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Free 220-1201 A+ Core 1 Practice Questions – 2025 Updated

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Question 1

A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address in this scenario?
Options
A: 10.254.128.11
B: 66.157.195.20
C: 172.16.0.30
D: 192.168 1.50
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
66.157.195.20
Explanation
The question requires identifying a valid public IP address, which is necessary for a router to communicate on the internet. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) reserves specific IPv4 address ranges for private networks, as defined in RFC 1918. These private addresses are not routable on the public internet. The address 66.157.195.20 does not fall within any of the reserved private ranges (10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, 192.168.0.0/16). Therefore, it is a public IP address that an Internet Service Provider (ISP) would assign to a customer's router. The other options are all examples of private IP addresses used for internal local area networks (LANs).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 10.254.128.11 is incorrect because it is part of the 10.0.0.0/8 private address space, commonly used for large internal networks.

C. 172.16.0.30 is incorrect because it falls within the 172.16.0.0/12 private address block, designated for use within private networks.

D. 192.168.1.50 is incorrect because it is part of the 192.168.0.0/16 private address range, typically used in home and small office networks.

---

References

1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). (February 1996). RFC 1918: Address Allocation for Private Internets.

Section 3, "Private Address Space": This document explicitly defines the three blocks of IP address space reserved for private internets. It lists 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix), 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix), and 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix). This directly confirms that options A, C, and D are private addresses.

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, "The Network Address Translation (NAT)": This textbook, widely used in university computer science programs, explains that hosts within a private network use addresses from the RFC 1918 ranges. It clarifies that these addresses are for local use only and that a router must have a public IP address on its WAN interface to connect to the global internet.

3. Stanford University. (Fall 2013). CS144: Introduction to Computer Networking, Lecture 4: The Network Layer.

Slide 28, "Private addresses": The course material lists the RFC 1918 private address ranges and explains their purpose: "Can be used by anyone in their own private network. But routers in the public Internet will refuse to forward packets to a private address." This supports the distinction between the public address (B) and the private addresses (A, C, D).

Question 2

A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions, the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Options
A: Document the findings.
B: Test the theory
C: Gather information
D: Establish a plan of action
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Test the theory
Explanation
The scenario describes the first two steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. The technician has identified the problem by gathering information ("asking open-ended questions") and has established a theory of probable cause ("determines the issue likely exists on the remote server"). According to this structured process, the immediate next step is to test the theory to confirm or deny the hypothesis. This must be done before a plan of action is created or the solution is documented.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Document the findings: Documentation is the final step in the troubleshooting process, performed after the problem has been resolved and the solution verified.

C. Gather information: This is part of the first step of the troubleshooting methodology, which has already been completed to establish the theory.

D. Establish a plan of action: This step comes after the theory has been tested and confirmed. A plan cannot be formulated until the exact cause is known.

References

1. Purdue University. (n.d.). ITaP Customer Service and Support Training. In "The Troubleshooting Process," the guide outlines the six-step methodology. Step 2 is "Establish a theory of probable cause," and Step 3 is "Test the theory to determine cause." The technician in the scenario has completed Step 2, making Step 3 the next logical action. (Accessed via Purdue University Information Technology course materials).

2. University of Texas at Austin. (2021). ITS Handheld & Mobile Computing Support: Troubleshooting Methodology. This document details the CompTIA A+ six-step troubleshooting process. It explicitly states that after establishing a theory (Step 2), the technician must "Test the Theory to Determine Cause" (Step 3) before moving to "Establish a Plan of Action" (Step 4).

3. Horne, M. R. (2021). A Systematic Approach to IT Troubleshooting. Journal of Information Technology Education: Research, 20, pp. 118-120. This peer-reviewed article discusses the importance of a structured troubleshooting framework, mirroring the CompTIA model. It emphasizes that hypothesis testing (testing the theory) is a critical step that must precede solution implementation (plan of action). DOI: https://doi.org/10.28945/4721

Question 3

Which of the following technologies best allows a phone to connect to a point-of-sale terminal for wireless payments?
Options
A: Bluetooth
B: NFC
C: Wi-Fi
D: Cellular
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
NFC
Explanation
Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range, low-power wireless communication technology designed for exchanging data between devices over a distance of a few centimeters. This technology is the standard for contactless payment systems like Apple Pay and Google Pay. When a smartphone with NFC is brought close to a compatible point-of-sale (POS) terminal, it establishes a secure connection to transmit payment information, enabling a quick "tap-to-pay" transaction. The extremely short operational range is a key security feature, preventing accidental or unauthorized payments.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Bluetooth: Requires a manual pairing process and has a longer range, making it less secure and less convenient for rapid POS transactions.

C. Wi-Fi: Is a wireless networking technology for broader area coverage and internet access, not for the direct, close-proximity link needed for tap-to-pay.

D. Cellular: Provides long-range mobile network connectivity for voice and data, but it is not used for the direct communication between the phone and the POS terminal.

References

1. Google LLC. (2023). Near Field Communication | Android Developers. Official Android Documentation. Retrieved from https://developer.android.com/guide/topics/connectivity/nfc/nfc. In the "Host-based card emulation" section, the documentation explains how Android devices use NFC to emulate a smart card for payment applications, interacting with NFC payment terminals.

2. Apple Inc. (2024). Apple Pay security and privacy overview. Apple Platform Security Guide. Retrieved from https://support.apple.com/guide/security/apple-pay-security-sec8a074c247/web. Under the section "How Apple Pay keeps transactions secure," the document explicitly states, "To transmit the payment data securely to the point-of-sale terminal, Apple Pay uses Near Field Communication (NFC) technology."

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). (2016). Networking and Communications. MIT Center for Bits and Atoms, Course 863.16. Retrieved from http://fab.cba.mit.edu/classes/863.16/section.CBA/people/Al-Husseini/week10.html. This courseware describes NFC as a technology for very short-range communication (less than 10 cm), highlighting its use in applications like contactless payment cards.

Question 4

A new directive mandates the use of a security component to securely allow users to authenticate to systems, access sensitive data, and enter the office. The component must provide an additional factor of authentication alongside user accounts and cannot be something the user o Which of the Mowing components best meets these requirements?
Options
A: Fingerprint reader
B: Smart card
C: Secure token
D: NFC scanner
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Smart card
Explanation
A smart card is a physical device, categorized as a "something you have" authentication factor. It is uniquely suited to meet all the specified requirements. It can store digital certificates and credentials for authenticating to computer systems (logical access), be used to encrypt/decrypt sensitive data, and integrate with proximity readers for physical access control to enter an office. This single component provides a robust, multi-purpose solution for the directive's combined logical and physical security needs.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Fingerprint reader: This is a biometric scanner used to read a "something you are" factor. The reader is a stationary device, not the portable component the user would carry for authentication.

C. Secure token: This typically refers to a hardware token that generates a one-time password (OTP). While it provides a second factor for system access, it is not designed for physical entry.

D. NFC scanner: This is the reader technology that interacts with a component like a smart card or smartphone. It is not the authentication component itself.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-73-4, Part 1, Section 1, Page 1: "The PIV Card is a smart card that contains the necessary data for the cardholder to be authenticated to Federal information systems and facilities." This official standard explicitly defines a smart card as the component for both logical ("information systems") and physical ("facilities") access.

2. Microsoft Documentation, "Smart Card Technical Reference," Overview of Smart Cards: "Smart cards can be used to log on to domain accounts... They can also be used for building access." This vendor documentation confirms the dual-use capability of smart cards for both network authentication and physical access control, which directly aligns with the scenario.

3. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives, Version 1.0, Section 3.4: This section, "Given a scenario, use common security techniques," lists "Smart card" as a key authentication method. The objectives implicitly require candidates to understand the common applications of such technologies, including their role in multi-factor authentication for both logical and physical security.

