ISACA CISM Exam Questions - Certified Information Security Manager

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Our CISM Exam Questions provide authentic, up-to-date content for the ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification. Each question is reviewed by certified information security managers and includes verified answers with clear explanations to deepen your understanding of security governance, risk management, program development, and incident response. With access to our exam simulator, you can practice under real exam conditions and confidently prepare to pass on your first attempt.

Exam Questions

Question 1

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?
Options
A: Preventive
B: Deterrent
C: Detective
D: Corrective
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Detective
Explanation
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is fundamentally a detective control. Its primary purpose is to collect, aggregate, correlate, and analyze log data from various sources across an organization's IT infrastructure. By analyzing this data in near real-time, a SIEM identifies security events, potential threats, policy violations, and anomalies that may indicate an incident has occurred or is in progress. It provides the visibility and alerting necessary to discover security issues, but it does not, by itself, prevent them from happening or correct them after they are found.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Preventive: A SIEM does not stop an incident from occurring. It reports on events, rather than blocking malicious actions like a firewall would.

B. Deterrent: While the knowledge of robust monitoring might discourage some attackers, a SIEM's primary function is not deterrence but detection of activities.

D. Corrective: A SIEM does not fix issues or restore systems. It provides the necessary information to trigger a corrective response, which is a separate function.

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References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management. The manual defines detective controls as those "designed to detect and report that an error, omission or malicious act has occurred." SIEM systems are consistently categorized under this function as they are a primary tool for monitoring and detecting security events. (Specific reference: Chapter 3, Section on "Security Control Types and Functions").

2. NIST Special Publication 800-92, Guide to Computer Security Log Management. Section 2.3, "Log Management Infrastructure," describes the functions of log management tools, including SIEMs. The entire process of collecting, centralizing, and analyzing logs is presented as a mechanism for identifying security incidents, which is the definition of a detective control.

3. Tounsi, W., & Rais, H. (2018). A survey on technical threat intelligence in the age of big data. Computers & Security, 72, 212-233. This peer-reviewed article discusses SIEM as a core technology for threat detection, stating, "SIEMs are used to provide a holistic view of the IT security by collecting and correlating logs from different sources to detect security threats." This aligns directly with the function of a detective control. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2017.09.001, Section 3.1).

Question 2

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?
Options
A: Incident management procedures
B: Incident management policy
C: System risk assessment
D: Organizational risk register
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Organizational risk register
Explanation
The organizational risk register is the most useful tool for determining the need for escalation because it provides a consolidated view of the key risks to the organization, ranked by their potential business impact. When an incident occurs, the information security manager can map the incident's characteristics to the risks documented in the register. If the incident triggers or corresponds to a risk with a high-impact rating (e.g., significant financial loss, reputational damage, regulatory failure), it provides a clear, business-focused justification for escalating to senior management, who are ultimately responsible for managing these enterprise-level risks.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Incident management procedures: These provide the step-by-step instructions for how to escalate, but not the strategic criteria for when to escalate based on business impact.

B. Incident management policy: This is a high-level document that mandates an incident management program and escalation but lacks the specific risk details for decision-making.

C. System risk assessment: This is too narrow in scope, as it focuses on a single system's risks, whereas a major incident may have a broader organizational impact.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Part 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section 2.9 Risk Management. The manual explains that the risk register is a tool for managing and communicating the organization's risk portfolio. Senior management uses this to understand the most significant threats to business objectives, making it the logical reference for determining if an incident's impact warrants their attention.

2. ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition. Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment. This manual details that the risk register is the primary output of the risk identification and analysis process. It states, "The risk register provides a central repository for all identified risks... It is used to support decisions on risk response," which includes escalating an active incident that actualizes a documented risk.

3. Parker, D. B. (2014). Information Security Management Handbook, 6th Edition, Volume 7. Auerbach Publications. Chapter 5, "Information Security Governance," discusses how the risk register is a key communication tool between security functions and executive management. It translates technical issues into business impact terms, which is essential for effective escalation and executive decision-making. (This is a widely used academic and professional text in the field).

