implementation of MFA.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme for accessing multiple services with

one login; it can be secured by MFA but is not MFA itself.

C: Passwords that expire is a security policy for a single authentication factor (password),

not an additional, distinct factor required for MFA.

E: Shared password responsibility is an administrative policy or practice concerning

password management, not an authentication factor or MFA method.

References

1. Cisco, "What Is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)?" (No specific page, general article)

Direct URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-multifactorauthentication-mfa.html

This source defines MFA as requiring two or more verification factors and lists "Knowledge

(something only the user knows)" and "Possession (something only the user has)" as

categories, aligning with options B and D.

/561

2. Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press.

Chapter 27, "Securing Network Devices," Section: "Passwords and Alternative

Authentication Methods."

This guide states: "Multifactor authentication (MFA) requires more than one type of

authentication. The types are often listed as follows: Something you know (for example, a

password) [and] Something you have (for example, a smart card or a token device that

generates a one-time password)." This supports "unique user knowledge" (B) and "soft

tokens" (D) as components of MFA.

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2017). NIST Special Publication

800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines: Authentication and Lifecycle Management.

Section 4, "Authentication Factors" (pp. 9-11).

Direct URL: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63b.pdf

This document defines authentication factors: "Something you know" (Section 4.1,

supporting option B) and "Something you have" (Section 4.2, of which soft tokens are an

example, supporting option D). MFA involves using factors from at least two of these

categories.

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Question 13

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table? A: when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B: when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid C: when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP D: when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
/561 The static default route was configured with a higher administrative-distance than the eBGP-learned default (a floating static). Cisco IOS installs a route with a higher AD only when no lower-AD route to the same destination exists. Therefore the static default appears in the routing table only if the eBGP-derived default route is withdrawn or otherwise becomes invalid.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: If 203.0.113.1 (the static™ s next-hop) is unreachable, the static route is removed, not

installed.

C: Learning 203.0.113.1 via BGP merely provides recursive reachability; it does not trigger

installation while a lower-AD default still exists.

D: A change of next hop on the active eBGP default does not invalidate it; the route remains

preferred, so the static is still suppressed.

References

1. Cisco IOS IP Routing Configuration Guide, Administrative Distance explains that a route

with a higher AD becomes active only when lower-AD routes disappear.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocoleigrp/47834-ad-admin-distance.html (see section Floating Static Routes).

2. Odom, W. CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Vol 1, ch. 18 Static and Default Routes, pp.

387-389 discussion of floating statics and their installation behavior.

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Question 14

How does encryption project the wireless network? A: via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame B: via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks C: via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it D: via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Encryption protects wireless networks by employing an algorithmic process to transform plaintext data into ciphertext. This makes the data unreadable to unauthorized parties who may intercept it. Only the intended recipients, typically the wireless client and the access point possessing the correct decryption key, can convert the ciphertext back into its original, understandable format, thus ensuring data confidentiality over the wireless medium.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Integrity checks (like MIC) verify that data has not been altered during transmission,

which is a separate security service from encryption's primary goal of confidentiality.

B: Encryption primarily ensures data confidentiality, not the detection or prevention of zero-

day attacks, which exploit unknown vulnerabilities in software or hardware.

D: Preventing unauthorized users from communicating is primarily the role of authentication

and access control mechanisms (e.g., WPA2-PSK, 802.1X), not encryption itself.

References

1. Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter

13: Implementing Wireless LANs, Section: "Wireless LAN Security," Sub-section:

"Confidentiality with Encryption Protocols." (Specifically, "Wireless LANs use encryption to

encode the data so that if it is intercepted, the data cannot be interpreted (confidentiality).")

2. Cisco. (2018). Wireless LAN Security Overview. Cisco Design Guide. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob41dg/emob41dgwrapper/ch2Secu.html (Section: "Confidentiality," "Encryption is the process of scrambling

data so that it cannot be read by anyone other than the intended recipient.")

3. Cisco. (2023). End-to-End Security with WPA2. Cisco Technical Document. Retrieved

from https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/200540/561

End-to-End-Security-with-WPA2.html (Defines encryption as: "The process of encoding

information to make it unreadable to unauthorized parties. In Wi-Fi, encryption protects the

confidentiality of data transmitted over the air.")

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Question 15

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1? A: backing up syslogs at a remote location B: configuring a password for the console port C: configuring enable passwords on network devices D: setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Physical access control safeguards the organization™ s facilities by preventing or detecting unauthorized entry to critical areas. Continuous CCTV/IP-camera surveillance is a standard physical control measure listed alongside guards, locks, and badge readers (NIST SP 800- 53, PE-6; Cisco IP Video Surveillance Design Guide, §1.1). Configuring device passwords or backing up logs addresses logical or administrative security, not the physical layer.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Off-site syslog backup is a data-protection/continuity control, not a facility access

restriction.

B: Console-port passwords protect logical device access, not physical entry to

infrastructure.

C: Enable passwords secure privileged EXEC modeagain a logical access control, not a

physical one.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-53 Rev. 5, PE-6 Monitoring Physical Access, pp. 290-291.

https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-53r5

2. Cisco Systems, Physical Security IP Video Surveillance Design Guide, v2.5, Section 1.1

Role of Video Surveillance, 2013.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Verticals/PhysicalSecurity/IPVS/IPVS25/IP

VSdg.html

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Question 16

Why implement VRRP? A: to provide end users with a virtual gateway in a multivendor network B: to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service C: to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection D: to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is an IETF standard (RFC 5798) designed to provide default gateway redundancy. It allows a group of routers on the same LAN to share a virtual IP address, which end-user devices use as their default gateway. If the master router managing this virtual IP fails, another router in the VRRP group automatically takes over, ensuring continuous gateway service. Its open-standard nature makes it suitable for implementation in multivendor network environments, unlike proprietary protocols.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service

C: to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

D: to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways

References

Cisco Systems, Inc. (2023). IP Routing: HSRP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Cupertino 17.9.x (Catalyst 9300 Switches) - VRRP Overview. "VRRP enables a group of

routers to form a single virtual router. The LAN clients can then be configured with the

virtual router as their default gateway... VRRP is an IETF standard (RFC 5798) protocol..."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutehsrp/configuration/xe-17-9/irxe-17-9-book/vrrp-overview.html (Specifically, the "VRRP Overview" section).

Hinden, R., & Deering, S. (2010). RFC 5798: Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Version 3 for IPv4 and IPv6. IETF. "VRRP specifies an election protocol that dynamically

assigns responsibility for a virtual router to one of the VRRP routers on a LAN. The VRRP

router controlling the IPv4 or IPv6 address(es) associated with a virtual router is called the

Master, and it forwards packets sent to these IPv4 or IPv6 addresses." (Section 1:

Introduction).

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URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc5798

Cisco Systems, Inc. (2023). IP Routing: HSRP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Cupertino 17.9.x (Catalyst 9300 Switches) - GLBP Overview. "GLBP provides automatic

router backup for IP hosts configured with a single default gateway on a LAN... GLBP

performs a similar, but not identical, function for the user as the HSRP and the VRRP.

HSRP and VRRP protocols elect one member as the active router to forward packets to the

virtual router address. The other members in the group are redundant until the active router

fails. Another HSRP and VRRP limitation is that the routers in the group do not share the

traffic load." (This highlights how GLBP differs, particularly with weighting for load balancing,

which VRRP does not use).

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutehsrp/configuration/xe-17-9/irxe-17-9-book/glbp-overview.html

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Question 17

A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172. 31.0 .0/16.72.31.0.0724. and 172.31 0 0/25. How does the router handle the packet? A: It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/16 B: It sends the traffic via the default gateway 0.0.0.070. C: It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/24 D: It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/25
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Routers determine the optimal path using the "longest prefix match" rule. When a destination IP address matches multiple entries in the routing table, the router selects the route with the most specific network mask (i.e., the longest prefix). For the destination 172.31.0.1, all three prefixes (172.31.0.0/16, 172.31.0.0/24, and 172.31.0.0/25) are valid matches. The /25 prefix is the longest (most specific) among them, so the router will use the route associated with 172.31.0.0/25.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: The /16 prefix matches but is not the longest prefix; /25 is more specific.

B: A default gateway (0.0.0.0/0) is a last resort, used only if no other specific route matches.

C: The /24 prefix matches but is not the longest prefix; /25 is more specific.

References

1. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson. (Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, The Forwarding Table, subsection "Longest prefix

matching").

Relevant quote: "When there are multiple matches, the router uses the longest prefix

matching rule; that is, it finds the longest matching entry in the table and forwards the

packet to the link interface associated with the longest prefix match."

2. Cisco. (n.d.). IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Gibraltar 16.12.x - Overview of IP Routing. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/configuration/16-12/iproute-pi16-12-book/iri-overview.html

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Relevant quote from section "Information About IP Routing": "The router selects a path by

finding the routing table entry that has the longest prefix match with the destination IP

address of the packet to be forwarded."

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Question 18

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port. No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch? A: SW1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security violation restrict B: SW1(config-if)#switchport mode nonegotiate SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 C: SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0050.7966.6800 D: SW1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)#switchport port- security mac-address 0050.7966.6800 SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A host-facing port must be forced to the access state (prevents unintended trunking) and restricted to the single, known MAC address of PC1. switchport mode access → disables DTP trunk formation yet still permits a voice-VLAN sub-interface. switchport port-security mac-address 0050.7966.6800 → binds the port to PC1™ s hardware address, ensuring no other device can use the port. Cisco recommends this exact trio of commands for secure host ports.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. dynamic auto still negotiates trunks; no MAC binding or maximum statementdoes not

meet exclusivity requirement.

B. nonegotiate stops DTP frames but default mode may remain dynamic auto; lacks explicit

access mode and specific MAC, so any first device could learn.

D. dynamic desirable actively forms trunks (violates no-tagging rule) and combines mutually

exclusive static and sticky MAC commands.

References

1. Cisco Catalyst 2960-X Switch Security Configuration Guide, Configuring Port Security,

Example 5-2 (switchport mode access + port-security + mac-address)

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/1524e/security/configurationguide/b1524econsolidated2960xcg/b1524econsolidated2960xcgc

hapter0110.html

2. Cisco IOS 15 Configuration Guide, LAN Switching About Dynamic Trunking Protocol

(DTP) shows dynamic auto/desirable negotiate trunks, not suitable for host ports.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/800/820/software/configuration/guide/

15-5/b820SCG155/b820SCG155chapter0100011.html

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Question 19

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity? A: control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant B: automatic adjustment of capacity based on need C: pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need D: self-service of computing resources by the tenant
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Rapid elasticity in cloud computing refers to the capability to quickly and automatically scale IT resources (such as storage, processing, and bandwidth) up or down as needed. This allows organizations to handle fluctuations in demand efficiently, ensuring resources are available when required and not over-provisioned when demand is low.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: This describes "measured service," where resource usage is monitored, controlled, and

reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer.

C: This describes "resource pooling," where the provider's computing resources are pooled

to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model.

D: This describes "on-demand self-service," where a consumer can unilaterally provision

computing capabilities as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with the

service provider.

References

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (September 2011). The NIST

Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). Page 2. "Rapid elasticity.

Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to

scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand." Direct URL:

https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-145.pdf

Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 2. Cisco Press. Chapter 23,

"Cloud Architecture," Section "Cloud Service Models and Common Cloud Terminology,"

subsection "Key Cloud Characteristics." "Rapid elasticity: The cloud can be scaled quickly,

easily, and often automatically."

Cisco. (2020). Understanding Cloud Computing. "Key Characteristics of Cloud Computing."