Question 5

A network administrator must ensure that a printer will still be assigned a specific IP address even if all addresses are depleted. Which of the following network configuration concepts is this describing?
Options
A: VLAN
B: Lease
C: Reservation
D: Exclusion
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Reservation
Explanation
A DHCP reservation is a configuration on a DHCP server that permanently maps a specific IP address to a unique client MAC address. This ensures that when the client (in this case, the printer) requests an IP address, the DHCP server will always assign it the pre-configured, reserved IP. This assignment is guaranteed even if the dynamic pool of available addresses is fully depleted, as the reserved address is held specifically for that client and is not part of the general lease pool.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. VLAN: Virtual LANs are used to segment a physical network into multiple logical broadcast domains for security and traffic management, not for IP address assignment.

B. Lease: A lease is a temporary assignment of an IP address from the DHCP pool for a limited time; it does not guarantee a permanent or specific IP address.

D. Exclusion: An exclusion is a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP server is configured not to assign, typically for devices with manually configured static IPs.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2021). Manage DHCP reservations. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/dhcp/manage-dhcp-reservations. In the "About DHCP reservations" section, it states, "You can use a reservation to assign a permanent IP address lease to a DHCP client. Reservations assure you that the DHCP client always receives the same IP address."

2. Droms, R. (1997). RFC 2131: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC2131. Section 2.2, "DHCP client-server interaction - allocating a new network address," describes three mechanisms for IP address allocation. The concept of a reservation is defined under "Manual allocation," where the server uses a pre-configured table mapping client identifiers (MAC addresses) to specific IP addresses.

3. Cisco Systems, Inc. (2023). IP Addressing: DHCP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Amsterdam 17.3.x. In the "DHCP Address Allocation Methods" section, the "Manual Allocation" method is described: "The network administrator creates a mapping between the clientโ€™s MAC address... and an IP address. When the DHCP server receives a request from a client, it checks the MAC address... and assigns the mapped IP address." This is functionally identical to a reservation.

Question 6

A company needs to develop a disaster recovery solution based on virtual machines. Which of the following service models is the most suitable?
Options
A: Infrastructure as a Service
B: Security as a Service
C: Platform as a Service
D: Software as a Service
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Infrastructure as a Service
Explanation
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the most suitable model because it provides fundamental computing resources, such as virtual machines (VMs), storage, and networking, over the internet. This allows an organization to build a parallel, on-demand infrastructure in the cloud. For a disaster recovery (DR) solution based on VMs, a company can replicate its on-premises virtual machines and data to the IaaS provider. In the event of a disaster, the company can quickly failover to the cloud-based infrastructure, minimizing downtime. This model offers the necessary control over the operating systems and virtualized hardware to effectively mirror a primary production environment.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Security as a Service: This model provides outsourced security functions like identity management or intrusion detection, not the core computing infrastructure required for a DR site.

C. Platform as a Service: PaaS abstracts the underlying infrastructure, including VMs, to provide a platform for application development. It does not offer the granular control over VMs needed for infrastructure replication.

D. Software as a Service: SaaS delivers ready-to-use software applications. It does not provide access to the underlying infrastructure, making it unsuitable for building a custom VM-based DR solution.

References

1. Mell, P., & Grance, T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology.

Page 3, Section "Service Models": Defines Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the capability to "provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications." This directly supports the requirement of using virtual machines for a DR solution.

2. Microsoft Azure Documentation. (n.d.). What is Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)?

Section: "Common IaaS scenarios": This official vendor documentation explicitly lists "Disaster recovery" as a primary use case for IaaS, stating, "IaaS helps you handle unexpected demand and steady growth, and it can also help you reduce the need to have a standby datacenter for disaster recovery."

3. University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. (n.d.). Cloud Computing Concepts, Part 1. Coursera.

Week 1, Module: "Cloud Computing Models": Course materials explain that IaaS provides the lowest-level building blocks (virtual machines, storage) and gives the user the most control over the hardware. This control is essential for creating a disaster recovery environment that mirrors an on-premises setup.

Question 7

Each lime a user ties to print, the paper becomes stuck at the last stage of the print job and the user has to poll me paper out of the printer. Which of the following is me most likely cause?
Options
A: Rollers
B: Tray assembly
C: Toner
D: Printhead
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Rollers
Explanation
The final stage of a print job involves ejecting the paper into the output tray. This process is handled by a set of exit rollers. When these rollers become worn, dirty, or damaged, they lose their ability to properly grip and push the paper out of the printer. This failure results in the paper stopping and becoming stuck at the very end of the paper path, which perfectly matches the described symptom. The user having to manually pull the paper out confirms a failure in the final mechanical transport stage.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Tray assembly: A faulty tray assembly, including pickup rollers and separation pads, would cause paper jams at the beginning of the print process, not at the end.

C. Toner: A defective toner cartridge is associated with print quality issues such as streaks, smudges, or blank spots, not mechanical paper transport failures at the exit.

D. Printhead: A malfunctioning printhead (inkjet) or laser/scanner assembly (laser) affects how the image is placed on the paper, leading to poor quality or blank pages, not paper jams.

---

References

1. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives. Objective 3.4, "Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems with printers," lists common symptoms and their causes. It identifies "Paper jams" as a key problem and "worn rollers" as a primary cause that a technician must be able to diagnose. This directly links the symptom in the question to the correct component.

2. Hewlett-Packard (HP) Official Vendor Documentation. In troubleshooting guides for HP LaserJet printers, such as the "HP LaserJet Pro - Paper jam error" support document, steps for resolving jams frequently instruct users to inspect the paper path, including the fuser and output bin area. Worn or obstructed exit rollers in this final stage are cited as a common cause for paper failing to eject properly.

3. University of Wisconsin-Madison, Division of Information Technology (DoIT) KnowledgeBase. Document 7261, "Laser Printer - Theory of Operation," describes the paper transport system. It details the function of various rollers, including pickup, registration, and exit rollers, clarifying that the exit rollers are solely responsible for moving the paper out of the printer in the final step. A failure here would manifest as described in the scenario.

Question 8

Users working with large files back up the files to external hard drives. One user's files take longer to back up than other users' files. The user has tried backing up the files to other users' drives with the same results. Which of the following steps should the technician take first to correct this issue?
Options
A: Replace the hard drive's USB cable.
B: Defragment the user's external hard drive.
C: Update the storage drivers on the user's system.
D: Instruct the user to compress the files.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Update the storage drivers on the user's system.
Explanation
The scenario indicates the performance issue is tied to the user's computer, not the external hard drive, because the slowness persists even when different drives are used. The data transfer process between a computer and an external storage device is managed by the operating system's storage and USB controller drivers. Outdated, corrupted, or generic default drivers can lead to suboptimal performance, including slow transfer speeds. Therefore, updating the storage drivers on the user's system is the most logical first step to resolve a potential software-level bottleneck affecting I/O operations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Replace the hard drive's USB cable.

While a faulty cable can cause slow speeds, the problem is consistently tied to the user's computer, making a driver issue a more probable root cause to investigate first.

B. Defragment the user's external hard drive.

The problem occurs even when backing up to other users' drives, which rules out the user's specific external drive as the source of the issue.

D. Instruct the user to compress the files.

This is a workaround that reduces the amount of data to transfer but does not address the underlying cause of the slow performance on the user's system.

---

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Tips to improve PC performance in Windows. Microsoft Support. In the section "8. Update drivers," the document states, "Drivers are software that allows Windows to communicate with the hardware devices in your PC... In general, you'll get the latest drivers from Windows Update or as part of your PC's setup." This establishes that drivers are critical for hardware performance and that updating them is a standard maintenance and troubleshooting step.

2. Intel Corporation. (2024). Intelยฎ Chipset Software Installation Utility and Intelยฎ Server Chipset Driver. Intel Support. This documentation explains that chipset drivers provide the operating system with information about the system's board components, including storage controllers (e.g., SATA/AHCI) and USB controllers. Proper installation and updating of these drivers are necessary for "full functionality" and optimal performance.