Question 3

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or
Options
A: Security budget
B: Risk register
C: Risk score
D: Laws and regulations
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Laws and regulations
Explanation
An organization's risk appetite is the amount and type of risk it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This is a high-level, strategic decision. Laws and regulations are external, mandatory requirements that establish a baseline for acceptable risk. They are non-negotiable and define the minimum level of control and compliance an organization must achieve. Therefore, these legal and regulatory constraints are a primary and foundational input for senior management when determining the organization's risk appetite, as no organization can have an appetite for risks that would lead to noncompliance.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Security budget: The budget is an outcome or a constraint of the security strategy and risk appetite, not a primary input for defining it.

B. Risk register: This is a tactical document used to manage identified risks in alignment with the already established risk appetite, not to determine it.

C. Risk score: A risk score is a metric for a specific risk, used for prioritization and treatment decisions after the risk appetite has been set.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 1: Information Security Governance, Section 1.2.3, "Legal and Regulatory Requirements." The manual emphasizes that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are key drivers for the information security strategy. The strategy, which includes defining risk appetite, must ensure compliance, making these requirements a fundamental input.

2. NIST Special Publication 800-39, "Managing Information Security Risk: Organization, Mission, and Information System View." Section 2.2, "Risk Framing," page 13. This section lists "laws, directives, regulations, policies, standards, and guidelines" as essential inputs for establishing the risk context and framing risk, which includes determining risk appetite and tolerance.

3. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. APO12 "Manage Risk," page 121. The framework lists "External compliance requirements" as a key input for the process of defining and maintaining a risk profile, which includes establishing the organization's risk appetite.

Question 4

An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack Which of the following should be the information security?
Options
A: Wipe the affected system.
B: Notify internal legal counsel.
C: Notify senior management.
D: Isolate the impacted endpoints.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Isolate the impacted endpoints.
Explanation
The immediate and most critical priority for the information security team following the detection of a ransomware infection is containment. Isolating the impacted endpoints from the network is the primary containment strategy. This action prevents the ransomware from propagating to other systems, servers, or network shares, thereby limiting the scope and overall impact of the attack. This aligns with standard incident response frameworks, where containment is the first step taken after detection and initial analysis to prevent the situation from escalating. All other actions, while important, are secondary to stopping the ongoing damage.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Wipe the affected system. This is a premature eradication step that would destroy valuable forensic evidence needed for investigation and should only occur after containment.

B. Notify internal legal counsel. While a necessary step in the incident response process, immediate technical containment to prevent further spread takes precedence over notification.

C. Notify senior management. Communication with leadership is crucial for awareness and resource allocation, but it follows the initial technical action of containing the threat.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Section 3.3, "Containment, Eradication, & Recovery," states, "Containment is the first step in this phase... Containment is important before an incident overwhelms resources or increases damage." The document lists disconnecting the affected host from the network as a primary containment strategy (p. 23).

2. Cichonski, P., Millar, T., Grance, T., & Scarfone, K. (2012). NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. National Institute of Standards and Technology. This is the full citation for the above reference, which is a foundational document for the principles tested in the CISM exam.

3. Tounsi, W., & Frikha, H. (2018). "A new taxonomy for security incident response plan." Computers & Security, 74, 169-191. This academic paper reviews various incident response models, consistently identifying "Containment" as the immediate phase following "Detection and Analysis" to limit the extent of an incident. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2017.12.007)

Question 5

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Options
A: Initiate incident response.
B: Review vulnerability assessment.
C: Conduct a security audit.
D: Isolate the system.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Initiate incident response.
Explanation
The BEST course of action after an attack is to initiate the formal incident response (IR) process. This is a structured and comprehensive approach that ensures all necessary actions are taken in a coordinated and effective manner. The IR plan will guide the team through critical phases, including identification, analysis, containment (which may include isolating the system), eradication, and recovery. Simply isolating the system (Option D) without invoking the full IR process could lead to the loss of volatile evidence, alert the attacker, or fail to address the full scope of the compromise. The IR process provides the overarching framework for all tactical decisions.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Review vulnerability assessment: This is a proactive measure to identify weaknesses or a post-incident activity for lessons learned, not the immediate action during an attack.