While specific page numbers vary by document version, Cisco documentation consistently

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aligns with NIST definitions for cloud characteristics like rapid elasticity, emphasizing the

ability to scale resources dynamically. (General reference to Cisco's cloud fundamentals

documentation, which typically reiterates NIST definitions).

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Question 20

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing? A: Reduce the risk of a network security breach B: Comply with PCI regulations C: Comply with local law D: Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Private IPv4 addressing, as defined in RFC 1918, allows organizations to use a specific set of IP address ranges internally that are not routable on the public internet. A key reason for implementing this is to conserve the limited global IPv4 address space. A direct consequence and benefit of these addresses not being globally unique or routable is that Internet routers do not need to maintain forwarding table entries for the vast number of devices using these private addresses. If all these internal devices required unique, globally routable public IP addresses, the Internet's global routing tables would be significantly larger and more complex, impacting router performance and scalability. Thus, private addressing helps manage the size of forwarding tables on Internet routers.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Reduce the risk of a network security breach: While using private addresses with

Network Address Translation (NAT) can provide some obscurity, it is not a primary security

mechanism and not the main reason for private addressing.

B: Comply with PCI regulations: PCI DSS compliance involves various security measures;

private addressing itself is not a direct mandate, though it can be part of a compliant

network design.

C: Comply with local law: IP addressing standards are typically governed by global or

regional internet registries and standards bodies (like IETF), not local laws mandating

private addressing.

References

RFC 1918: Address Allocation for Private Internets:

Section 3: "If a suitable subset of the IP address space is reserved for private use, it is not

visible from the global Internet... Routers in networks not using private address space,

especially those of Internet service providers, are expected to be configured to reject (filter

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out) routing information about private networks." This implies these routes do not populate

Internet router tables.

URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc1918

Cisco Press, CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, by Wendell Odom:

Chapter 14, "Fundamentals of IP Addressing and Routing," section "Private IPv4

Addresses": "The main benefit of private addressing is that it conserves public IPv4

addresses." and "routers on the internet are not allowed to forward packets that use private

IPv4 addresses." The conservation and non-routability directly contribute to manageable

global routing tables. (Specific page numbers vary by edition, but this concept is

fundamental to the private addressing discussion).

Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.).

Pearson.

Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2 "The Internet's Network Layer": Discusses how private IP

addresses and NAT help alleviate IPv4 address exhaustion. The non-globally-routable

nature of private IPs means they don't add to the global routing table burden. (e.g., p. 367-

369 in 7th edition, similar content in 8th).

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Question 21

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network? A: to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device B: to set the severity of syslog messages from each device C: to identify the source from which each syslog message originated D: to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Configuring different syslog severity levels for different devices allows administrators to define the threshold of message importance (e.g., errors, warnings, informational) that will be logged or forwarded from each specific device. This tailors the log data to the operational significance and monitoring requirements of each network component, ensuring that relevant information is captured. For instance, a critical router might be set to log more verbose messages (lower severity number) than a less critical access switch.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device

C: to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D: to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

References

1. Cisco IOS Configuration Guide - System Message Logging:

Source: Cisco, "Basic System Management Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS Release

15M&T" - Chapter: "System Message Logging".

Details: The section "Logging Severity Levels" states: "Logging severity levels enable you to

select the type of syslog messages to be displayed on the console or sent to a remote

syslog server." The logging trap level command is described as: "To limit messages logged

to the syslog servers to messages with a severity level at or numerically lower than the

specified level." This directly supports that configuring levels is about setting the severity

threshold for messages.

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URL (example for a specific IOS version, concept is general): Cisco IOS Basic System

Management Configuration Guide - System Message Logging (Refer to sections on

"Logging Severity Levels" and "Configuring Message Logging to a Syslog Server").

2. Cisco IOS XE System Message Logging Configuration Guide:

Source: Cisco, "System Message Logging Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Cupertino

17.9.x" - Chapter: "Configuring System Message Logging".

Details: The guide explains: "You can control the types of messages that are sent to the

syslog server by specifying a severity level. All messages at that severity level and higher

(numerically lower) are sent." This reinforces that the purpose of configuring levels is to filter

messages based on their severity.

URL: Cisco IOS XE System Message Logging Configuration Guide (Refer to "Information

About System Message Logging" -> "Severity Levels").

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Question 22

What is a function of MAC address learning? A: It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces B: It increases the potential for MAC address flooding. C: It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks D: lt increases security on the management VLAN
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
MAC address learning is a fundamental process in Ethernet switches. By default, this feature is enabled on all VLANs and on all switch interfaces (both access and trunk ports). This allows the switch to automatically populate its MAC address table by examining the source MAC address of incoming frames and associating them with the ingress port. This table is crucial for efficient frame forwarding, as it enables the switch to send frames only to the specific port connected to the destination MAC address, rather than flooding them out all ports.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: It increases the potential for MAC address flooding. This is incorrect. MAC address

learning reduces flooding for known unicast frames by allowing targeted forwarding.

C: It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks. This is incorrect. MAC

address learning is active and essential on trunk ports to learn MAC addresses from

devices in different VLANs.

D: It increases security on the management VLAN. This is incorrect. MAC address learning

itself is a forwarding mechanism, not a security feature. While features like port security

utilize MAC addresses, learning alone doesn't inherently increase security.

References

Cisco Systems, Inc. (2023). Catalyst 9300 Series Switches, Cisco IOS XE Bengaluru 17.6.x

(Programmable Switches) - Configuring MAC Addresses. "MAC address learning is enabled

by default on all VLANs and interfaces."

Direct URL: (A specific URL for this exact phrase in the latest 17.6.x guide can be hard to

pinpoint without direct access to the full, versioned documentation portal structure at the

time of query, but this is a standard statement in Cisco switch configuration guides). A

general reference:

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https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/176/configurationguide/lyr2/b176lyr29300cg/configuringmacaddresses.html (Search for "MAC

address learning is enabled by default").

Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. Chapter 2,

"Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs," section "Building the MAC Address Table: MAC

Learning." (States that the process is automatic and enabled by default).

Cisco Learning Network. CCNA Study Material - Switching Concepts. (Often states that

MAC address learning is enabled by default on all switch ports and for all VLANs).

Example: [https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/s/learning-plan-detailstandard?ltuiurlRecordId=a1c3i0000005hsKAAQ&ltuiurlRedirect=learning-plan-detail-

standard] (Within the CCNA learning path, switching fundamentals sections).

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Question 23

Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? A: management B: control C: action D: protected frame
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Association Response frames are a fundamental part of the 802.11 wireless LAN connection process. According to the IEEE 802.11 standard, frames are categorized into three main types: Management, Control, and Data. Association Response frames, along with Beacon, Probe Request/Response, and Authentication frames, are classified as Management frames. These frames are used by wireless stations and access points to establish and maintain communication links.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: control: Control frames (e.g., RTS, CTS, ACK) are used for coordinating access to the

wireless medium and ensuring reliable data delivery, not for association.

C: action: Action frames are a subtype of management frames used for extended

management capabilities, but Association Response is a distinct, fundamental management

frame type.

D: protected frame: This term describes the security status (e.g., encryption) of a frame,

typically a data frame, not its fundamental 802.11 type classification.

References

IEEE Std 802.11â„¢-2020 (Revision of IEEE Std 802.11-2016): "IEEE Standard for

Information Technology--Telecommunications and Information Exchange Between Systems

Local and Metropolitan Area Networks--Specific Requirements Part 11: Wireless LAN

Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications."

Section 9.2.4, "Frame types," describes the three general frame types: Control, Data, and

Management.

Section 9.3.3, "Management frames," and Table 9-26"Management frame subtype values,"

explicitly list "Association response" as a Management frame (Subtype value 0001). (Page

1010, Table 9-26)

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Cisco Press, CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, by Wendell Odom:

Chapter 17: Wireless LANs, section "802.11 MAC and Frame Types." This section typically

details that management frames include beacons, probes, authentication, and association

frames. (Specific page numbers vary by edition, but this content is standard). For example,

in one edition, this is discussed around page 470-472, where management frames are

defined to include Association Request/Response.

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Question 24

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two) A: ::ffif 1014 1011/96 B: 2001 7011046:1111:1/64 C: ;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d D: 2002 5121204b 1111:1/64 E: FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Options B and D, when corrected for typographical errors (e.g., B as 2001:7011:0046:1111::1/64 and D as 2002:5121:204B:1111::1/64), represent Global Unicast Addresses (GUAs). GUAs are designed for unique, routable IPv6 connectivity between devices, including routers on shared links. The 2001::/16 range is for general global unicast assignments, while 2002::/16 is specifically for 6to4 addresses (a type of GUA). Both are suitable for establishing connectivity. A /64 prefix is standard for IPv6 subnets, including point-to-point links.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Even if syntactically corrected (e.g., ::FF1F:1014:1011/96), this address falls within the

0000::/8 reserved range (RFC 4291), which is not for general unicast assignment on

interfaces.

C: This option contains invalid characters (e.g., ';', 'j') and spaces, and does not conform to

valid IPv6 address syntax.

E: This option contains invalid characters (e.g., 'W', 'l', ')') and does not conform to valid

IPv6 address syntax. The FF02:: prefix indicates a link-local multicast address.

References

RFC 4291: IP Version 6 Addressing Architecture:

Section 2.5.4 (Global Unicast Addresses): Defines 2000::/3 as GUAs. 2001::/16 falls into

this.

(URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc4291#section-2.5.4)

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Section 2.5.1 (Reserved Addresses): Defines 0000::/8 as reserved.

(URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc4291#section-2.5.1)

Section 2.7 (Multicast Addresses): Defines FF00::/8. FF02:: is link-local scope.

(URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc4291#section-2.7)

RFC 3056: Connection of IPv6 Domains via IPv4 Clouds (6to4):

Section 2 (6to4 address format): Defines the 2002::/16 prefix for 6to4, stating these are

global unicast IPv6 addresses.

(URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc3056#section-2)

Cisco Press, "CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1" (1st Edition by Wendell Odom):

Chapter 15, "Implementing IPv6 Addressing on Routers," p. 438: "Global unicast addresses

are addresses that are globally unique and routable on the IPv6 Internet."

Chapter 15, p. 443: Shows examples of configuring GUAs (e.g., 2001:DB8:1:1::1/64) on

router interfaces.

Chapter 15, p. 440: "IPv6 standards suggest that all IPv6 subnets should use a /64 prefix

length."

Cisco IOS XE IPv6 Configuration Guide (e.g., Cisco IOS XE Bengaluru 17.6.x): "IPv6

Addressing and Basic Connectivity Configuration Guide" - "Configuring IPv6 Addressing

and Basic Connectivity" section. (General principle, specific URL varies by exact IOS

version but content is consistent).

Example: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/15-mt/ip6-15mt-book/ip6-addrg-basic-conn.html (Illustrates GUA configuration on interfaces).

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Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet? A: Null0 B: VIan58 C: Vlan60 D: VIan59
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The process a router uses to select a path for a packet is based on the "longest prefix match" rule. When a packet with the destination IP address 10.56.0.62 arrives at router R1, the router examines its routing table to find all valid routes that match this destination. The route with the most specific network mask (the longest prefix) is chosen. 1. The destination 10.56.0.62 matches four routes: o 10.56.0.0/16 o 10.56.0.0/26 (Range: 10.56.0.0 - 10.56.0.63) /561 o 10.56.0.0/17 o 10.56.0.0/24 2. Comparing the prefix lengths (/16, /26, /17, /24), the /26 is the longest. 3. The routing table entry for 10.56.0.0/26 forwards traffic via the Vlan58 interface.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Null0: This interface is associated with the 10.56.0.0/16 route. While the destination IP

matches this network, its prefix (/16) is shorter than /26, making it less specific and

therefore not the chosen route.