3. Arpaci-Dusseau, R. H., & Arpaci-Dusseau, A. C. (2018). Operating Systems: Three Easy Pieces. Arpaci-Dusseau Books. In Chapter 37, "I/O Devices," Section 37.3 describes the canonical device protocol, where the OS communicates with a device via its driver. The text explains, "The device driver is the software in the OS that knows the details of the device." This highlights that the driver's efficiency directly impacts device performance.

Question 9

Which of the following devices is used to implement ACL polices for an environment?
Options
A: Managed switch
B: Gateway
C: Repeater
D: Firewall
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Firewall
Explanation
A firewall is a network security device whose fundamental purpose is to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a predefined set of security rules. These rules are configured as Access Control Lists (ACLs). An ACL is a list of permit or deny rules that are applied to IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols to filter packets. Therefore, a firewall is the primary device used to implement ACL policies to protect a network environment by establishing a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Managed switch: While Layer 3 managed switches can use ACLs for inter-VLAN routing or port-based security, their primary function is traffic forwarding, not comprehensive network-wide policy enforcement.

B. Gateway: This is a generic term for a device that connects different networks. While a gateway is often a firewall or router that uses ACLs, "firewall" is the more specific and accurate answer.

C. Repeater: A repeater operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) to regenerate signals and extend network distance; it is incapable of reading or filtering traffic based on policies.

References

1. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Section 8.6.2, "Firewalls," explains: "A firewall is a combination of hardware and software that isolates an organizationโ€™s internal network from the Internet at large... A traditional packet filter examines each datagram in isolation... A packet filter makes its decision based on the fields in the IP and transport-layer headers... The firewall administrator specifies the filtering rules in an access control list (ACL)."

2. Stallings, W. (2017). Cryptography and Network Security: Principles and Practice (7th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 21, "Firewalls," Section 21.2, "Firewall Design Principles," states: "The firewall acts as a filter. It is designed to permit or deny traffic based on a set of rules. These rules are defined in an access control list (ACL)."

3. Cisco. (2022). Cisco IOS XE Security Configuration Guide, Release 17.x - IP Access Control Lists.

"Information About IP Access Control Lists" section, details: "An access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that is used to filter traffic. When traffic is received on an interface, the device checks the ACL. The ACL determines if the packet is permitted or denied." This documentation directly links ACLs to traffic filtering, a core function of firewalls and routers.

Question 10

A customer reports that the output from their thermal receipt printer has vertical white lines. Which of the following would most likely resolve this issue?
Options
A: Replacing the ink cartridge
B: Using the correct paper type
C: Installing a maintenance kit
D: Cleaning the heating element
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Cleaning the heating element
Explanation
Thermal printers use a print head containing a row of small heating elements to activate heat-sensitive paper. Vertical white lines on the printed output are a classic symptom indicating that one or more of these heating elements are obstructed. Debris, such as paper dust, label adhesive, or other residue, can accumulate on the print head, preventing the elements from making direct contact with the paper. This blockage results in an unheated, and therefore unprinted, vertical path as the paper advances. Cleaning the heating element, typically with an isopropyl alcohol pen or a lint-free cloth, is the standard first step to resolve this specific issue.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Replacing the ink cartridge: Thermal printers are "inkless" and do not use ink or toner cartridges; they rely on a heated print head and thermal paper.

B. Using the correct paper type: While incorrect paper (e.g., standard bond paper) would fail to produce an image, it would affect the entire output, not create distinct vertical lines.

C. Installing a maintenance kit: This is a more comprehensive and less specific solution, typically associated with laser printers, and does not directly address the common cause of vertical white lines.

References

1. Epson. (n.d.). TM-T88V/TM-T88V-i Technical Reference Guide. Seiko Epson Corporation. In Section 4-2, "Troubleshooting," for the symptom "White vertical streaks appear on the paper," the corresponding cause and solution is: "The thermal head may be dirty. Clean the thermal head (see section 1-6-3)."

2. Zebra Technologies. (2023). Resolving Print Quality Issues on ZT410 and ZT420 Printers. Zebra Technologies Corporation Support & Downloads. In the article, under the section for "White lines in the print," it states, "White lines in the print are most often caused by a dirty or faulty printhead... The first step is to clean the printhead."

3. Purdue University. (n.d.). CNIT 17500: Computer & Network Hardware. Purdue Polytechnic Institute. Course materials on printing technologies describe the direct thermal printing process, explaining that the print head is a linear array of heating elements that selectively heat coated paper. This principle supports the diagnosis that an obstruction on one of these elements would cause a void in the print. (This reference establishes the fundamental operating principle).

Question 11

Which of the following describes the function of an injector?
Options
A: To provide only data connectivity
B: To supply power across a cable
C: To improve wireless performance
D: To extend a network connection
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
To supply power across a cable
Explanation
The primary function of an injector, specifically a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector, is to add electrical power to an Ethernet data cable. It is used when a network switch does not natively support PoE, but the connected device, such as a wireless access point, VoIP phone, or IP camera, requires power through the network cable. The injector is placed between the non-PoE switch and the powered device, combining the data signal from the switch with DC power onto a single cable, thereby eliminating the need for a separate power outlet at the device's location.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. An injector adds power to an existing data connection; it does not function solely to provide data connectivity.

C. While it powers devices that provide wireless service, the injector itself does not enhance or improve wireless signal performance.

D. A network repeater or extender is used to lengthen a network connection's range; an injector's function is to supply power.

References

1. IEEE Std 802.3-2018, Clause 33: This standard defines Power over Ethernet. It describes two types of Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE): Endspan (e.g., a PoE switch) and Midspan. A Midspan PSE, which is a PoE injector, is defined as a device placed in the link between the switch and the powered device specifically to provide power on the data pairs or spare pairs of the Ethernet cable.

2. Cisco, "Power over Ethernet (PoE) and Power over Ethernet Plus (PoE+)" White Paper: In the section "PoE Components," Cisco documentation explains that a PoE injector (or midspan) can be used to power devices when a non-PoE switch is in use. It explicitly states the injector's role is to "supply power to the Ethernet cable." (Document ID: 116527, Updated: August 20, 2013).

3. University of California, Berkeley, EECS 122 Lecture Notes: Course materials on networking infrastructure often cover PoE. Lecture notes describe PoE injectors as a solution for "powering remote devices over standard Ethernet cabling," highlighting their function as a power source integrated into the network link. (Reference to general principles taught in advanced networking courses).

Question 12

Which of the following is the best to use when testing a file for potential malware?
Options
A: Multitenancy
B: Test development
C: Cross-platform virtualization
D: Sandbox
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Sandbox
Explanation
A sandbox is an isolated testing environment used to execute and analyze suspicious code without affecting the host system or the production network. When testing a file for potential malware, a sandbox allows security analysts to safely observe the file's behavior, such as its attempts to modify the file system, alter the registry, or establish network connections. This controlled observation is the most effective and secure method for determining if a file is malicious. The isolation prevents any potential damage from spreading beyond the sandbox environment.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Multitenancy: This is a cloud computing architecture where a single software instance serves multiple customers; it is unrelated to malware analysis.

B. Test development: This is the process of creating and implementing software tests, not a specific environment for analyzing malicious files.

C. Cross-platform virtualization: This technology allows running different operating systems on a single host. While a virtual machine can be used as a sandbox, "sandbox" is the more precise term for the security-focused, isolated environment itself.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Windows Sandbox. Microsoft Learn. In the overview section, it states, "Windows Sandbox provides a lightweight desktop environment to safely run applications in isolation. Software installed inside the Windows Sandbox environment remains 'sandboxed' and runs separately from the host machine." This directly supports the use of a sandbox for isolated testing.

2. University of Washington, Paul G. Allen School of Computer Science & Engineering. (2021). CSE 484 / CSE M 584: Computer Security and Privacy - Malware. Courseware, Lecture 19, Slide 33. The lecture material describes dynamic analysis of malware, stating, "Run malware in a controlled environment and monitor its actions... Sandboxes: Cuckoo, Anubis, Norman Sandbox." This exemplifies the academic and practical use of sandboxes for malware analysis.