C. Conduct a security audit: An audit is a formal, systematic review of controls and compliance, which is inappropriate as an immediate response to an active incident.

D. Isolate the system: While system isolation is a critical containment strategy, it is a component of the overall incident response process, not the best first step. The IR plan dictates when and how to isolate.

References

1. NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Section 3.2, "Incident Response Lifecycle," outlines the major phases of incident response. The discovery of an attack triggers the "Detection & Analysis" phase, which is the formal start of the response process. This process then guides subsequent actions, including "Containment, Eradication, & Recovery" (Section 3.3), where actions like isolating a system are considered as part of a broader strategy.

2. Tรธndel, I. A., Line, M. B., & Gjรธsรฆter, T. (2012). Towards a structured cyber security incident response process. This paper emphasizes the importance of a structured, pre-planned process over ad-hoc actions. It states, "A structured process for incident response is important to ensure that incidents are handled efficiently and that all necessary steps are taken." Initiating the formal process (A) aligns with this principle, whereas taking a single tactical step (D) would be an ad-hoc action. (Available via SINTEF academic archive and other academic databases).

3. University of California, Berkeley, Information Security Office Documentation. In their "Incident Response Plan," the first step after detection and reporting is "Triage & Analysis," which involves activating the incident response team and beginning a coordinated investigation. This aligns with "Initiate incident response" as the primary, overarching action. The plan specifies that containment strategies (like isolation) are determined during this coordinated response.

Question 6

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?
Options
A: Statistical reports will be incorrect.
B: The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.
C: Escalation procedures will be ineffective.
D: Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Escalation procedures will be ineffective.
Explanation
Incident severity criteria are fundamental to a structured incident response framework. They provide the basis for prioritizing incidents, allocating appropriate resources, and determining the required level of management notification. Without clear severity criteria, there is no objective way to differentiate a minor event from a major crisis. This ambiguity renders escalation procedures ineffective, as the triggers for escalating to senior technical staff, management, or legal teams are absent. Consequently, critical incidents may not receive the timely attention they require, while minor incidents might be unnecessarily escalated, leading to inefficient use of resources.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. While statistical reports will lack crucial context and be less meaningful without severity data, this is a secondary consequence compared to the immediate failure of the response process.

B. Overall service desk staffing is primarily based on incident volume, not severity. While severity affects the allocation of specialized skills, it is not the main driver for total staff numbers.

D. Detection is the process of identifying a potential security event. Classification and severity assignment occur after an event has been detected; therefore, a lack of criteria does not make detection impossible.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management. Section 4.3, "Incident Response Plan," emphasizes that an incident response plan must include procedures for classifying incidents. This classification is what drives the appropriate response, including prioritization and escalation, ensuring that incidents are handled by the correct personnel in a timely manner. The absence of severity criteria directly undermines this core function.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." Section 2.3.2, "Incident Categorization," states, "Incidents should be categorized... This is important for prioritization; for example, a worm that is spreading rapidly and causing a denial of service should be handled before a minor malware incident on a single host." This prioritization is the direct input for escalation procedures.