C: Vlan60: This interface is associated with the 10.56.0.0/24 route. Although its prefix (/24)

is longer than /16 and /17, it is shorter than /26. The longest match rule dictates the /26

route must be used.

D: Vlan59: This interface is associated with the 10.56.0.0/17 route. The destination IP

matches this network, but its prefix (/17) is not the longest match available in the routing

table.

References

Cisco Systems, Inc., "Route Selection in Cisco Routers," Document ID: 8651. This

document explains the routing decision process, stating, "If multiple routes exist to the same

destination, the router has to decide which route to use. The router does this by first

comparing the prefix lengths of the routes and choosing the one with the longest prefix

length."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routingprotocol-eigrp/8651-21.html

IETF RFC 1812, "Requirements for IP Version 4 Routers," June 1995. Section 5.2.4.3,

"Forwarding Algorithm," specifies the procedure for forwarding an IP datagram. It states,

"The Forwarding algorithm is to find the 'best match' or 'longest prefix match' route for the

packet's destination IP address in the router's conceptual forwarding table."

URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc1812#section-5.2.4.3

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MIT OpenCourseWare, "6.033 Computer System Engineering - Spring 2018," Lecture 12:

Naming III (Routing). The lecture notes describe the IP forwarding logic: "Find the entry in

the forwarding table with the longest prefix that matches the destination address. Forward

the packet to the corresponding next hop."

URL: https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/6-033-computer-system-engineering-spring2018/resources/mit6_033s18_lec12/ (Specifically, PDF slide 17).

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Question 26

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.) A: assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server B: permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface C: allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client D: minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers E: configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A DHCP relay agent is a network device (typically a router) that forwards DHCP messages between clients and servers when they are not on the same physical subnet. One key feature (D) is that it allows organizations to centralize DHCP server management, thereby minimizing the number of DHCP servers required across different subnets. Another essential feature (E) is its configuration: the ip helper-address command, which enables DHCP relay functionality, is configured on the Layer 3 interface of the router that serves as the default gateway for the client subnet. This interface receives the client's broadcast DHCP discovery messages and forwards them as unicast to the specified DHCP server.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: DHCP relay agents forward DHCP requests to a DHCP server; they do not assign DNS

locally. The DHCP server provides DNS information.

B: An interface can be configured with multiple ip helper-address commands to forward

DHCP requests to multiple DHCP servers for redundancy or load distribution.

C: MAC-to-IP reservations are configured on the DHCP server, not determined or enforced

by the relay agent to identify a client's subnet.

References

For D & E (General Relay Agent Function and Configuration):

Cisco, "IP Addressing: DHCP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S - Configuring

DHCP Services," Section: DHCP Relay Agent. "A DHCP relay agent is any host that

forwards DHCP packets between clients and servers. Relay agents are used to forward

requests and replies between clients and servers when they are not on the same physical

/561

subnet." and "To enable the DHCP relay agent on an interface, you configure the IP

address of the DHCP server on the interface on which DHCP requests arrive."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddrdhcp/configuration/xe3s/dhcp-xe-3s-book/dhcp-relay-agent.html (Specifically, the "DHCP Relay Agent" and "How

to Configure the DHCP Relay Agent" sections).

For why B is incorrect (Multiple Helper Addresses):

Cisco, "IP Addressing: DHCP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S - Configuring

DHCP Services," Section: How to Configure the DHCP Relay Agent. The documentation

implicitly supports multiple helper addresses by allowing the command to be entered

multiple times or by noting its function to forward to a specified server. More explicitly, older

guides like "Cisco IOS IP Addressing Services Configuration Guide, Release 15M&T" state:

"You can configure multiple helper addresses on an interface."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddrdhcp/configuration/15mt/dhcp-15-mt-book/dhcp-relay-agent.html (See "Configuring the DHCP Relay Agent"

section).

For why A and C are incorrect (Relay Agent vs. Server Roles):

Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.).

Pearson. Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2 "The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)". This

section describes the roles of DHCP clients, servers, and relay agents, clarifying that the

server handles IP address assignment, DNS information, and reservations, while the relay

agent forwards messages. (Specific page numbers vary by edition, but the DHCP section

clearly delineates these roles).

/561

Question 27

Which is a fact related to FTP? A: It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors B: It always operates without user authentication C: It relies on the well-known UDP port 69. D: It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses two distinct TCP connections to function. The first is a control connection, typically established on TCP port 21, which is used for sending commands (like user authentication, directory navigation, and file action requests) and receiving server replies. The second is a separate data connection, used exclusively for the actual transfer of file data. This data connection is established dynamically, either on TCP port 20 (in active mode) or a negotiated port (in passive mode). This dual-connection architecture is a fundamental characteristic of FTP.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: FTP relies on TCP for reliable data transfer and error control; TFTP (Trivial File Transfer

Protocol) uses block numbers for sequencing and acknowledging data packets.

B: FTP supports user authentication through username and password credentials.

Anonymous FTP is a specific mode but does not mean FTP always operates without

authentication.

C: FTP uses TCP ports (21 for control, 20 or a dynamic port for data). UDP port 69 is the

well-known port for TFTP, not FTP.

References

1. Postel, J., & Reynolds, J. (1985). File Transfer Protocol (FTP). RFC 959. IETF.

For Correct Answer D (two connections): Sections 2.3 ("ESTABLISHING CONNECTIONS")

and 3 ("DATA TRANSFER FUNCTIONS").

For Incorrect Option B (authentication): Section 4.1 ("USER Command (USER)",

"PASSWORD Command (PASS)").

For Incorrect Option C (ports/protocol): Section 3.1 ("FTP Commands and Replies" -

specifies TCP port 21).

/561

Direct URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc959

2. Odom, W. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press.

For Correct Answer D (two connections): Chapter 3, "Fundamentals of TCP/IP Transport

and Applications," section "Common TCP/IP Applications," subsection "File Transfer

Protocol (FTP)" (explains the control and data connections).

For Incorrect Option B (authentication): Ibid. (discusses FTP authentication).

For Incorrect Option C (ports/protocol): Ibid. (details FTP's use of TCP ports 20 and 21).

3. Sollins, K. (1992). The TFTP Protocol (Revision 2). RFC 1350. IETF.

For Incorrect Option A (block numbers): Section 2 ("Overview of the Protocol" - describes

TFTP's use of block numbers).

For Incorrect Option C (UDP port 69): Section 2 ("Overview of the Protocol" - states TFTP

uses UDP) and IANA port assignments confirm UDP port 69 for TFTP.

Direct URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc1350

/561

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet? A: GigabitEthernet0/0 B: Loopback0 C: 10.1.1.1 D: 10.1.1.3
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The router determines the forwarding path by finding the longest prefix match for the destination IP address (172.18.32.38) in its routing table. The route C 172.18.32.0/23 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 matches the destination IP address. The network 172.18.32.0/23 covers the IP range from 172.18.32.0 to 172.18.33.255, which includes 172.18.32.38. This /23 prefix is more specific than the default route (0.0.0.0/0). Since this is a directly connected route, the router forwards the packet out of the specified interface, GigabitEthernet0/0.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: Loopback0: The routing table does not show any route for the destination 172.18.32.38

that would use Loopback0 as the outgoing interface.

/561

C: 10.1.1.1: This is the next-hop IP address for the default route (S 0.0.0.0/0). A more

specific route (172.18.32.0/23) exists and is preferred.

D: 10.1.1.3: This is the next-hop IP address for the network 172.18.36.0/23, which does not

include the destination IP address 172.18.32.38.

References

1. Cisco Systems, "IP Routing: Route Selection in Cisco Routers." This document explains

the route selection process, including longest prefix match and administrative distance.

Specific section: "How a Cisco Router Selects the Best Route" or similar sections detailing

the longest match rule.

URL (General routing principles from Cisco):

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocoleigrp/8651-21.html (While EIGRP specific, it covers general Cisco routing behavior like

longest match). A more general reference for IP routing fundamentals would be from Cisco

Press or foundational networking texts.

2. Cisco Press, "CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1" by Wendell Odom.

Specific chapter/section: Chapter 12: IP Routing, "The IP Routing Process" and "The IP

Routing Table." These sections detail how routers use the routing table, the longest prefix

match rule, and how directly connected routes are processed. For directly connected

networks, the router sends the packet out the listed interface.

3. Cisco IOS IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Command Reference, "show ip route"

command.

Specific section: Description of the show ip route output, explaining codes like 'C'

(Connected) and 'L' (Local), and how to interpret entries for directly connected networks.

URL (Example): https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/command/iri-crbook/iri-s1.html#wp1970079158 (This link describes show ip route and its output fields).

/561

Question 29

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out? A: config sessions maxsessions 0 B: config sessions timeout 0 C: config serial timeout 0 D: config serial timeout 9600
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The command config serial timeout 0 is specifically used on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) to configure the idle timeout for serial console sessions. Setting the timeout value to 0 disables the automatic logout feature for the serial console, preventing the session from being automatically terminated due to inactivity. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent a serial session from being automatically logged out.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: config sessions maxsessions 0: This command controls the maximum number of

concurrent management user sessions (like Telnet/SSH), not the timeout for a serial

session.

B: config sessions timeout 0: This command configures the timeout for general

management user sessions (e.g., Telnet, SSH, HTTP/HTTPS), not specifically for serial

console sessions.

D: config serial timeout 9600: This command sets a specific, finite timeout duration (9600

minutes) for the serial session, rather than preventing the timeout altogether as a value of 0

does.

References

Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Command Reference, Release 8.10:

For config serial timeout: "To configure the timeout for idle serial console sessions, use the

config serial timeout command. To disable the timeout, enter 0."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/command/reference/810/bcr810/commandsc.html#wp1900831111 (Navigate to or search for config serial timeout

within the document).

/561

For config session timeout: "To configure the timeout for idle management user sessions,

use the config session timeout command. To disable the session timeout, enter 0."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/command/reference/810/bcr810/commandsc.html#wp2000081111 (Navigate to or search for config session

timeout within the document).

Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.5:

Chapter: Configuring Controller Settings > Configuring General Controller Parameters >

Configuring Serial Port Parameters: "You can configure the timeout for idle serial console

sessions by entering this command: config serial timeout minutes ... Enter 0 to disable the

timeout."

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/configguide/bcg85/configuringcontrollersettings.html#ID2039 (Section: Configuring Serial Port

Parameters)

/561

Question 30

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3? A: applies 802.1x authentication B: usesTKIP C: employs PKI to identify access points D: protects against brute force attacks
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
WPA3-Personal introduces Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) method found in WPA2-Personal. SAE is inherently resistant to offline dictionary and brute-force attacks by providing forward secrecy and not exposing the password to offline guessing, a significant security improvement. While WPA3-Enterprise also offers enhanced security, SAE's protection against brute-force attacks is a defining and novel enhancement of WPA3.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: WPA2-Enterprise already utilized 802.1X. WPA3-Enterprise continues this, adding

enhancements like mandatory Protected Management Frames (PMF), but SAE (related to

option D) is a more fundamentally new WPA3 enhancement.

B: TKIP is an outdated and insecure encryption protocol associated with WPA and

deprecated in WPA2. WPA3 mandates the use of stronger AES-CCMP encryption.