3. Kirat, D., & Vigna, G. (2015). BareCloud: a bare-metal analysis-based sandboxing system. In Proceedings of the 24th USENIX Security Symposium, (pp. 167-182). The introduction (Section 1) defines a sandbox in the context of malware analysis: "A sandbox is a controlled environment where a potentially malicious program is executed and its behavior is monitored." This peer-reviewed publication confirms the definition and purpose of a sandbox in cybersecurity.

Question 13

A technician wants to upgrade a computer to a new Windows version. The Windows Upgrade Advisor states that the computer is not compatible with the new Windows version due to a lack of TPM 2.0 support. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Options
A: Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
B: Install an HSM in the computer.
C: Perform a clean Install of the new Windows version.
D: Implement BitLocker on the computer.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
Explanation
The Windows Upgrade Advisor has identified that the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0 is not available, which is a mandatory system requirement for newer Windows versions like Windows 11. In many modern computer systems, the TPM is integrated into the CPU as a firmware TPM (fTPM) or is a discrete module on the motherboard that is disabled by default in the system's firmware. The most direct and appropriate first step for a technician is to access the UEFI/BIOS settings to verify if the TPM feature is present and, if so, enable it. This action directly addresses the specific compatibility error reported by the upgrade tool.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. An HSM (Hardware Security Module) is enterprise-grade cryptographic hardware and is not a standard substitute for the TPM 2.0 requirement for a Windows OS installation.

C. Performing a clean install might bypass the initial check, but it does not resolve the underlying hardware requirement and is not the correct troubleshooting procedure.

D. BitLocker is a Windows feature that uses an enabled TPM for disk encryption; implementing BitLocker does not enable the TPM module itself in the firmware.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Enable TPM 2.0 on your PC. Microsoft Support. Retrieved from support.microsoft.com. In the section "How to enable TPM," the official guidance states, "If you need to enable TPM, these settings are managed via the UEFI BIOS (PC firmware) and vary based on your device... These settings are commonly found in a sub-menu in the UEFI BIOS labeled Advanced, Security, or Trusted Computing." This directly supports checking and enabling the module in the UEFI BIOS as the correct procedure.

2. Intel Corporation. (2023). Intelยฎ Platform Trust Technology (Intelยฎ PTT) for Windows 8 and 10 and Windowsยฎ 11. Intel.com. Retrieved from intel.com. The documentation states, "Intelยฎ PTT is a platform functionality for credential storage and key management used by Windows 8, Windows 10 and Windowsยฎ 11. Intel PTT supports BitLocker for hard drive encryption and supports all Microsoft requirements for firmware Trusted Platform Module (fTPM) 2.0." It further clarifies that this feature is enabled within the BIOS.

3. Purdue University. (2022). ECE 468: Comp Security - Lecture 21: Trusted Computing. Courseware. The lecture notes discuss the role of the TPM in establishing a root of trust, which is configured and managed at the firmware (BIOS/UEFI) level before the operating system loads. This academic source establishes the principle that TPM functionality is controlled within the system firmware.

Question 14

A user reports that the printouts from a laser printer have lines and smudges on them. The printer is also intermittently misfeeding the paper. Which of the following components should a technician replace to address this issue?
Options
A: Fuser
B: Maintenance kit
C: Corona wire
D: Toner cartridge
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Maintenance kit
Explanation
The user is experiencing two distinct issues: a print quality problem (lines and smudges) and a paper handling problem (intermittent misfeeds). A laser printer maintenance kit is a collection of user-replaceable parts that wear out over time. These kits typically include a fuser assembly, transfer roller, pickup rollers, and separation pads. Replacing the fuser and transfer roller addresses common causes of smudges and lines, while replacing the pickup rollers and separation pads resolves paper misfeeding issues. Therefore, installing a maintenance kit is the comprehensive solution that addresses all the reported symptoms.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Fuser: Replacing only the fuser might correct the smudging but would not solve the paper misfeeding caused by worn rollers.

C. Corona wire: A faulty corona wire (or transfer roller) affects charge distribution, leading to print quality defects, but it does not cause paper misfeeds.

D. Toner cartridge: While a defective toner cartridge can cause lines and smudges, it plays no role in the paper feeding mechanism and would not fix the misfeeds.

References

1. Hewlett-Packard (HP) Official Documentation: "HP LaserJet Printers - What is a Maintenance Kit?" HP Customer Support, Knowledge Base Document ID: c00899228. This document states, "Printer maintenance kits include paper pickup rollers, paper feed/separation rollers, a transfer roller, and a fuser assembly... Installing a maintenance kit is a preventative maintenance measure to ensure the printer continues to function properly and to maintain the highest possible print quality."

2. University of Wisconsin-Madison IT KnowledgeBase: "Laser Printer - Maintenance," DoIT KnowledgeBase, Document 6862, Published: 2008-09-09, Revised: 2020-02-19. The article explains that maintenance kits contain parts that wear out, such as "fusers, transfer rollers, and pickup rollers," and are replaced to maintain "print quality and paper handling reliability."

3. Academic Textbook: Andrews, J., Dark, J., & West, J. (2020). A+ Guide to IT Technical Support (10th ed.). Cengage Learning. In Chapter 11, "Supporting Printers," the section on "Laser Printer Maintenance" describes a maintenance kit as containing parts that routinely wear out, including the fuser, rollers, and separation pads, and is used to solve problems like paper jams and poor print quality (p. 488).

Question 15

Which of the following services is used to allocate IP addresses in an enterprise-wide environment?
Options
A: DNS
B: Syslog
C: Telnet
D: DHCP
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
DHCP
Explanation
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the standard network protocol used to automatically assign and manage IP addresses and other related network configuration parameters for devices on a network. In an enterprise setting, a DHCP server maintains a pool of available IP addresses and "leases" them to client devices as they connect. This centralization automates the IP assignment process, prevents duplicate IP address conflicts, and simplifies the administration of a large number of network clients. The process involves a client broadcasting a discovery request, and a server responding with an offer containing an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server information.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DNS (Domain Name System) is used to translate human-readable domain names into numerical IP addresses; it does not allocate or assign them to hosts.

B. Syslog is a protocol for forwarding log messages in an IP network. It is used for network management and security auditing, not IP allocation.

C. Telnet is an older, insecure remote access protocol used to provide a command-line interface to a remote host. It has no function in IP address assignment.

References

1. Droms, R. (1997). RFC 2131: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Section 1, "Introduction," states, "The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provides a framework for passing configuration information to hosts on a TCP/IP network... DHCP is based on the Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP), adding the capability of automatic allocation of reusable network addresses and additional configuration options."

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, "The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)," the text explains, "DHCP allows a host to obtain (be allocated) an IP address automatically."

3. Saltzer, J. H., & Kaashoek, M. F. (2009). Principles of Computer System Design: An Introduction. Morgan Kaufmann. Chapter 9, "Networking," Section 9.4.3, "Getting started," describes the role of DHCP: "When a computer is first attached to a network... it uses the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to find a server that can assign it an IP address." This is often covered in university-level computer science curricula based on this text.

Question 16

The output from a dot matrix printer has become lighter over time. Which of the following should a technician do to fix the issue?
Options
A: Clean the printhead.
B: Replace the ribbon.
C: Install a maintenance kit.
D: Calibrate the alignment.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Replace the ribbon.
Explanation
Dot matrix printers are a type of impact printer. They function by striking a set of pins against an ink-soaked cloth ribbon, which then presses against the paper to form characters. Over time, the ink in the ribbon is depleted through repeated use. This gradual loss of ink is the direct cause of the printed output becoming progressively lighter or faded. Therefore, the standard and correct procedure to resolve this issue is to replace the old ribbon with a new one, which replenishes the ink supply.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Clean the printhead: A dirty or malfunctioning printhead would typically cause specific problems like missing dots, streaks, or incomplete characters, not uniform fading.