3. Von Solms, R., & van Niekerk, J. (2013). From information security to cyber security. Computers & Security, 38, 97-102. This academic publication discusses the evolution of information security management. It implicitly supports the need for structured response mechanisms, where classification and severity assessment are critical for triggering appropriate actions, including escalation, to manage cyber threats effectively. (https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2013.04.004)

Question 7

In a call center, the BEST reason to conduct a social engineering is to:
Options
A: Identify candidates for additional security training.
B: minimize the likelihood of successful attacks.
C: gain funding for information security initiatives.
D: improve password policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Identify candidates for additional security training.
Explanation
The primary and most direct purpose of conducting a social engineering test is to assess the effectiveness of security awareness and identify human vulnerabilities within an organization. The results of such a test provide empirical data on which employees are susceptible to manipulation. This data is then used to identify individuals or groups who require remedial or enhanced security awareness training. By targeting training resources at the most vulnerable points, an organization can most efficiently improve its human security posture. The test serves as a diagnostic tool to prescribe the necessary corrective action, which is training.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This is the broader, strategic objective of the entire information security program, not the specific, immediate reason for conducting one particular test.

C. While poor test results can be used to justify budget requests, the primary purpose of the test is to improve security, not to secure funding.

D. A social engineering test assesses user behavior and compliance with policies, but it is not the primary tool for creating or improving the policy document itself.

---

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Task Statement B2.3: "Establish and maintain information security awareness and training programs to promote a secure environment and an effective security culture." The manual explains that testing methods, such as phishing simulations (a form of social engineering), are used to measure the effectiveness of awareness programs and identify areas needing improvement, which directly translates to identifying candidates for further training.

2. Mouton, F., Leenen, L., & Venter, H. S. (2016). Social engineering attack detection model: A literature review. Computers & Security, 59, 1-18. In Section 4, "Mitigation of SE Attacks," the paper emphasizes that user education and awareness programs are a primary defense. It states, "The aim of an awareness program is to influence the behaviour of users... Testing and measuring the effectiveness of the program is essential." This supports the concept that testing is done to find behavioral flaws that need to be corrected through training. (https://doi.org/10.1016/j.cose.2016.02.005)

3. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53, Revision 5. (2020). Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations. Control: AT-2, "Security Awareness Training." The discussion section for this control notes that organizations can "employ assessments (e.g., social engineering exercises to test the awareness of users) to determine the effectiveness of security awareness training." This explicitly links social engineering exercises to assessing training effectiveness and, by extension, identifying where more training is needed.

Question 8

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:
Options
A: review the security of the application before implementation.
B: integrate functionality the development stage.
C: perform a vulnerability analysis.
D: periodically audit the security of the application.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
integrate functionality the development stage.
Explanation
The most effective and cost-efficient approach to ensure a new application complies with security policy is to integrate security requirements and controls during the development stage. This principle, often referred to as "Security by Design" or "Shifting Left," ensures that compliance is a fundamental component of the application rather than an afterthought. Addressing security early in the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is significantly less expensive and disruptive than discovering and remediating policy violations or vulnerabilities just before or after implementation. This proactive method builds a more resilient and inherently compliant application from the ground up.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Reviewing before implementation is a detective control that occurs too late in the lifecycle; fixing fundamental design flaws at this stage is costly and can cause significant project delays.

C. Performing a vulnerability analysis is a specific technical assessment, not a comprehensive approach to ensure alignment with all aspects of an information security policy, which includes more than just technical flaws.

D. Periodically auditing the application is a post-implementation activity. It is essential for ongoing assurance but is reactive and does not ensure initial compliance is built in from the start.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Chapter 3, Information Security Program Development and Management, p. 168. The manual states, "Security should be an integral part of every stage of the SDLC... The cost of correcting a security flaw or adding a security feature increases exponentially the later it is found in the SDLC." This supports integrating security during development (Option B) as the most cost-effective and best approach.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-218, Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) Version 1.1, February 3, 2022. Practice PW.1: "Design Software to Meet Security Requirements and Mitigate Security Risks." This practice emphasizes that "security requirements should be taken into account during software design, and the design should be reviewed and approved before development begins." This directly supports building security in during the earliest feasible stages, which includes development.

3. Mougouei, D., Sani, N. F. M., & Al-Fahim, N. H. (2017). A review of security by design in the software development lifecycle. International Journal of Applied Engineering Research, 12(17), 6466-6472. This academic review reinforces the concept, stating, "Security by design is a new approach that recommends security decisions to be incorporated in the early stages of the software development life cycle (SDLC) to minimize vulnerabilities in the software." This highlights the superiority of early integration over late-stage reviews or post-implementation audits.