C: While Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) can be part of WPA3-Enterprise solutions (e.g.,

with EAP-TLS), it's not a universal WPA3 enhancement for AP identification across all

modes, nor a defining feature of WPA3 itself.

References

1. Cisco. (n.d.). Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) Deployment Guide. Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/88/WPA3DeploymentGuide.html (See sections "WPA3-Personal" and "Simultaneous

Authentication of Equals (SAE)" which state: "SAE is a secure key establishment protocol

between devices. It is resistant to offline dictionary attacks...").

2. Odom, W. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press. (Chapter

12: Wireless LAN Security, section "WPA3 Security": "WPA3-Personal leverages

/561

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)...SAE is a secure key establishment protocol

that is more resistant to offline dictionary attacks than WPA2-PSK.").

3. Wi-Fi Alliance. (n.d.). Security: WPA3. Retrieved from https://www.wi-fi.org/discover-wifi/security (States WPA3-Personal offers "more resilient password-based

authentication...even when users choose passwords that fall short of typical complexity

recommendations" and "increased protection from password guessing attempts").

/561

Question 31

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different? A: The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode B: The switch port mode must be set to trunk C: The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP D: IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
For a locally switched FlexConnect AP where its management VLAN differs from client access VLANs, the switch port connecting to the AP is configured as an 802.1Q trunk. Critically, the AP's management interface typically uses untagged traffic. Therefore, the native VLAN configured on the switch trunk port must match the AP's designated management VLAN. This ensures the AP can obtain an IP address on its management VLAN and communicate with the Wireless LAN Controller (WLC). Misconfiguration of the native VLAN can prevent the AP from joining the WLC or being managed.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode: LAG is for

bandwidth aggregation or redundancy, not a primary requirement for VLAN differentiation

on FlexConnect APs.

B: The switch port mode must be set to trunk: While true and essential, if only one answer

is allowed and C is considered more specific to the AP's management connectivity (a

common point of failure), C might be prioritized. However, B is a fundamental prerequisite. If

multiple selections were allowed, B would also be correct.

D: IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port: IEEE 802.10 is an old security

standard, not relevant to modern VLAN trunking, which uses IEEE 802.1Q.

References

1. Cisco Press - CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, Wendell Odom:

Chapter 13: Wireless LAN Concepts, Section: "AP Management and Data VLANs". States:

"To support this, the switch port connected to an AP is typically configured as an 802.1Q

trunk. The AP™ s management IP address will exist on one specific VLAN, which should be

configured as the native VLAN on the trunk." This supports both B and C.

/561

2. Cisco, “FlexConnect Deployment Guide,” Switch Port Configuration section: “If client

traffic is locally switched to a VLAN other than the AP management VLAN, the switch port

must be configured as an 802.1Q trunk.”

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/aironet/116637-flexconnectap.html

3. Cisco Catalyst 9800 Configuration Guide, Release 17.9, “Configure FlexConnect” – note

on AP switch-port requirements for multiple VLANs (https://www.cisco.com/go/c9800-config

> Wireless > FlexConnect).

/561

Question 32

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network. After the initial configuration is applied, it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor. Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1? A: R2(config)#router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 2 B: R2(config)#interface g0/0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10 C: R2(config)#interface g0/0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf dead-interval 40 D: R2(config)#router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#router-id 192.168.1.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
OSPF will not form an adjacency if two routers advertise the same router-ID; the neighbor is simply ignored (RFC 2328 §7.1, Cisco IOS OSPF Configuration Guide Router ID). Because the replaced R2 initially has the same highest-IP address as R1, no unique router- ID is chosen automatically. Manually configuring a distinct router-ID on R2 (192.168.1.2) resolves the duplicate-ID condition and allows the R1R2 adjacency to form.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Places the interface in area 2; if R1 is in area 0 the area mismatch still prevents an

adjacency.

B. Default hello interval on broadcast links is already 10 s; setting it again does not fix a

neighbor failure.

C. Default dead interval is already 40 s; matching values already exist, so this change is

irrelevant.

References

1. Cisco Systems, IP Routing: OSPF Configuration Guide, IOS 15.2 Configuring the OSPF

Router ID, sec. Duplicate Router IDs

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iprouteospf/configuration/15-mt/iro-15-mtbook/iro-ospf.html#GUID-A2DC4E55-5B46-4E39-90D1-0B287392B18E

2. RFC 2328: OSPF Version 2, J. Moy, §7.1 The Router ID, §10.5 Neighbor state

machine Two-way state (DuplicateRouterId event).

/561

Question 33

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port? A: All four pairs of the cable are used B: It detects the device is a powered device C: The default level is used for the access point D: Power policing is enabled at the same time
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
In auto (default) mode the switch first performs IEEE 802.3af/at discovery and classification; it allocates power only after verifying that the attached device really is a powered device (PD). Static mode simply reserves the configured wattage for the port whether or not a PD is detected. Auto therefore prevents wasted budget and protects the switch by supplying power only when a genuine PD is present.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Cable-pair usage is determined by PoE standard (mode A/B), not by auto vs. static

power settings.

C: Both modes can use default or user-configured wattage limits; this is not unique to auto

mode.

D: Power policing (monitoring actual draw) is enabled with the separate power inline police

command; it is not automatically tied to the auto setting.

References

1. Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switch Software Configuration Guide, Release 3.x, Configuring PoE

power inline {auto | static}, sec. 10.1

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/cons

olidatedguide/bconsolidated38503secg/bconsolidated38503secgchapter0100101.html

2. Cisco IOS Command Reference, Catalyst 2960, power inline static / auto, pages 115-

116.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12255se/command/reference/scg/CLIRef.pdf

/561

Question 34

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs? A: LAG B: EtherChannel C: trunk D: access
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When an autonomous Access Point (AP) needs to support multiple VLANs (e.g., mapping different SSIDs to different VLANs), its connection to the wired network switch must be configured as a trunk port. A trunk port can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously, using 802.1Q tagging to differentiate the traffic for each VLAN. This allows the AP to segregate wireless client traffic into the appropriate VLANs on the wired network.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: LAG: Link Aggregation Group (LAG) bundles multiple physical ports for increased

bandwidth/redundancy; the logical port still needs to be configured as access or trunk.

B: EtherChannel: This is Cisco's proprietary term for LAG. It describes link bundling, not the

VLAN handling mode of the port.

D: access: An access port carries traffic for only a single VLAN, which is insufficient when

an AP needs to map two or more VLANs.

References

Cisco Press. (2019). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press.

Chapter 10: Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs. Specifically, the sections discussing VLAN

trunks: "A VLAN trunk is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more

than one VLAN. [...] VLAN trunks are useful for connections between two switches, between

a switch and a router, and between a switch and a server or access point that needs to

support multiple VLANs." (Content paraphrased for conciseness, concept directly

supported).

Cisco. (2018). VLANs on Aironet Access Points Configuration Example. Cisco Community.

/561

Available at: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200series/68062-VLAN-Aironet.html (Though an older document, the fundamental concept for

autonomous APs and VLANs remains valid).

The document states: "When you configure VLANs on an autonomous access point, you

must also configure the switch port, to which the AP connects, for a VLAN trunk." This

directly supports the need for a trunk port.

IEEE Std 802.1Qâ„¢-2018. (2018). IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area

networksBridges and Bridged Networks. IEEE Standards Association.

Section 6.7 "VLAN-aware Bridges" and Section 8.4 "Frame formats for tagged frames"

describe the mechanism by which tagged frames (used on trunk ports) carry VLAN

information. This standard underpins how trunk ports operate to carry multiple VLANs.

(Available through IEEE Xplore).

/561

Question 35

Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines: ✑ R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2. ✑ R1 will never participate in DR elections. ✑ R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1. Which configuration must be used?
Options
A: Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question
B: /561 Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question
C: Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question
D: /561 Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A: Option A B: Option B C: Option C D: Option D
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
https://kxbjsyuhceggsyvxdkof.supabase.co/storage/v1/object/public/file-images/Cisco_CCNA_200-301_Exam_Dumps/page_1493_img_1.jpg
Explanation
This configuration correctly implements all three stated guidelines. The OSPF priority on the FastEthernet0/0 interface is set to 0 using the ip ospf priority 0 command. This ensures the router will never participate in a Designated Router (DR) or Backup Designated Router (BDR) election on that segment. The OSPF router ID is explicitly set to 10.1.1.1 with the router-id 10.1.1.1 command under the router ospf 10 process. /561 Neighbor filtering is achieved with access-list 102, which is applied to inbound traffic on the interface. The list correctly uses protocol 89 (OSPF) to permit traffic only from router R2 (host 10.100.1.2) and denies all other OSPF traffic, fulfilling the requirement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

Configuration with ip ospf priority 100 and protocol 88: This is incorrect because the OSPF

priority of 100 allows the router to participate in DR elections, and the access list filters for

the wrong protocol (88 is EIGRP, not OSPF).

Configuration with ip ospf priority 0 and protocol 88: This is incorrect because the access list

filters for the wrong protocol (88, EIGRP). While the OSPF priority is set correctly, the router

would block all OSPF Hello packets, preventing any adjacency from forming.

Configuration with ip ospf priority 100 and protocol 89: This is incorrect because the OSPF

priority is set to 100, which violates the requirement that the router never participate in DR

elections. The access list is correct, but the priority setting is wrong.

References

Cisco Systems, Inc., "IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference - ip ospf priority," Cisco IOS

IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference. This document confirms that setting the OSPF

priority to 0 prevents a router from becoming a DR or BDR.

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/command/iro-crbook/ospf-a1.html#wp2782285168

Reference: See the description of the ip ospf priority command.

Cisco Systems, Inc., "IP Routing: OSPF Command Reference - router-id," Cisco IOS IP

Routing: OSPF Command Reference. This source specifies that the router-id command

manually configures the OSPF router ID for a routing process.

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/command/iro-crbook/ospf-a1.html#wp4046180553

Reference: See the usage guidelines for the router-id command.

Cisco Systems, Inc., "IP Addressing: Services Command Reference - ip access-group,"

Cisco IOS IP Addressing Services Command Reference. This guide details how ip access-

group applies an IP access list to an interface to filter packets.

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr/command/ipaddr-crbook/ipaddr-i1.html#wp9000100275

Reference: See the command description for ip access-group.

/561

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), "Protocol Numbers". The official registry

maintained by IANA lists 89 as the protocol number for "Open Shortest Path First."

URL: https://www.iana.org/assignments/protocol-numbers/protocol-numbers.xhtml

Reference: See the entry for Protocol Number 89.

/561

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data? A: one B: four C: seven D: nine /561
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A JSON object is formally defined as an unordered collection of name/value pairs enclosed in curly braces {}. To find the total number of objects, we must count every instance of a structure that begins with { and ends with }. Applying this definition to the exhibit: 1. The entire data structure is a single root object. 2. The value of the "aaaUser" key is an object. 3. The value of the "attributes" key (within "aaaUser") is an object. 4. The first element within the top-level "children" array is an object. 5. The value of the "aaaUserDomain" key is an object. 6. The value of the "attributes" key (within "aaaUserDomain") is an object. 7. The first element within the nested "children" array is an object. 8. The value of the "aaaUserRole" key is an object. 9. The value of the "attributes" key (within "aaaUserRole") is an object. This gives a total of nine distinct objects.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: one - This is incorrect because it only counts the single, outermost root object and

ignores all eight of the nested objects.

B: four - This count is incorrect. It may result from an arbitrary counting method, perhaps

only counting the named objects (aaaUser, aaaUserDomain, aaaUserRole) and the root

object, which is not how JSON objects are defined.