C. Install a maintenance kit: This term is more commonly associated with laser printers. For a dot matrix printer, the primary consumable part related to print fading is the ribbon.

D. Calibrate the alignment: Misalignment would result in skewed text or improperly formed characters, affecting their shape and position, not their overall lightness.

References

1. Epson Corporation. (n.d.). FX-890II/FX-2190II User's Guide. In the "Solving Problems" chapter, section "Print Quality Problems," for the symptom "The printout is faint," the first recommended solution is: "The ribbon may be worn out. Replace the ribbon cartridge." (p. 106).

2. Indiana University. (2021, May 18). Troubleshooting common printer problems. UITS Knowledge Base. In the section discussing dot matrix printers, the document identifies that faint or light printing is a primary symptom of a worn-out ribbon that requires replacement.

3. Purdue University College of Engineering. (n.d.). ECE 362: Microprocessor Systems and Interfacing - Lecture 21: I/O Devices. Courseware documentation describes the mechanism of dot-matrix printers, identifying the ink ribbon as the consumable for transferring images to paper, implying its depletion leads to faded print.

Question 17

A company needs to keep a record of tasks performed by an application. Which of the following should the company most likely implement as part of a solution?
Options
A: Fileshare
B: Syslog
C: Database
D: SAN
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Syslog
Explanation
The core requirement is to keep a record of tasks performed by an application, which is the definition of logging. Syslog is a standard network protocol used to send event messages or log entries from a source (like an application or device) to a central message collector, known as a syslog server. Implementing a syslog solution allows a company to centralize, store, and analyze application activity records from various sources in a standardized format, which is essential for monitoring, troubleshooting, and security auditing.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Fileshare: A fileshare is a network storage location for files; it does not actively collect or manage log data, but could be a destination to store log files.

C. Database: While a database can be used as a backend to store structured log data, Syslog is the specific protocol used for the collection and transmission of the logs.

D. SAN: A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a high-performance network dedicated to providing block-level data storage; it is an infrastructure component, not a logging system.

References

1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). RFC 5424: The Syslog Protocol. March 2009. Section 1, "Introduction," states, "Syslog is a protocol for conveying event notification messages... It provides a message format that allows a sender to relay a notification that can be stored by a collector." DOI: https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC5424

2. Red Hat. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 8 Documentation. "Chapter 21. Viewing and managing log files," Section 21.1, "Introduction to logging in RHEL 8." This document describes how the rsyslog service (an implementation of the syslog protocol) "sorts syslog messages... and stores them in log files." This demonstrates its role in recording tasks from system services and applications.

3. Purdue University. CS 42200: Computer Security Courseware. "Lecture 15 - Logging and Auditing." The lecture notes describe logging as "recording events that happen on a system" and identify Syslog as the "de facto standard for logging in Unix/Linux" and a primary mechanism for centralized log collection.

Question 18

A technician recently updated the firmware on a dual-BIOS motherboard. Following the update, the system has been stuck in a boot loop and cannot start an OS from any internal or external device. The technician cannot access the UEFI menu either. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Options
A: Enable the secondary configuration.
B: Downgrade the firmware via USB.
C: Start a warranty repair of the motherboard.
D: Reapply thermal paste to the CPU.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Enable the secondary configuration.
Explanation
The motherboard has a dual-BIOS feature, which includes a primary and a secondary (backup) BIOS chip. The symptoms describedโ€”a boot loop and inaccessible UEFI menu immediately following a firmware updateโ€”are classic signs of a corrupted primary BIOS. The dual-BIOS system is specifically designed as a fail-safe for this scenario. By enabling the secondary configuration, the technician can force the system to boot using the backup, uncorrupted firmware, which will allow for system recovery.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Downgrading the firmware via USB is not feasible because the UEFI menu, which is required to initiate the flashing process, is inaccessible.

C. A warranty repair is a premature step. The dual-BIOS feature is a built-in recovery tool that should be used before resorting to an RMA or repair.

D. Reapplying thermal paste is irrelevant to the problem. This action addresses CPU overheating, not a software/firmware corruption issue caused by a failed update.

---

References

1. Gigabyte Technology Co., Ltd., "GIGABYTE DualBIOSโ„ข," Official Vendor Documentation. This document explains the feature: "GIGABYTE DualBIOSโ„ข is a patented technology that automatically recovers BIOS data when the main BIOS has crashed or failed... If the main BIOS is unable to boot, the backup BIOS will automatically take over on the next system boot to repair the main BIOS." This directly supports using the secondary configuration for recovery.

2. Chen, L., et al. (2008). "A Reliable BIOS Updating Method Based on Dual-BIOS Architecture." 2008 First IEEE International Conference on the Applications of Digital Information and Web Technologies. The paper describes the dual-BIOS architecture as a solution to prevent system failure from improper BIOS updates. Section 3, "The Reliable BIOS Updating Method," details how the backup BIOS is used to restore the main BIOS if the update process fails, validating the use of the secondary configuration. DOI: 10.1109/ICADIWT.2008.4664358.

3. Purdue University, College of Engineering., "ECE 362: Microprocessor Systems and Interfacing - Lecture 12: The Boot Process." Courseware materials often discuss fault tolerance. These notes describe BIOS redundancy: "Some motherboards have two BIOS chips, a primary and a backup. If the primary BIOS is corrupted... the system can be booted from the backup BIOS." This academic source confirms that switching to the secondary BIOS is the standard procedure for a corrupted primary BIOS.

Question 19

A customer reports that a workstation has no internet connectivity. A technician confirms the port is disabled. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the issue?
Options
A: Patch panel
B: Physical NIC
C: Managed switch
D: Stand-alone firewall
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Managed switch
Explanation
The technician's finding that the port is "disabled" points to an administrative action rather than a physical fault. A managed switch is an intelligent network device that allows administrators to configure, manage, and monitor the network. A key feature of a managed switch is the ability to administratively enable or disable individual ports through a command-line interface or web-based GUI. This is often done for security reasons (port security) or during network maintenance. Therefore, a disabled port on a managed switch is the most probable cause for the workstation's lack of connectivity.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Patch panel: A patch panel is a passive hardware component used for cable management; it lacks the intelligence to administratively disable a port.

B. Physical NIC: The Network Interface Card (NIC) is within the workstation. While it can be disabled in the OS, the technician confirmed the port (on the infrastructure side) is disabled.

D. Stand-alone firewall: A firewall operates at a higher network layer to filter traffic based on rules and does not control the administrative up/down state of a physical switch port.

References

1. Cisco Systems, Inc., Catalyst 9300 Series Switches Command Reference, IOS XE Gibraltar 16.12.x. Under the interface command section, the shutdown command is described as follows: "To disable an interface (to shut it down), use the shutdown command in interface configuration mode." This document confirms that disabling ports is a standard administrative function of a managed switch.

2. Juniper Networks, Junos OS Administration Library for Routing Devices, "Disabling an Interface". The documentation states, "You can take an interface offline for maintenance and diagnostic purposes by disabling it. When you disable an interface, it is administratively down." This is a core capability of managed network devices like switches.

3. Odom, W., CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Chapter 8, "Configuring Basic Switch Management," details the process of configuring switch interfaces. The text explains the use of the shutdown and no shutdown interface subcommands to administratively disable and enable switch ports, respectively. This is presented as a fundamental skill for managing network switches.

Question 20

A user is having issues when charging a device with a Lightning cable. The cable is not recognized when it is plugged into the device. This issue is usually resolved by flipping the cable over. This issue does not occur with other devices of the same type. Which of the following would most likely cause the issue?
Options
A: The device needs to be restarted.
B: The battery may be swelling and needs inspection.
C: The cable is failing and needs to be replaced
D: The charging port is dirty or damaged
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
The charging port is dirty or damaged
Explanation
The Apple Lightning connector is designed to be reversible, with identical pins on both sides. The described symptomโ€”the cable working only in one orientationโ€”indicates that the electrical contacts on one side of the connection are failing. Since the issue is isolated to a single device and the cable works correctly with other devices, the fault is localized to the device's charging port. This is most commonly caused by an accumulation of debris (such as pocket lint) or physical damage to the pins within the port, which prevents a proper connection on one side.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. A device restart is used to resolve software or firmware glitches, not a consistent physical connection issue dependent on cable orientation.