Question 9

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following
Options
A: Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.
B: Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.
C: Assign a risk owner to each risk
D: Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Assign a risk owner to each risk
Explanation
The core problem identified is a failure in the risk treatment process, where identified risks are not being acted upon in a timely manner. The most fundamental reason for such inaction is a lack of clear accountability. Assigning a risk owner to each identified risk establishes this accountability. The risk owner is the designated individual responsible for ensuring that the risk is appropriately assessed, a treatment plan is executed, and the risk is monitored. This assignment is the most critical step to drive the risk management process forward and ensure that risks are addressed, thereby directly resolving the stated problem.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

This is a reporting activity. While it increases visibility of the problem, it does not solve the underlying issue of why risks are not being treated.

B. Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

The problem is not with the identification or analysis of risks, but with the lack of action after analysis. Re-performing analysis is inefficient and does not address the treatment bottleneck.

D. Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

This is a risk treatment option itself. However, the question implies this step is not happening. Assigning an owner is the prerequisite to ensure someone is accountable for creating and implementing controls.

---

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. In Domain 2: Information Risk Management, the concept of risk ownership is central to effective risk treatment. The manual states, "Risk ownership is a key concept in information risk management... The risk owner is an individual accountable for the identification, assessment, treatment and monitoring of risks in a specific area." (p. 111). This establishes that accountability through ownership is essential for the treatment phase.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Special Publication (SP) 800-39, Managing Information Security Risk. This foundational document on risk management emphasizes that the process requires clear roles and responsibilities. The risk response step, which includes treatment, "provides a consistent, organization-wide, response to risk." (Section 2.3, p. 15). Such a response cannot be executed without an accountable party (i.e., a risk owner) to make decisions and direct action.

3. ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. The framework's process APO12 Manage Risk requires clear accountability structures. Practice APO12.05 Maintain a risk profile includes identifying risk owners as a key activity. Without an owner, the subsequent practice APO12.06 Articulate risk and APO12.07 Define a risk management action portfolio cannot be effectively executed, leading to the exact problem described in the scenario. (pp. 108-109).

Question 10

An email digital signature will:
Options
A: protect the confidentiality of an email message.
B: verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.
C: automatically correct unauthorized modification of an email message.
D: prevent unauthorized modification of an email message.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.
Explanation
A digital signature's primary function is to provide assurance of data integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation. It is created by generating a cryptographic hash of the email message and then encrypting this hash value with the sender's private key. The recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt the hash. They then independently compute the hash of the received message. If the two hashes match, it cryptographically proves that the message has not been altered since it was signed, thus verifying its integrity. This process does not inherently encrypt the message content for confidentiality.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Confidentiality is achieved by encrypting the entire message content, which is a separate process from applying a digital signature.

C. A digital signature is a detective control; it can identify that a modification has occurred but has no capability to automatically correct it.

D. A digital signature is a detective, not a preventive, control. It cannot stop a message from being intercepted and modified in transit.

References

1. ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 15th Edition. Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management. The manual explains cryptographic controls, stating that digital signatures are used to provide integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation, distinguishing this from encryption which provides confidentiality.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2013). FIPS PUB 186-4, Digital Signature Standard (DSS). Page 1, Section 1, Introduction. The standard states, "Digital signatures are used to detect unauthorized modifications to data and to authenticate the identity of the signatory. In addition, the recipient of signed data can present the data and its signature to a third party to prove that the signature was generated by the claimed signatory. This is known as non-repudiation... In summary, the use of a digital signature provides data integrity and source authentication."

3. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson. Chapter 8, "Security in Computer Networks." Section 8.3, "Principles of Cryptography," explains that digital signatures, created by encrypting a message digest with a private key, allow a recipient to verify that the message is un-altered (integrity) and from the claimed sender (authenticity).

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