C: seven - This count is also incorrect and does not align with the standard definition of a

JSON object as applied to the provided hierarchical structure.

References

/561

IETF RFC 8259: The standard for JSON. Section 4, "JSON Values," defines an object as a

structure beginning with { (left brace) and ending with } (right brace). This standard validates

counting each {...} block as a distinct object.

Source: Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

URL: https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc8259.html#section-4

Specific Reference: Section 4, "JSON Values".

Cisco DevNet Documentation: Cisco's official developer documentation consistently uses

and refers to the standard JSON format. The "Working with JSON" guide reinforces the

standard object structure.

Source: Cisco Systems, Inc.

URL: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/ios-xe/guides/working-with-json/

Specific Reference: The section "What is JSON?" describes objects as collections of

key/value pairs enclosed in curly braces.

Introduction to Computer Science and Programming in Python (MIT OpenCourseWare):

University courseware materials on data structures confirm that in JSON, each pair of curly

braces {} defines a distinct dictionary-like object, which can be nested.

Source: Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).

URL: https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/6-0001-introduction-to-computer-science-andprogramming-in-python-fall-2016/

/561

Question 37

What is a function of an endpoint? A: It is used directly by an individual user to access network services B: It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network C: It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN D: It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
An endpoint is a device at the periphery of a network that serves as a source or destination for network traffic. A primary function of many endpoints, such as personal computers, laptops, and smartphones, is to allow individual users to connect to the network and utilize its services, like accessing websites, sending emails, or using shared resources. While servers are also endpoints that provide services, client endpoints are directly used by users to access these services.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network. This describes the function

of network infrastructure devices like switches or routers, not an endpoint itself.

C: It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN. This is a function of a

network switch, which manages and forwards traffic within a VLAN, including broadcasts.

D: It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network. This

describes the role of a firewall or a similar security appliance, not a general endpoint.

References

1. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1 "The Network Edge": "End systems are also referred to as hosts

because they host (run) application programs such as a Web browser or Web server

program, or an e-mail client program or an e-mail server program." This supports that

endpoints (end systems/hosts) run applications used to access network services.

2. Cisco. (n.d.). What Is an Endpoint? Cisco. Retrieved from

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-an-endpoint.html

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"An endpoint is a remote computing device that communicates back and forth with a

network to which it is connected." This general definition aligns with devices users employ

to access network services.

3. IBM. (2023, November 13). What are endpoints? IBM Technology. Retrieved from

https://www.ibm.com/topics/endpoints

"Endpoints are physical devices that connect to and exchange information with a computer

network. Some examples of endpoints are mobile devices, desktop computers, virtual

machines, embedded devices, and servers." User-operated devices like mobile devices and

desktops are used to access network services.

/561

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration? A: Uncheck the Guest User check box B: Check the Guest User Role check box C: Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0 D: Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The requirement is to ensure that the time users access the network is not limited. In many network device configurations, including Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs), setting a session timeout or lifetime value to 0 (zero) means the session will never time out, effectively providing unlimited access time. The exhibit shows a "Lifetime (seconds)" field within the "Local EAP Authentication" settings. Setting this field to 0 completes the configuration by fulfilling the requirement for unlimited access duration for clients authenticated via Local EAP. /561
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Uncheck the Guest User check box: This action relates to disabling guest access, not to

the session duration for users authenticated via Local EAP.

B: Check the Guest User Role check box: This action relates to enabling and configuring a

specific role for guest users, not the session duration for primary Local EAP users.

D: Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value: Clearing the value is ambiguous; it might revert to a

system default which could be a finite time, not guaranteeing unlimited access.

References

1. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.5 - Configuring Local EAP

(Chapter: Configuring Security Solutions): "User Session TimeoutEnter the user session

timeout value in seconds. The valid range is from 0 to 86400 seconds. If you enter 0, the

session never times out."

Source: Cisco Official Documentation. (A specific URL would be to the guide, e.g., on

Cisco.com, but the content is standard across WLC configuration guides for relevant

releases). For example: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/85/config-guide/bcg85/configuringsecuritysolutions.html (Search for "User Session Timeout"

under Local EAP section).

2. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.10 - Configuring Local

EAP (Chapter: Configuring Security Solutions): This guide also confirms the behavior: "User

Session Timeout ... Enter the user session timeout value in seconds. The valid range is

from 0 to 86400 seconds. If you enter 0, the session never times out."

Source: Cisco Official Documentation.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/configguide/bcg810/configuringsecuritysolutions.html (Section: Configuring Local EAP > Local

EAP General Parameters).

3. General Principle in Network Device Configuration: Many networking systems adopt the

convention where a timeout value of '0' signifies an infinite or unlimited duration. This is a

common design pattern for such parameters. (This principle is widely reflected in vendor

documentation across the industry, including Cisco).

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Question 39

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch, NewSW, to replace SW2. The details have been provided: • Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports. • The existing connections must be maintained between PC1, PC2, and PC3. • Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied? A: NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode trunk NewSW(config- if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10 B: NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode access NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 2 C: NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode access NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10 /561 D: NewSW(config)#interface f0/0 NewSW(config-if)#switchport mode trunk NewSW(config- if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 2, 10 NewSW(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A non-802.1Q switch can receive only untagged frames. By configuring the link as an 802.1Q trunk whose native VLAN is 2, all VLAN 2 frames are sent untagged, preserving connectivity for PC1-PC3. The same trunk can also carry tagged frames for future VLAN 10, satisfying the pass traffic from future VLAN 10 requirement. This is the only option whose syntax is valid and fulfils both constraints.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Makes VLAN 10 the native VLAN, breaking current VLAN 2 connectivity to the non-trunk-

capable switch.

B. Interface is put in access mode; trunk-specific commands are syntactically invalid on an

access port.

C. Same syntax problem as B and additionally sets native VLAN 10, disrupting existing

hosts.

References

1. Cisco IOS XE switchport Command Reference section switchport mode and switchport

trunk native vlan: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/lanswitch/command/lsw-s2.html#GUIDE3A65;

2. Cisco Networking Academy, LAN Switching and Wireless v7, Ch. 3, pp. 134-138:

explanation of 802.1Q trunks, native VLAN behaviour, and switchport trunk allowed vlan.

/561

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question /561 The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration? A: Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x B: Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK C: Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK D: Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A password-based WLAN uses WPA2 with a pre-shared key. Cisco WLC procedure is: set Layer-2 security to WPA/WPA2, tick WPA2 Policy, and select PSK as the AKM; no 802.1X or fast-transition options are required. PMF is disabled by default and can remain so. Option D lists only those precise steps.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Enables 802.1X, which invokes RADIUS authenticationcontradicts the password instead

of RADIUS requirement.

B. Uses legacy WPA (TKIP) and CCKM, both unnecessary for simple PSK and less secure

than WPA2.

C. Adds WPA and 802.11r Fast Transition; neither is requested, introducing unneeded

complexity and weaker WPA (TKIP) support.

References

1. Cisco Wireless Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.5 Configuring WPA2 with Pre-

Shared Keys, steps 2-4. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/85/config-guide/bcg85/wlansecurity.html#id95271

2. Cisco Wireless Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.5 Protected Management

Frames (PMF) (default disabled).

/561

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/configguide/bcg85/wlansecurity.html#id95806

/561

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work? A: Subnet Mask B: DNS Servers C: Default Gateway D: DHCP Server
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The user is attempting to connect to an internet resource, www.cisco.com, using its hostname. For a computer to connect to a hostname, it must first resolve that name into an IP address using the Domain Name System (DNS). The ipconfig /all output shows that the DNS Servers are configured to 0.0.0.0. This is an invalid address for a DNS server, meaning the PC has no configured service to perform name resolution. Therefore, the /561 connection fails at the first step. The IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway are all correctly configured for communication within and outside the local network, but without DNS, hostname-based communication is impossible.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Subnet Mask: The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 corresponds to a /29 prefix. This

correctly defines the network 10.2.2.0/29, which includes both the PC's address (10.2.2.2)

and the default gateway (10.2.2.1). This setting is correct.

C: Default Gateway: The default gateway is the router's IP address (10.2.2.1) on the local

network segment. It is correctly configured and is essential for routing traffic to external

networks like the internet. This setting is correct.

D: DHCP Server: The 0.0.0.0 address for the DHCP Server indicates that the PC's IP

address was configured statically, not assigned automatically by a DHCP server. This is a

valid configuration method and not the cause of the connectivity failure.

References

Microsoft Corporation. (2021). TCP/IP fundamentals for Windows. Microsoft Learn. In the

"Name resolution" section, it is stated: "For TCP/IP to work, you need an IP address for the

destination host. [...] Windows is a TCP/IP client, and it uses DNS name resolution services

to locate hosts and services via their names." This establishes the necessity of DNS.

URL: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/tcpipfundamentals-for-windows#name-resolution

Section: "Name resolution"

Cisco. (2024). IP Addressing and Subnetting for New Users. In the section "How Does a

Host Forward Traffic?", it explains that traffic destined for a different network is sent to the

default gateway. However, before this can happen, name resolution must occur if a

hostname is used. The guide implicitly separates the functions of DNS (name-to-address

mapping) and the gateway (forwarding).

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/137883.html

Section: "Name Resolution" and "How Does a Host Forward Traffic?"

IETF RFC 5735. (2010). Special Use IPv4 Addresses. IETF. Section 3 defines 0.0.0.0/8 as

the block for "'This host on this network'". The address 0.0.0.0 is specified as a source

address for a host during its own IP address acquisition (e.g., DHCP). It is not a valid

address for a destination server, such as a DNS server.

URL: https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC5735

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Section: 3. "Special-Use IPv4 Addresses"

/561

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown? A: Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1. B: Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool C: Apply the ACL to the pool configuration. D: Configure the NAT outside interface
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
After defining the inside and outside interfaces, creating the NAT pool, and writing the access-list, the remaining action is to bind (apply) that ACL to the pool with the command ip nat inside source list pool [overload]. Cisco IOS treats this step as the final requirement for the translator to begin allocating global addresses.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Pool overlap with static entries is not shown; translation simply will not occur until the

ACL-to-pool binding is configured.

B: The outside interface is normally declared earlier with ip nat outside; exhibit shows only

the ACL/pool portion still missing.

C: No evidence indicates the access list is incorrectonly that it has not yet been associated

with the pool.

References

1. Cisco IOS 15.x IP Addressing: NAT Configuration Guide, Dynamic NAT with Pools, steps

1-4 see step 4: ip nat inside source list¦ pool¦ https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/ipaddrnat/configuration/15-mt/nat-15-mt-book/iadnat-dyn.html

2. Cisco Networking Academy CCNA v7 Courseware, Module NAT for IPv4, section

Configure Dynamic NAT.

/561

Question 43

The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements: ✠‘ Create 8 new subnets. ✠‘ Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts. ✠‘ Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet. ✠‘ A Layer 3 interface is used. Which configuration must be applied to the interface? A: no switchport mode trunk ip address 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224 B: switchport ip address 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240 C: no switchport ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224 D: no switchport mode access ip address 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A /27 mask (255.255.255.224) gives 32 addresses, 30 usable hosts (2â�µ-2 = 30). 192.168.32.0/27 is the first of the eight sub-nets carved from 192.168.32.0/24 (increments of 32). Usable hosts in that subnet range from 192.168.32.1-30; the last usable address is 192.168.32.30. A routed (Layer-3) interface on a Catalyst switch is created with the command ‹no switchport, after which the IP address is applied. Therefore the correct configuration is: no switchport ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

/561

A. 192.168.32.97/27 sits in the fourth subnet (192.168.32.96/27) and is not the last usable

of the first subnet.