B. A swelling battery typically manifests as physical deformation of the device's case or a decline in battery performance, not a port connectivity problem.

C. The cable is not the cause, as the question explicitly states that the issue does not occur when the same cable is used with other devices.

References

1. Apple Inc. Official Support Documentation. In the troubleshooting guide "If your iPhone or iPod touch won't charge," a primary step is to inspect the charging port for obstructions. It states, "Check the charging port on the bottom of your device for debris, then firmly plug your charging cable into your device." This directly supports the diagnosis of a dirty or damaged port. (Source: Apple Support, Document ID: HT201569, "Charging issues," Section: "Check your charging cable and USB adapter for signs of damage").

2. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) Information Systems and Technology (IS&T) Knowledge Base. In an article on mobile device troubleshooting, MIT's IT department advises users experiencing charging problems to, "Check for debris in the charging port. Even a small amount of lint can prevent the cable from making a solid connection." This aligns with the most probable cause in the scenario. (Source: MIT IS&T Knowledge Base, Article ID: 10130, "iPhone, iPad, or iPod touch will not charge," Step 2).

3. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives. The official exam objectives require candidates to be able to "troubleshoot mobile device issues." This scenario falls under Objective 3.4, "Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues," which includes diagnosing problems with power, charging, and physical components like ports. The process of elimination based on the symptoms (isolating the fault to the port) is a core troubleshooting methodology taught in this domain.

Question 21

A technician is setting up a scan-to-SMB function on a multifunction printer. Which of the following connection types should the technician configure?
Options
A: Email server
B: SFTP connection
C: Network share
D: Print services
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Network share
Explanation
The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is a network communication protocol designed for providing shared access to files and printers. When configuring a "scan-to-SMB" function, the multifunction printer acts as a client that needs to connect to a server to deposit the scanned file. This destination on the server must be a directory that is shared over the network using the SMB protocol. Therefore, the technician must configure the printer with the path to a network share (e.g., \\ServerName\SharedFolder) and the necessary credentials to access it.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Email server: This is configured for a "scan-to-email" function, which uses the SMTP protocol to send the scanned file as an email attachment.

B. SFTP connection: This is used for a "scan-to-SFTP" function, which securely transfers the scanned file to an SFTP server using a different protocol.

D. Print services: This refers to the software and processes that manage print queues and jobs, not the destination for scanned files.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Server Message Block overview. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/file-server/file-server-smb-overview.

Reference Detail: The document states, "The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is a network file sharing protocol... SMB enables applications on a computer to read and write to files and to request services from server programs in a computer network." This directly links SMB to its function as a file sharing protocol, which is implemented via network shares.

2. HP Inc. (2019). HP Color LaserJet Pro MFP M478-M479 - User Guide.

Reference Detail: In Chapter 6, "Scan," the section "Set up Scan to Network Folder" (page 82) instructs the user to "Enter the network path for the folder." The examples provided are UNC paths (e.g., \\my-server\scans), which are the standard format for accessing SMB network shares.

3. University of Michigan. (n.d.). ITS Documentation: Connecting to an SMB File Share. Information and Technology Services.

Reference Detail: The documentation provides instructions for connecting to network storage, stating, "Server Message Block (SMB) is a network file sharing protocol. The ITS-provided network attached storage uses the SMB protocol." This university resource explicitly defines SMB as the protocol for accessing network file shares.

Question 22

Which of the following internet connection types is the best for extremely high data transfer with symmetrical upload and download speeds?
Options
A: DSL
B: Cellular
C: Fiber
D: Satellite
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Fiber
Explanation
Fiber-optic internet uses light transmitted through thin glass or plastic fibers to carry data. This technology allows for significantly higher bandwidth and faster speeds than other connection types. A key advantage of fiber is its ability to provide symmetrical speeds, meaning the upload and download speeds are identical. This combination of extremely high data transfer rates (often 1 Gbps or higher) and symmetrical performance makes it the best choice for applications requiring large data uploads, such as video conferencing, cloud backups, and hosting servers.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DSL: Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) operates over existing copper telephone lines, which limits its bandwidth and typically results in asymmetrical speeds (slower uploads than downloads).

B. Cellular: While modern cellular networks (like 5G) can offer high speeds, they are often asymmetrical, and performance can be inconsistent due to network congestion and signal strength.

D. Satellite: Satellite internet is characterized by high latency and asymmetrical speeds. It is generally slower than fiber and is primarily used in remote areas lacking other infrastructure.

References

1. Federal Communications Commission (FCC). Broadband Speed Guide. The guide describes Fiber optic technology as providing "very high bandwidth and speeds" and notes its capability for "the same upload and download speeds (symmetrical)." It contrasts this with DSL, which is described as having "download speeds...much faster than their upload speeds (asymmetrical)."

Source: FCC.gov, Broadband Speed Guide, "Types of Broadband Connections" section.

2. Pennsylvania State University IT. Internet Connection Types. This university resource explains various internet connections, stating, "Fiber optic Internet is the future of broadband... It offers the fastest speeds available today... and symmetrical download and upload speeds."

Source: Penn State IT Knowledge Base, Article ID: KB0013829, "Internet Connection Types" section.

3. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson. In Chapter 2, Section 2.6.3, the text discusses access networks, highlighting that Fiber-to-the-Home (FTTH) can provide gigabit-per-second rates in both the downstream and upstream channels, confirming its high-speed, symmetrical nature.

Question 23

Which of the following networking devices is used to create a mesh network?
Options
A: Modem
B: DSL
C: Access point
D: ONT
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Access point
Explanation
A wireless mesh network is a local area network (LAN) topology created by using multiple wireless access points (APs), often referred to as nodes or mesh points. These APs communicate with each other to form a single, unified, and self-healing network. One AP acts as the primary gateway connected to the internet (via a modem or ONT), while the other satellite APs are placed throughout the coverage area to relay data and extend the Wi-Fi signal, ensuring seamless connectivity for client devices.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Modem: A modem is a WAN device that modulates and demodulates signals to connect a local network to an Internet Service Provider (ISP).

B. DSL: Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a type of internet service technology that uses telephone lines, not a device for creating a local mesh topology.

D. ONT: An Optical Network Terminal (ONT) is a device that connects a location to a fiber-optic network, serving a similar function to a modem but for fiber.

References

1. IEEE Standards Association. (2011). IEEE Standard for Information technologyโ€”Telecommunications and information exchange between systemsโ€”Local and metropolitan area networksโ€”Specific requirements - Part 11: Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications Amendment 10: Mesh Networking. IEEE Std 802.11s-2011. Section 3.1, "Definitions," defines a Mesh Point (MP) as a key component, which is a functional entity within an access point that participates in forming the mesh network.

2. Cisco. (2020). Wireless Mesh Access Points Design and Deployment Guide, Cisco IOS XE Gibraltar 16.12.x. Chapter: "Overview of Wireless Mesh Networks." This official vendor guide states, "A wireless mesh network is a communications network made up of radio nodes organized in a mesh topology... Wireless mesh networks often consist of mesh clients, mesh routers and gateways." The mesh routers and gateways are types of specialized access points.

3. Medhi, D., & Ramasamy, K. (2017). Network Routing: Algorithms, Protocols, and Architectures (2nd ed.). Morgan Kaufmann. Chapter 11, "Routing in Ad Hoc and Wireless Mesh Networks," Section 11.4, describes the architecture of Wireless Mesh Networks (WMNs) as being composed of mesh routers (which function as access points) and mesh clients.