B. /28 mask supports only 14 hosts; 192.168.32.65/28 doesn™ t meet the 30-host

requirement and keeps the port in Layer-2 mode.

D. /28 mask again allows only 14 hosts; 192.168.32.62/28 is in the fourth /28 subnet and

keeps the port in Layer-2 mode.

References

1. Cisco Systems, IP Addressing and Subnetting for New Users, Section ˜Creating

Subnetworks™ , 2023.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13788-3.html

2. Cisco Catalyst 9000 Interface and Hardware Component Configuration Guide, Chapter

Configuring Layer 3 Interfaces, commands ˜no switchport™ and ˜ip address™ .

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9k/iosxe/17x/configuration/guide/ihc/b17-xihcc9300/configuringlayer3interfaces.html

3. Cisco Networking Academy, CCNA v7, 5.6 - Subnetting IPv4 Networks, pp. 5-6 (host

calculation and subnet increments).

https://skillsforall.com/course/ccna-module-5 (free courseware access).

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Question 44

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.) A: A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port B: Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree C: An aged MAC (able entry is causing excessive updates D: Port-security is configured globally E: The forwarding table has overflowed
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A switch floods a frame only when it cannot perform a precise MAC-address lookup. ¢ A spanning-tree topology change (B) forces the switch to age out/flush its CAM table; until the table is re-learned, unknown-destination frames are flooded. ¢ If the forwarding (CAM) table overflows (E)for example, through a very large number of learned addresses or a MAC-flooding attackthe switch must again treat many destinations as unknown and flood frames.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Cable defects cause link errors or port-down events, not unknown-MAC conditions, so

no frame flooding is triggered.

C: A single aged MAC entry is merely relearned; it does not create broad flooding unless

the entire table was flushed (covered by B).

D: Port-security restricts learning or forwards only trusted MACs; it drops or shuts the port, it

does not induce switch-wide flooding.

References

1. Cisco Systems, Understanding and Configuring Unicast Flooding, Doc ID 17053,

§˜Causes of Unknown Unicast Flooding™ lists STP topology changes and CAM table

overflow as primary causes. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/bridgebridging/17053-46.html

2. Cisco Press, CCNP SWITCH 300-115 Official Cert Guide, Ch. 3 Layer-2 Switching

Unknown-unicast flooding triggered by CAM flush after STP TCN and by CAM table

overflow (ISBN 9780133859726, pp. 90-92).

/561

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure? A: R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 B: R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2 C: R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10 D: R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A host route is a static route that specifies a path to a single destination IP address. This is achieved by using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.255 (or /32). The question requires a host route to the server with IP address 10.10.10.10. Option B, R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2, despite typographical errors ( lp should be ip, 265 should be 255, and 192 168.0.2 should be 192.168.0.2), correctly identifies the server's IP address (10.10.10.10) as the destination and intends the specific /32 mask required for a host route. The next-hop IP address is 192.168.0.2. The corrected command would be: R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 - This configures a route to

the 10.10.10.0/24 network, not a specific host route to 10.10.10.10.

/561

C: R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10 - This configures a host

route to 192.168.0.2, not to the server at 10.10.10.10. The destination and next-hop are

inappropriate for the stated goal.

D: R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2 - This configures a default route, which is

not a specific host route to the server 10.10.10.10.

References

1. Cisco Systems, "IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Release 3S - Configuring Static Routes". Available:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/configuration/xe-3s/iproute-pixe-3s-book/iri-cfg-static-routes.html (Specifically, the section on "Static Routes" and the

syntax ip route prefix mask {ip-address | interface-type interface-number [ip-address]}). A

host route uses a mask of 255.255.255.255.

2. Cisco Systems, "Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands". Available:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13740defaultroute.html (This document explains default routes, differentiating them from specific

static/host routes).

3. Stallings, W. (2016). Data and Computer Communications (10th ed.). Pearson Education.

(Chapter 19 or similar sections on IP Routing often cover static, host, and default routes).

(General academic reference for routing principles).

/561

Question 46

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected? A: Lightweight with local switching disabled B: Local with AP fallback enabled C: OfficeExtend with high availability disabled D: FlexConnect with local switching enabled
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
FlexConnect mode is designed for branch office deployments where access points (APs) are managed by a central controller but need to switch client data traffic locally. Enabling "local switching" ensures that wireless client traffic terminates at the branch office. FlexConnect APs also provide survivability; if the WAN connection to the controller is lost, the AP can continue to operate in standalone mode, allowing existing clients to remain connected and new clients (for locally switched WLANs) to associate.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Lightweight with local switching disabled: This configuration (central switching) tunnels

all client traffic to the controller, violating the local termination requirement.

B: Local with AP fallback enabled: "Local" mode APs tunnel all traffic to the controller. AP

fallback refers to controller redundancy, not local traffic termination or full AP survivability at

the branch.

C: OfficeExtend with high availability disabled: OfficeExtend APs are primarily for

teleworkers, tunneling traffic to the corporate network, not for general branch office local

switching and survivability.

References

Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Configuration Guide, Release 8.5 - FlexConnect:

"FlexConnect is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments. It

enables you to configure and control access points in a branch or remote office from the

corporate office through a wide area network (WAN) link... When the access point is

connected to the controller, it can also send traffic to the local network (local switching)."

(Specific section: FlexConnect Overview).

/561

URL: (A general search for "Cisco WLC Configuration Guide FlexConnect" will lead to the

relevant version, e.g., on Cisco.com. Example structure:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/configguide/bcg85/flexconnect.html)

Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller Software Configuration Guide - FlexConnect

Configuration: "FlexConnect APs can switch data traffic locally and perform client

authentication locally when the connection to the controller is lost. When they are connected

to the controller, they can also send traffic back to the controller." (Chapter: Configuring

FlexConnect, Section: Information About FlexConnect).

URL: (Search for "Cisco Catalyst 9800 FlexConnect Configuration Guide" on Cisco.com.

Example structure: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/173/config-guide/bwl173cg/flexconnect.html)

Understanding FlexConnect - Cisco Community: While a community forum, official Cisco

employee responses often clarify concepts. "FlexConnect APs can locally switch traffic if

configured to do so. This means that data traffic from clients associated to a FlexConnect

AP on a locally switched WLAN will be bridged onto the local VLAN at the AP." (This aligns

with official documentation).

Note: For formal citation, stick to official guides. This is for conceptual understanding.

Cisco OfficeExtend Access Points Deployment Guide: "Cisco OfficeExtend access points

(OEAPs) provide secure communications from a teleworker™ s home environment to the

corporate network." This highlights its primary use case, distinct from a branch office

requiring local switching for all clients.

URL: (Search for "Cisco OfficeExtend Access Points Deployment Guide" on Cisco.com.

Example structure:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/accesspoint/oeap/600/deployment/guide/oe

ap600deployguide.html)

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Question 47

Refer to Itie exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met: • MAC addresses must be learned dynamically. • Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen. Which two commands must be configured to complete this task? (Choose two.) A: SW(config-if)#switchport port-security violation restrict B: SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6 C: SW(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 2 D: SW(config-if)#switchport port-security violation shutdown E: SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The problem requires configuring port security with two specific behaviors: dynamic MAC address learning and logging violations without disabling the interface. 1. Dynamic MAC address learning: The command switchport port-security (shown as already configured in the exhibit) enables port security and, by default, allows dynamic learning of MAC addresses. However, the default maximum number of MAC addresses that can be learned is 1. The requirement "MAC addresses" (plural) suggests that more than one MAC address might need to be learned. Therefore, SW(config-if)#switchport port- security maximum 2 (Option C) is necessary to allow up to two MAC addresses to be learned dynamically. 2. Logging violations without disabling the interface: The default violation mode is shutdown, which disables the interface. To meet the requirement of generating log messages without disabling the interface, the violation mode must be changed. SW(config-if)#switchport port- security violation restrict (Option A) configures the port to drop packets from unauthorized MAC addresses, generate a log message (syslog and SNMP trap), and increment the violation counter, all while keeping the port operational.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6: This command

statically configures a MAC address, contradicting the requirement for dynamic learning.

D. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security violation shutdown: This is the default violation

mode and disables the interface, which is contrary to the requirement.

E. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky: While sticky learning involves

dynamic learning, it's a specific type that also adds MACs to the running config. The primary

need for "MAC addresses" (plural) to be learned dynamically is addressed by setting the

maximum if the default of 1 is insufficient. Basic dynamic learning (non-sticky) also fulfills

the "learned dynamically" criteria. Option C is more fundamental if multiple MACs are

implied.

References

Cisco IOS Interface and Hardware Component Command Reference - switchport port-

security command:

"By default, port security is disabled on an interface... When port security is enabled, the

default maximum number of secure MAC addresses is 1. The default violation mode is

shutdown."

URL: (A general search for "Cisco IOS switchport port-security command reference" on

Cisco's official documentation site would lead to relevant documents for specific switch

models/IOS versions. For example, for Catalyst 9300 Series:)

/561

Cisco Catalyst 9300 Series Switches Command Reference, IOS XE Bengaluru 17.6.x -

Interface and Hardware Component Commands: switchport port-security

switchport port-security maximum value: "To set the maximum number of secure MAC

addresses on the interface... The default is 1." (

/561

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. A network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10 2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet passes through R2. Which command must be used? A: Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115 B: Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100 C: Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115 D: Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
A host-specific static route is required because only the single destination 10.10.2.1 must use the alternative next-hop (R3 at 192.168.1.4) while the existing /24 route keeps carrying all other traffic through R2. /561 The command syntax is ip route [distance] Using the /32 mask makes this the longest-prefix match, so it is chosen before the existing /24 route. Setting an administrative distance of 100 keeps the route less preferred than most other static routes (AD 1) but still preferred over common dynamic protocols such as OSPF (AD 110), ensuring the desired forwarding behavior.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Correct prefix/mask but AD 115 is worse than OSPF (110); traffic could revert to an

OSPF path if one exists.

B: /24 route would divert all 10.10.2.0/24 trafficincluding 10.10.2.1through R3, violating

requirement.

C: Same issue as B; AD change does not fix overly broad prefix.

References

1. Cisco IOS XE Command Reference: ip route syntax, host route with /32 mask, optional

distance parameter. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/iproutestatic/configuration/xe-17/irs-xe-17-book/irs-overview.html (Section: Static

Route Syntax)

2. Cisco TAC How Cisco Routers Choose the Best Route longest-prefix match first, then

administrative distance. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-informationprotocol-rip/13718-56.html (Section: Route Selection Process)

/561

Question 49

Refer the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question /561 What is the cause of poor performance on router R19? A: excessive collisions B: speed and duplex mismatch C: port oversubscription D: excessive CRC errors
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The interface statistics for R19 show a very large number of late/excess collisions while the link is operating at one duplex setting only. Cisco-TAC notes that an abnormally high collision countespecially late collisionsalmost always indicates that the two ends of the link are negotiating different speed-or-duplex values (e.g., one side full-duplex, the other half- duplex). The resulting duplex mismatch forces repeated retransmissions and dramatically lowers throughput, which the user perceives as poor performance.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Excessive collisions are the symptom seen in the counters, not the underlying

configuration fault that produces them.

C. Port oversubscription occurs on a switch backplane, not on a single router interface; it

does not create late collisions.

D. CRC error counters would be high if bad frames were received; the exhibit shows

collisions, not CRC errors.

References

1. Cisco Systems, Troubleshooting Ethernet Duplex and Speed Mismatches, Section

˜SymptomsLate Collisions™ , https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst6500-series-switches/118240-technote-duplex-00.html

2. IEEE Std 802.3-2018, Clause 4.4.2, Late collision generation due to duplex mismatch,

pp. 53-54.