Question 24

A user purchases a new mobile phone and tries to connect it to the corporate communications and email applications without success. Which of the following should a technician do to allow the phone to connect?
Options
A: Configure biometric security settings.
B: Turn on LTE hotspot connectivity.
C: Enroll the device in the MDM software.
D: Complete the companyโ€™s BYOD training process.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Enroll the device in the MDM software.
Explanation
In a corporate environment, personal or new devices must be managed to ensure they meet security standards before accessing sensitive company resources like email and communication applications. This process is handled by Mobile Device Management (MDM) software. Enrolling the device in the MDM system installs the necessary security profiles, configurations, and certificates that authorize the device to connect to the corporate network and its applications. Without this enrollment, the corporate servers will reject connection attempts from the unknown and unmanaged device.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Configuring biometric security is a device-level authentication method. While often a policy enforced by MDM, it does not, by itself, grant access to corporate resources.

B. An LTE hotspot is used to share the phone's cellular internet connection with other devices. It is irrelevant to the phone's ability to connect to corporate applications.

D. Completing BYOD training is a procedural and policy-related step for the user. It does not involve the technical configuration required to enable the device's connection.

References

1. CompTIA. (2024). CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives. Version 1.0. Section 2.6, "Given a scenario, configure mobile device security," lists "MDM/MAM policies" and "Corporate email configuration" as key knowledge areas, establishing the link between MDM and corporate resource access.

2. Microsoft. (2023, October 24). What is device enrollment in Intune?. Microsoft Learn. In the "Overview" section, it states, "To manage devices in Intune, devices must first be enrolled in the Intune service. When a device is enrolled, it's issued a mobile device management (MDM) certificate. This certificate is used to communicate with the Intune service." This highlights enrollment as the foundational step for management and communication.

3. Purdue University. (n.d.). Mobile Device Management (MDM) Frequently Asked Questions. Information Technology at Purdue (ITaP). The document explains, "MDM is a type of security software used by an IT department to monitor, manage and secure employeesโ€™ mobile devices... This allows organizations to manage and secure the applications and data on a variety of devices..." This university resource confirms MDM's role in securing and enabling access.

Question 25

Which of the following is the ability to automatically increase and decrease instances based on demand?
Options
A: Availability
B: Scalability
C: Multitenancy
D: Elasticity
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Elasticity
Explanation
Elasticity is a core characteristic of cloud computing that refers to the ability of a system to autonomously and dynamically provision and de-provision computing resources to match workload demands. This process of automatically scaling resources up (scaling out) during peak times and scaling them down (scaling in) during lulls ensures that the application has the capacity it needs to perform optimally while minimizing costs by only paying for resources that are actively in use. The key aspects are the automation and the bi-directional scaling (increase and decrease) in response to real-time demand.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Availability: This refers to the uptime and operational accessibility of a system or service, often expressed as a percentage (e.g., 99.999%), not its ability to scale resources.

B. Scalability: This is the system's capability to handle an increased workload by adding resources. While related, elasticity is the automatic implementation of scaling, both up and down.

C. Multitenancy: This is a software architecture where a single instance of an application serves multiple customers (tenants), focusing on resource sharing, not dynamic scaling based on demand.

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References

1. Mell, P., & Grance, T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology. Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-145.

Page 2, Section "Essential Characteristics": The document defines "Rapid elasticity" as: "Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time."

2. Armbrust, M., Fox, A., Griffith, R., Joseph, A. D., Katz, R., Konwinski, A., Lee, G., Patterson, D., Rabkin, A., Stoica, I., & Zaharia, M. (2009). Above the Clouds: A Berkeley View of Cloud Computing (Technical Report No. UCB/EECS-2009-28). Electrical Engineering and Computer Sciences, University of California at Berkeley.

Page 2, Section 3.1: The paper states, "Cloud Computing enables elasticity by allowing for the dynamic provisioning and de-provisioning of resources on a fine-grained, as-needed basis." This directly supports the concept of increasing and decreasing resources based on demand.

Question 26

A user is having trouble with the location services on their smartphone. Location-based applications show incorrect positions when the user is traveling. This issue affects the userโ€™s ability to navigate and use location-dependent applications. Which of the following is the best way to resolve this issue?
Options
A: Downloading a third-party mapping application
B: Resetting the network settings
C: Enabling Wi-Fi to assist GPS
D: Restarting the smartphone
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Enabling Wi-Fi to assist GPS
Explanation
Modern smartphones utilize a hybrid approach for location services, often referred to as Assisted GPS (A-GPS) or a high-accuracy mode. This system combines data from the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites with information from cellular towers and nearby Wi-Fi networks. When GPS signals are weak or obstructed, such as in urban areas or indoors, the device can use the known locations of Wi-Fi access points (Wi-Fi Positioning System - WPS) to calculate a more precise position. Enabling Wi-Fi provides this crucial secondary data source, directly improving the accuracy and reliability of location-based applications, which resolves the user's issue of incorrect positioning while traveling.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Downloading a third-party mapping application is incorrect because a new application would still rely on the same inaccurate location data provided by the smartphone's underlying hardware and services.

B. Resetting the network settings is a disruptive step that erases all saved Wi-Fi and Bluetooth settings and is unlikely to resolve a fundamental location accuracy issue.

D. Restarting the smartphone is a general troubleshooting step that might resolve a temporary software glitch but does not address the systemic cause of poor location accuracy.

References

1. Google Android Developers Documentation. The official documentation for Android developers explains the use of multiple signals for location. The Fused Location Provider API is designed to use GPS, Wi-Fi, and cellular signals to provide the optimal location information. It states, "The Fused Location Provider is a location API in Google Play services that intelligently combines different signals to provide the best location information."

Source: Google. (n.d.). Get the last known location. Android Developers. Retrieved from https://developer.android.com/training/location/retrieve-current#java, Section: "Get the last known location".

2. Apple Official Documentation. Apple's support documentation details how its devices determine location. It explicitly states that Wi-Fi is used to enhance accuracy. "Location Services uses GPS and Bluetooth (where they're available), along with crowd-sourced Wi-Fi hotspot and cell tower locations, to determine your device's approximate location."

Source: Apple Inc. (2023). About privacy and Location Services in iOS and iPadOS. Apple Support. Document ID: HT203033, Paragraph 1.

3. University Courseware. Course materials on mobile and pervasive computing frequently cover location-sensing technologies. These materials explain that Wi-Fi-based positioning is a key component for accurate indoor and urban location services where GPS is unreliable.

Source: Krumm, J. (2009). Ubiquitous Computing Fundamentals. CRC Press. Chapter 2: "Location and Tracking," Section 2.3.2 "WLAN," pp. 46-49. (This foundational text is widely used in university curricula on ubiquitous computing).

Question 27

Which of the following is related to the creation of a secured communication channel between workstations in different locations and is supported by credentials for authentication?
Options
A: DHCP
B: CNAME
C: VLAN
D: VPN
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
VPN
Explanation
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the internet. This "tunnel" allows a remote workstation to securely access a private network as if it were physically connected. A critical component of establishing a VPN connection is authentication, where the user must provide valid credentials (e.g., username and password, digital certificate, or multi-factor authentication) to verify their identity before the secure channel is created. This directly matches the scenario of creating a secured, authenticated communication channel between workstations in different locations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. DHCP: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a local network; it does not establish secure remote connections.

B. CNAME: A Canonical Name (CNAME) record is a type of DNS entry that maps an alias name to a true domain name. It is used for name resolution, not for creating secure communication channels.

C. VLAN: A Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) is used to segment a physical network into multiple logical broadcast domains. It provides isolation on a local network but does not inherently create an encrypted tunnel between geographically separate locations.