3. Cisco Press, CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Vol.1, ch.10 Interface Troubleshooting,

pp. 254-255 (duplex mismatch and collision counters).

/561

Question 50

Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points? A: Kerberos B: 802.1Q C: 802.1x D: TACACS+ E: RADIUS
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+) and Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) are protocols widely used for centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) services for network administrators managing devices like access points. TACACS+ provides granular control over administrator commands (authorization for configuration), while RADIUS also supports administrative authentication and authorization, often by assigning privilege levels that dictate configuration capabilities. Both protocols facilitate administrator authentication to the access point and play a role in determining what configurations the administrator can perform.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Kerberos: Primarily a network authentication protocol for client-server applications; while

it can authenticate administrators, it's less directly involved in the authorization aspects of

device configuration compared to TACACS+ or RADIUS.

B: 802.1Q: An IEEE standard for VLAN tagging in Ethernet networks, unrelated to

administrator authentication or configuration of access points.

C: 802.1X: An IEEE standard for port-based network access control, used to authenticate

users or devices connecting to the network via an access point, not for authenticating

administrators to the access point for management.

References

1. TACACS+ & RADIUS for Device Administration:

Cisco. (n.d.). TACACS+ and RADIUS Comparison. Cisco Technology White Paper.

"TACACS+ ... is commonly used for device administration... TACACS+ provides router

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command authorization..." and "RADIUS combines authentication and authorization...

RADIUS is often the choice for remote access." (While the quote mentions remote access,

RADIUS is also used for device admin AAA).

Note: Specific Cisco whitepaper URLs can be volatile. The concept is widely documented in

Cisco's security and device administration guides. A general reference point: Cisco,

Securing User Services Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Gibraltar 16.12.x - RADIUS.

Available from Cisco's official documentation site. (e.g.,

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/secusrrad/configuration/16-12/sec-usrrad-16-12-book/sec-usr-rad-overview.html - "RADIUS is a distributed client/server system

that secures networks against unauthorized access.")

Cisco. (n.d.). RADIUS Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting for Managing Cisco

Devices. Cisco Configuration Guide. (Illustrates RADIUS for device management).

Example from a Cisco guide: "You can use RADIUS for authentication, authorization, and

accounting (AAA) of users who manage Cisco devices." (Found in various Cisco IOS

configuration guides for AAA).

2. Kerberos:

Neuman, C., Yu, T., Hartman, S., & Raeburn, K. (2005). The Kerberos Network

Authentication Service (V5). RFC 4120. IETF. (Defines Kerberos primarily as an

authentication service).

URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc4120 (Section 1: "Kerberos is a trusted third-

party authentication service.")

3. 802.1Q:

IEEE Std 802.1Q-2018. (2018). IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area

networksBridges and Bridged Networks. IEEE Standards Association. (Defines VLANs).

URL: https://standards.ieee.org/standard/8021Q-2018.html (Abstract and scope describe

VLAN tagging and bridge operations).

4. 802.1X:

IEEE Std 802.1X-2020. (2020). IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area

networksPort-Based Network Access Control. IEEE Standards Association. (Defines port-

based NAC for authenticating clients).

URL: https://standards.ieee.org/standard/8021X-2020.html (Abstract and scope describe

authenticating and authorizing devices to attach to a LAN or WLAN).

/561

Question 51

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable? A: Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter. B: Both have a 50 micron core diameter. C: Both have a 100 micron core diameter. D: Both have a 9 micron core diameter.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
OM3 and OM4 are types of laser-optimized multimode fibers (LOMMF). Both OM3 and OM4 fibers are standardized with a core diameter of 50 microns (µm) and a cladding diameter of 125 µm. This specific core size is crucial for their performance characteristics in high-speed data transmission, such as 10 Gigabit Ethernet and beyond.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter. This core diameter is characteristic of older

multimode fibers like OM1 and some OM2, not OM3 or OM4.

C: Both have a 100 micron core diameter. This is not a standard core diameter for common

telecommunication-grade multimode fibers like OM3 or OM4.

D: Both have a 9 micron core diameter. This core diameter is characteristic of single-mode

fibers (e.g., OS1, OS2), not multimode fibers like OM3 or OM4.

References

1. Corning Incorporated. (2021). Corning® ClearCurve® OM3 Multimode Fiber Product

Information Sheet PI1370. Page 1. Retrieved from Corning's official website. (Specifies

"Core Diameter: 50 ± 2.5 µm").

2. Corning Incorporated. (2021). Corning® ClearCurve® OM4 Multimode Fiber Product

Information Sheet PI1381. Page 1. Retrieved from Corning's official website. (Specifies

"Core Diameter: 50 ± 2.5 µm").

3. IEC 60793-2-10:2019. Optical fibres - Part 2-10: Product specifications - Sectional

specification for category A1 multimode fibres. International Electrotechnical Commission.

(This standard defines the specifications for multimode fiber categories, including A1a.2 for

OM3 and A1a.3 for OM4, both having a 50 µm core diameter). Abstract available at

https://webstore.iec.ch/publication/60005.

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4. Agrawal,

G. P. (2010). Fiber-Optic Communication Systems (4th ed.). Wiley. Chapter 2,

Section 2.2 "Optical Fibers: Structures, Waveguiding, and Fabrication" typically discusses

fiber types and their core/cladding dimensions. (Standard academic textbook confirming

multimode fiber dimensions).

/561

Question 52

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS? A: UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received. B: UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load. C: UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery. D: UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is desired for applications like HTTPS that require extensive error checking primarily because it provides reliable data transfer. A core component of this reliability is its use of acknowledgments. TCP senders expect acknowledgments for data segments sent; if an acknowledgment is not received, the segment is assumed lost and retransmitted. This mechanism ensures that data arrives completely and correctly. UDP (User Datagram Protocol), in contrast, operates without acknowledgments, offering no inherent guarantee of delivery or notification of lost packets, making it unsuitable for applications where data integrity and completeness are paramount.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: This statement is incorrect; UDP does not reliably guarantee delivery, while TCP is

designed for reliable delivery and retransmits lost packets.

C: UDP does not inherently use flow control mechanisms; TCP employs both flow control

and congestion control.

D: UDP does not use sequencing to ensure packets arrive in order; TCP uses sequence

numbers for ordered delivery.

References

1. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson.

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Regarding TCP acknowledgments and reliability: "TCP provides reliable data transfer. [...]

The sending and receiving TCP entities in the end systems exchange control information

about the segments they send and receive. This control information [which includes

acknowledgments] is used by the sender and receiver to implement a reliable data transfer

service." (Chapter 3.5, pp. 243-244). "A TCP sender retransmits a segment if it doesn™ t

receive an acknowledgment for the segment before a timeout event." (Chapter 3.5.4,

paraphrased, discussing reliable data transfer principles applied in TCP).

Regarding UDP's lack of acknowledgments: "UDP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol.

[...] UDP provides no acknowledgments, so the sender does not know whether a sent

segment has been received at the destination." (Chapter 3.3, pp. 229-231, paraphrased).

2. Postel, J. (1981). RFC 793: Transmission Control Protocol. Internet Engineering Task

Force (IETF).

Section 3.1 (Functional Specification - Basic Data Transfer): "TCP is able to transfer a

continuous stream of octets in each direction by packaging some number of octets into

segments for transmission through the internet system. In general, TCPs decide when to

block and forward data at their own convenience. [...] To achieve reliability, TCPs use

sequence numbers to track octets and acknowledgments to verify receipt."

3. Postel, J. (1980). RFC 768: User Datagram Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force

(IETF).

Introduction: "This User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is defined to make available a datagram

mode of packet-switched computer communication in the environment of an interconnected

set of computer networks. This protocol assumes that the Internet Protocol (IP) is used as

the underlying protocol. This protocol provides a procedure for application programs to send

messages to other programs with a minimum of protocol mechanism. The protocol is

transaction oriented, and delivery and duplicate protection are not guaranteed." (This

highlights the lack of reliability mechanisms like acknowledgments).

/561

Question 53

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4? A: switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd B: switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4 C: switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4 D: switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
To statically bind (manually assign) one permitted MAC address to the voice-VLAN on an access port you must use the form switchport port-security mac-address vlan . Option B follows the exact IOS syntaxspecifying the desired MAC address and the explicit VLAN number 4 that is configured as the port™ s voice VLANthereby enabling port security for that single address on the voice VLAN.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Omits the vlan keyword, so the MAC would be applied to the access VLAN, not the voice

VLAN.

C: Uses the sticky keyword, which tells the switch to learn the MAC dynamically rather than

configuring it manually.

D: Uses vlan voice; while syntactically valid, it is less precise than explicitly identifying

VLAN 4 as required.

References

1. Cisco Catalyst 2960/3560/3750 Switch Command Reference, switchport port-security

mac-address Syntax shows vlan {access | voice | vlan-id}.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/1502/se/command/reference/2960cr/cli.html#wp1253493

2. Cisco IOS Security Configuration Guide, Port Security chapter explains manual vs sticky

MAC address configuration. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/iossecurity/17048-5.html

/561

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The "longest prefix match" rule is a fundamental algorithm used by IP routers to select an outbound interface. When a router receives a packet, it examines its routing table for all entries that match the packet's destination IP address. If multiple entries match, the router selects the route with the most specific network address— that is, the one with the longest subnet mask (the highest number of prefix bits). Identify Matching Routes: We must first determine which of the four routes include the host address 192.168.10.5. Entry 1 (/23): 192.168.10.0/255.255.254.0 covers the range 192.168.10.0 to 192.168.11.255. This is a match. Entry 2 (/26): 192.168.10.0/255.255.255.192 covers the range 192.168.10.0 to 192.168.10.63. This is a match. /561 Entry 4 (/27): 192.168.10.0/255.255.255.224 covers the range 192.168.10.0 to 192.168.10.31. This is a match. Select the Longest Prefix: Among the matching routes, we compare their prefix lengths: /23, /26, and /27. The route with the highest prefix length is /27.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A (Entry 1): While this route (192.168.10.0/23) contains the destination IP, its prefix is

shorter than those of Entry 2 and Entry 4. The longest match rule requires selecting the

most specific route.

B (Entry 2): This route (192.168.10.0/26) is a valid match but its prefix is shorter than Entry

4's prefix (/27). The router will prefer the more specific /27 route.

C (Entry 3): This entry (192.168.10.0 with mask 255.255.0.0) is not a valid match. Applying

the /16 mask to the destination IP 192.168.10.5 yields the network 192.168.0.0, which is

different from the network 192.168.10.0 specified in the entry.

References

IETF RFC 1812, "Requirements for IP Version 4 Routers":

Reference: Section 5.2.4.3, "Forwarding Algorithm".

Content: "When forwarding a datagram, a router MUST use the route in its routing table that

has the longest match with the datagram's destination IP address."

URL: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc1812#section-5.2.4.3

Cisco Systems, "IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Gibraltar 16.11.x":

Reference: Chapter: "Configuring a Gateway of Last Resort Using IP Commands", Section:

"How a Router Selects a Route".

Content: "The router examines all routes in the table that match the destination address,

and if it finds more than one match, it uses the one with the longest prefix."

/561

URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_pi/configuration/16-11/iri16-11-book/configuring-a-gateway-of-last-resort-using-ip-commands.html

MIT OpenCourseWare, "6.02 Introduction to EECS II: Digital Communication Systems, Fall

2012":

Reference: Lecture 15 Notes, "Routing: How packets get from here to there".