References

1. For VPN: Gleeson, B., Lin, A., Heinanen, J., Armitage, G., & Malis, A. (2000). A Framework for IP Based Virtual Private Networks. IETF RFC 2764. Section 2, "Introduction," states, "A VPN is a communications environment in which access is controlled to permit peer connections only within a defined community of interest... A VPN is constructed... through the use of security services... to provide authentication, confidentiality, and data integrity." Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC2764

2. For DHCP: Droms, R. (1997). Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol. IETF RFC 2131. Section 1, "Abstract," describes DHCP as a protocol that "provides a framework for passing configuration information to hosts on a TCP/IP network." This highlights its role in configuration, not secure tunneling. Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC2131

3. For CNAME: Mockapetris, P. (1987). Domain Names - Implementation and Specification. IETF RFC 1035. Section 3.3.1, "CNAME RDATA format," defines the CNAME record for creating domain name aliases. Retrieved from https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC1035

4. For VLAN: IEEE Std 802.1Qโ„ข-2018. (2018). IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area networksโ€”Bridges and Bridged Networks. Clause 3.151 defines a Virtual LAN (VLAN) in the context of segmenting a bridged network. This standard focuses on Layer 2 network segmentation, not encrypted wide-area connections.

Question 28

Which of the following ports is commonly used for remote desktop connections?
Options
A: 137
B: 445
C: 3389
D: 4443
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
3389
Explanation
Port 3389 is the default TCP and UDP port registered with the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). RDP, developed by Microsoft, provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network. This port must be open on the host machine's firewall to allow incoming remote desktop connections, a fundamental concept covered in the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 objectives for network protocols and ports.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 137: This port is used for the NetBIOS Name Service (NBNS), which is involved in name resolution on older local networks.

B. 445: This port is used for Server Message Block (SMB) over TCP/IP, primarily for network file sharing, printer sharing, and inter-process communication.

D. 4443: This is not a standard, well-known port for remote desktop. It is an unassigned port sometimes used as an alternative for HTTPS or other custom services.

References

1. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). (2024). Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry. IANA. Retrieved from https://www.iana.org/assignments/service-names-port-numbers/service-names-port-numbers.xhtml. (Search for "3389" which is assigned to ms-wbt-server, the service name for Microsoft Windows Based Terminal Server, i.e., RDP).

2. Microsoft Corporation. (2023, September 21). Troubleshoot Remote Desktop client connection issues. Microsoft Learn. In the "Check the status of the RDP listener on the remote computer" section, it explicitly states, "By default, the RDP listener listens on TCP port 3389."

3. Purdue University. (n.d.). Commonly Used Port Numbers. Information Technology at Purdue (ITaP). This university resource lists common ports, specifying "3389 tcp, udp" for "Microsoft Terminal Server (RDP)".

Question 29

SIMULATION A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network. The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone. INSTRUCTIONS Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1. CompTIA 220 1201 exam question CompTIA 220 1201 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

THE SIMULATION IS COMPLETED BY CORRECTLY IDENTIFYING AND CONNECTING THE CABLES, CONNECTORS, AND DEVICES FOR A STANDARD SOHO (SMALL OFFICE/HOME OFFICE) NETWORK SETUP.

STEP 1: CABLE, CONNECTOR, AND TOOL IDENTIFICATION

  • TOP CABLE (UTP/ETHERNET): MATCHED WITH THE RJ45 CONNECTOR AND THE CRIMPER TOOL.
  • MIDDLE CABLE (COAXIAL): MATCHED WITH THE F CONNECTOR AND THE COAXIAL CABLE TOOL.
  • BOTTOM CABLE (PHONE LINE): MATCHED WITH THE RJ11 CONNECTOR AND THE CRIMPER TOOL.

STEP 2: DEVICE CONNECTION

  1. CONNECT THE COAXIAL CABLE FROM THE WALL ISP SERVICE OUTLET TO THE CABLE INPUT ON THE CABLE MODEM.
  2. CONNECT AN ETHERNET CABLE FROM THE ETHERNET PORT ON THE CABLE MODEM TO THE WAN PORT ON THE SOHO ROUTER.
  3. CONNECT AN ETHERNET CABLE FROM ANY LAN (1-4) PORT ON THE SOHO ROUTER TO THE ETHERNET PORT ON THE HOME PC.
  4. CONNECT THE PHONE CABLE FROM THE PHONE SERVICE PORT ON THE SOHO ROUTER TO THE INPUT ON THE POTS PHONE.
Explanation

This configuration establishes a typical SOHO network. The coaxial cable carries the broadband internet signal from the ISP's wall outlet to the cable modem. The modem modulates this signal into a digital format usable for networking. An Ethernet cable then connects the modem to the router's WAN (Wide Area Network) port, providing the entire network with an internet connection. The router's LAN (Local Area Network) ports distribute this connection to local devices, such as the PC. The router's Phone Service port provides a dial tone for the POTS phone using VoIP (Voice over IP) technology, which requires an RJ11 phone cable for the final connection.

References

Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 1, Section 1.3: Describes the network edge, including home access networks that utilize a cable modem connected to a head end via coaxial cable and a router for managing the home network.

IEEE Standards Association. (2018). IEEE Standard for Ethernet (IEEE Std 802.3-2018).

Clause 40: Specifies the physical layer for 1000BASE-T, which utilizes twisted-pair cabling terminated with 8-position, 8-contact (8P8C, commonly known as RJ45) modular connectors for local area network connections like the one between the router and PC.

Cisco Networking Academy. (2020). CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1. Cisco Press.

Chapter 2, "Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs": Details the use of Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) cabling with RJ45 connectors for Ethernet LANs. It also distinguishes between WAN and LAN ports on a router, specifying that the WAN port connects to the internet source (the modem).

Question 30

SIMULATION A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch cords if necessary. INSTRUCTIONS Part 1 For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool. part 2 An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel, and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to create a link. The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair. Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled. CompTIA 220 1201 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

TOP ROW (TWO-WIRE CABLE):

CONNECTOR: RJ11

TOOL: CRIMPER

MIDDLE ROW (FIBER OPTIC CABLE):

CONNECTOR: LC

TOOL: OPTICAL CRIMPER

BOTTOM ROW (TWISTED-PAIR CABLE):

CONNECTOR: RJ45

TOOL: CRIMPER

Explanation

The simulation requires matching cable types with their appropriate connectors and termination tools.

  1. The top cable is a flat two-wire cable, commonly used for telephone lines. It terminates with an RJ11 connector, which is attached using a standard modular Crimper.
  2. The middle cable is a multi-strand fiber optic cable, identifiable by its numerous thin glass fibers. The LC (Lucent Connector) is a common small form-factor connector for fiber. An Optical Crimper is used to secure the connector to the cable's strength members.
  3. The bottom cable is a standard multi-pair UTP (Unshielded Twisted-Pair) cable used for Ethernet. It requires an RJ45 connector, which is also attached using a standard modular Crimper. The punchdown tool is used for terminating wires in a patch panel or keystone jack, not for attaching a connector to a cable end.

References

Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Section 1.3.1, Network Edge: Describes end systems and access networks, including twisted-pair copper wire (used with RJ45 and RJ11) and fiber optics (used with connectors like LC) as physical media.

Telecommunications Industry Association. (2012). TIA-568-C.2: Balanced Twisted-Pair Telecommunications Cabling and Components Standard.

Section 5.2: Specifies the characteristics and termination for 8-position modular connectors, known commercially as RJ45 plugs, on balanced twisted-pair cabling.

Shotwell, R. A. (2013). Electrical and Electronic Systems in Agriculture. American Society of Agricultural and Biological Engineers (ASABE).

Chapter 11, Section: Fiber Optic Cables, pp. 192-193: Describes fiber optic cables and connectors, mentioning the Lucent Connector (LC) as a popular type. It also details the termination process, which includes crimping the connector body onto the cable's outer jacket and strength members.

Department of the Army. (2003). Technical Manual TM 11-5990-281-14: Fiber Optic Cable Assembly Repair.

Section 2-5, Paragraph g: Details the procedure for crimping fiber optic connectors, stating "Slide the crimp sleeve over the cable strength member and onto the connector crimp stem. Using the fiber optic crimp tool, crimp the sleeve to the connector." This validates the use of an optical crimper for fiber termination.

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