Content: "What if an address matches more than one prefix? We use the longest prefix

match rule: the entry with the longest prefix that matches the destination address is the one

used."

URL: https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/6-02-introduction-to-eecs-ii-digital-communicationsystems-fall-2012/pages/lecture-notes/ (See Lecture 15 PDF)

/561

Question 55

What is the function of northbound API? A: It upgrades software and restores files. B: It relies on global provisioning and configuration. C: It supports distributed processing for configuration. D: It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
The northbound API in Software-Defined Networking (SDN) serves as the interface between the SDN controller (control plane) and the network applications or services (application plane). It allows these applications to communicate their requirements, request network services, and program network behavior by interacting with the controller. This abstraction enables innovation and programmability at the application layer without needing to understand the complexities of the underlying network infrastructure.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Software upgrades and file restoration are management plane tasks, not the primary

function of an SDN northbound API, which focuses on application-to-controller

communication.

B: While the SDN controller handles provisioning, the northbound API's function is to enable

applications to request these, not to "rely on" them as its defining characteristic.

C: Distributed processing for configuration describes a potential architectural feature of the

controller or system, not the specific function of the northbound API, which is an interface.

References

1. Kreutz, D., Ramos,

F. M. V., VerÃssimo,

P. E., Rothenberg,

C. E., Azodolmolky, S., &

Uhlig, S. (2015). Software-Defined Networking: A Comprehensive Survey. Proceedings of

the IEEE, 103(1), 14-76. (Specifically, Section III-A, "The Northbound Interface," p. 23: "The

northbound interface is used by applications to make their needs known to the controller.")

Direct URL (via IEEE Xplore): https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/6994383

2. Nunes,

B. A. A., Mendonca, M., Nguyen,

X. N., Obraczka, K., & Turletti,

T. (2014). A

Survey of Software-Defined Networking: Past, Present, and Future of Programmable

Networks. ACM Computing Surveys, 46(4), Article 50. (Specifically, Section 2.1, "SDN

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Architecture," p. 50:4: "The Northbound Interface (NBI) defines the communication channel

between SDN applications and the SDN controller.")

Direct URL (via ACM Digital Library): https://dl.acm.org/doi/10.1145/2650497

3. Open Networking Foundation (ONF). (n.d.). SDN Architecture Overview. (While ONF is

an industry consortium, its foundational documents on SDN architecture are widely

referenced in academic literature and define these concepts). The ONF architecture clearly

depicts the northbound API as the interface between the Network Applications and the SDN

Controller.

A representative document often cited is the "SDN Architecture Issue 1". While direct links

to specific versions can change, university courseware often refers to these foundational

concepts. For example, Stanford's CS244 course materials on SDN discuss this

architecture. (e.g., https://cs244.stanford.edu/ - specific lecture slides would detail this).

/561

Question 56

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices? A: northbound interface B: software virtual interface C: southbound interface D: tunnel Interface
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
In Software-Defined Networking (SDN), the southbound interface (SBI) is responsible for communication between the SDN controller and the network devices (e.g., switches, routers). The controller program uses the SBI to send instructions and policies to the programs or agents running on the networking devices, and to receive information from them.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: northbound interface: Connects the SDN controller to higher-level applications and

services, not directly to programs on networking devices.

B: software virtual interface: An SVI is a logical Layer 3 interface on a switch used for inter-

VLAN routing, not for controller-device communication.

D: tunnel Interface: A logical interface for encapsulating traffic, not the primary interface for

controller-to-device program communication.

References

Stallings, W. (2016). Foundations of Modern Networking: SDN, NFV, QoE, IoT, and Cloud.

Pearson Education, Inc. (Chapter 5, Section 5.2 "SDN Architecture," describes southbound

interfaces as connecting the controller to network devices).

Nunes,

B. A. A., Mendonca, M., Nguyen,

X. N., Obraczka, K., & Turletti,

T. (2014). A Survey

of Software-Defined Networking: Past, Present, and Future of Programmable Networks.

IEEE Communications Surveys & Tutorials, 16(3), 1617-1634. (Section III.A "SDN

Architecture" discusses southbound APIs for controller-switch communication). (Available

via IEEE Xplore)

Kreutz, D., Ramos,

F. M. V., VerÃssimo,

P. E., Rothenberg,

C. E., Azodolmolky, S., & Uhlig,

S. (2015). Software-Defined Networking: A Comprehensive Survey. Proceedings of the

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IEEE, 103(1), 14-76. (Section III "THE SDN LANDSCAPE," subsection "Southbound APIs"

describes these as interfaces between the controller and network elements). (Available via

IEEE Xplore)

/561

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16? A: It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned. B: It floods packets to all learned next hops. C: It discards the packets. D: It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Routers make a forwarding decision strictly on the longest-prefix match found in the routing table. If no table entry (including a 0.0.0.0/0 default) matches the destination, the packet is immediately discarded (and, in IOS, an ICMP destination-unreachable message is sent). In the table shown, every prefix begins with 10.10.10.x but none of the listed masks covers 10.10.10.16, so the lookup fails and the router drops the packet.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Routers do not queue and wait for routes; they forward or drop based on the current

table.

B. Flooding applies to layer-2 switches (or some multicast processes), not to unicast IP

routing.

/561

D. IOS never selects a similar but non-matching prefix; it must match exactly the longest

prefix that contains the destination.

References

1. Cisco Systems, IP Routing Fundamentals CEF and Forwarding, IOS XE Release 17,

section Longest-Match Routing Decision.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13788-3.html

2. Doyle,

J. & Carroll,

J. Routing TCP/IP, Vol. 1 (2nd ed.), Addison-Wesley/Cisco Press,

2005, pp. 43-46 (Longest prefix match and drop behaviour).

/561

Question 58

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table? A: It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN. B: It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port. C: It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame. D: It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
When a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address not found in its MAC address table (also known as the CAM table), it performs an action called flooding. The switch forwards the frame out of all its ports within the same VLAN as the incoming port, except for the port on which the frame was originally received. This ensures the frame reaches its destination if it exists on one of the connected segments. The frame is forwarded unchanged.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B: Switches learn source MAC addresses dynamically, not destination MACs, and don't

create static entries or shut down ports for unknown unicast frames.

C: The CAM table is updated with the source MAC address and the ingress port of received

frames, not the destination MAC address.

D: Switches do not modify the checksum to indicate an invalid frame for unknown

destinations; they forward the original frame or drop it if an error is detected.

References

Cisco. (n.d.). How a Switch Works. Cisco Networking Academy. (Content often derived from

official Cisco documentation and principles).

Specifically, the concept of "flooding" for unknown unicast frames: "If the destination MAC

address is not in the table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports except the port on

which it was received. This is called flooding." This behavior is VLAN-specific. (General

principle found in CCNA curriculum materials like CCNA Switching, Routing, and Wireless

Essentials Companion Guide, Chapter 2: Switching Concepts).

IEEE Std 802.1Q-2018. (2018). IEEE Standard for Local and Metropolitan Area

NetworksBridges and Bridged Networks. IEEE Xplore.

/561

Section 8.8.2 "Forwarding Process": Describes that if the filtering database (MAC address

table) lookup for the destination MAC address fails, the frame is flooded to all other bridge

ports that are in the forwarding state for that VLAN. (e.g., "If no entry is found for a unicast

address, the frame shall be flooded...")

Tanenbaum,

A. S., & Wetherall,

D. J. (2011). Computer Networks (5th ed.). Pearson

Education.

Chapter 4, Section 4.6.2 "Learning Bridges/Switches": "If the destination address is not in

the hash table, the bridge simply broadcasts the incoming frame on all the other lines."

(Switches are multi-port bridges).

/561

Question 59

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack? A: authorization B: authentication C: anti-replay D: accounting
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Authentication is the security method primarily used to prevent man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks. It verifies the identities of the communicating parties (e.g., client and server). By ensuring each party is who they claim to be, typically through mechanisms like digital certificates in TLS/SSL, it becomes difficult for an attacker to successfully impersonate one of the parties and intercept or alter communications without detection. Strong authentication establishes a trusted communication channel.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: authorization: Authorization determines what an authenticated entity is permitted to do; it

does not prevent an attacker from intercepting the communication itself.

C: anti-replay: Anti-replay mechanisms prevent attackers from resending captured, valid

messages but do not directly prevent the interception and impersonation inherent in MitM

attacks.

D: accounting: Accounting tracks actions performed by users for auditing and accountability,

which is a detective control, not a primary preventative measure against MitM attacks.

References

1. Kurose,

J. F., & Ross,

K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th

ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 8.2, "Principles of Cryptography," and Chapter 8.3, "Message

Integrity and Digital Signatures," the concepts leading to secure communication are

discussed. Chapter 8.6.3, "SSL Handshake," explicitly details how server authentication

(and optionally client authentication) using certificates helps prevent MitM attacks. "The

server sends its certificate... The client then verifies the certificate... This part of the

handshake protocol is critically important, as it is where the client authenticates the server."

(Paraphrased from typical SSL/TLS handshake descriptions).

/561

2. Stallings, W. (2017). Cryptography and Network Security: Principles and Practice (7th

ed.). Pearson. Chapter 17, "Transport-Level Security," discusses SSL/TLS, where

authentication of the server (and optionally the client) is a key feature to prevent MitM

attacks. "The SSL handshake protocol allows the server and client to authenticate each

other..."

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2013). NIST Special Publication

800-52 Revision 1: Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of Transport Layer

Security (TLS) Implementations. Section 3.3.1, "Server Authentication." "TLS server

authentication is essential for secure communication. It allows clients to verify the identity of

the server, which helps prevent man-in-the-middle attacks." (Direct URL:

https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-52r1.pdf, Page 12).

/561

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam question R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B? A: 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10 B: 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2 C: 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6 D: 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Explanation
R1 selects the route to host B (10.10.13.126) based on two main criteria: longest prefix match, then lowest administrative distance (AD). All listed candidate routes for the network 10.10.13.0/25 (which includes host B) have the same prefix length (/25). Therefore, the router compares their ADs. The exhibit shows routes for 10.10.13.0/25 learned via: Static configuration (S): AD = 1 EIGRP (D): AD = 90 OSPF (O): AD = 110 /561 RIP (R): AD = 120 The static route 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2 has the lowest AD of 1, making it the most preferred route. This route is installed in the routing table and used.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: This route (AD 108, next-hop 10.10.10.10) is not present in the provided routing table

exhibit for the destination prefix 10.10.13.0/25.

B: This OSPF route (10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2) has an AD of 110, which is higher

than the static route's AD (1), making it less preferred.

C: This specific OSPF route (10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6) is not in the exhibit. The

OSPF route shown for this prefix is via 10.10.10.2.

References

Cisco Systems, "IP Routing: Protocol-Independent Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE

Cupertino 17.7.x" - Chapter: "Configuring Basic IP Addressing and Routing", Section:

"Information About Implementing Basic IP Addressing and Routing", Subsection: "Route

Selection". This document states that administrative distance is the first criterion for route

preference when multiple routes to the same prefix exist. (Direct URL:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproutepi/configuration/xe-17-7/iri-xe-177-book/iri-cfg-basic-ip-addr-rout.html#GUID-C98AFC3A-5387-41E1-9A58-7438F959199C)

Cisco Systems, "What Is Administrative Distance?" - This document explains that

"Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when

there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing

protocols." It also lists default AD values (Static=1, EIGRP (Internal)=90, OSPF=110,

RIP=120). (Direct URL: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interiorgateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/8651-21.html)

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