CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) Exam Questions 2025

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Our CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Exam Questions provide current, reliable questions for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 certification. Each question includes verified answers, detailed explanations highlighting incorrect options, and access to our interactive online exam simulator. Try free sample questions below and see why thousands of IT professionals trust Cert Empire for exam readiness.

Exam Questions

Question 1

A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address in this scenario?
Options
A: 10.254.128.11
B: 66.157.195.20
C: 172.16.0.30
D: 192.168 1.50
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
66.157.195.20
Explanation
The question requires identifying a valid public IP address, which is necessary for a router to communicate on the internet. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) reserves specific IPv4 address ranges for private networks, as defined in RFC 1918. These private addresses are not routable on the public internet. The address 66.157.195.20 does not fall within any of the reserved private ranges (10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, 192.168.0.0/16). Therefore, it is a public IP address that an Internet Service Provider (ISP) would assign to a customer's router. The other options are all examples of private IP addresses used for internal local area networks (LANs).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 10.254.128.11 is incorrect because it is part of the 10.0.0.0/8 private address space, commonly used for large internal networks.

C. 172.16.0.30 is incorrect because it falls within the 172.16.0.0/12 private address block, designated for use within private networks.

D. 192.168.1.50 is incorrect because it is part of the 192.168.0.0/16 private address range, typically used in home and small office networks.

---

References

1. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). (February 1996). RFC 1918: Address Allocation for Private Internets.

Section 3, "Private Address Space": This document explicitly defines the three blocks of IP address space reserved for private internets. It lists 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix), 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix), and 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix). This directly confirms that options A, C, and D are private addresses.

2. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, "The Network Address Translation (NAT)": This textbook, widely used in university computer science programs, explains that hosts within a private network use addresses from the RFC 1918 ranges. It clarifies that these addresses are for local use only and that a router must have a public IP address on its WAN interface to connect to the global internet.

3. Stanford University. (Fall 2013). CS144: Introduction to Computer Networking, Lecture 4: The Network Layer.

Slide 28, "Private addresses": The course material lists the RFC 1918 private address ranges and explains their purpose: "Can be used by anyone in their own private network. But routers in the public Internet will refuse to forward packets to a private address." This supports the distinction between the public address (B) and the private addresses (A, C, D).

Question 2

A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions, the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Options
A: Document the findings.
B: Test the theory
C: Gather information
D: Establish a plan of action
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Test the theory
Explanation
The scenario describes the first two steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. The technician has identified the problem by gathering information ("asking open-ended questions") and has established a theory of probable cause ("determines the issue likely exists on the remote server"). According to this structured process, the immediate next step is to test the theory to confirm or deny the hypothesis. This must be done before a plan of action is created or the solution is documented.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Document the findings: Documentation is the final step in the troubleshooting process, performed after the problem has been resolved and the solution verified.

C. Gather information: This is part of the first step of the troubleshooting methodology, which has already been completed to establish the theory.

D. Establish a plan of action: This step comes after the theory has been tested and confirmed. A plan cannot be formulated until the exact cause is known.

References

1. Purdue University. (n.d.). ITaP Customer Service and Support Training. In "The Troubleshooting Process," the guide outlines the six-step methodology. Step 2 is "Establish a theory of probable cause," and Step 3 is "Test the theory to determine cause." The technician in the scenario has completed Step 2, making Step 3 the next logical action. (Accessed via Purdue University Information Technology course materials).

2. University of Texas at Austin. (2021). ITS Handheld & Mobile Computing Support: Troubleshooting Methodology. This document details the CompTIA A+ six-step troubleshooting process. It explicitly states that after establishing a theory (Step 2), the technician must "Test the Theory to Determine Cause" (Step 3) before moving to "Establish a Plan of Action" (Step 4).

3. Horne, M. R. (2021). A Systematic Approach to IT Troubleshooting. Journal of Information Technology Education: Research, 20, pp. 118-120. This peer-reviewed article discusses the importance of a structured troubleshooting framework, mirroring the CompTIA model. It emphasizes that hypothesis testing (testing the theory) is a critical step that must precede solution implementation (plan of action). DOI: https://doi.org/10.28945/4721

Question 3

Which of the following technologies best allows a phone to connect to a point-of-sale terminal for wireless payments?
Options
A: Bluetooth
B: NFC
C: Wi-Fi
D: Cellular
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
NFC
Explanation
Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range, low-power wireless communication technology designed for exchanging data between devices over a distance of a few centimeters. This technology is the standard for contactless payment systems like Apple Pay and Google Pay. When a smartphone with NFC is brought close to a compatible point-of-sale (POS) terminal, it establishes a secure connection to transmit payment information, enabling a quick "tap-to-pay" transaction. The extremely short operational range is a key security feature, preventing accidental or unauthorized payments.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Bluetooth: Requires a manual pairing process and has a longer range, making it less secure and less convenient for rapid POS transactions.

C. Wi-Fi: Is a wireless networking technology for broader area coverage and internet access, not for the direct, close-proximity link needed for tap-to-pay.

D. Cellular: Provides long-range mobile network connectivity for voice and data, but it is not used for the direct communication between the phone and the POS terminal.

References

1. Google LLC. (2023). Near Field Communication | Android Developers. Official Android Documentation. Retrieved from https://developer.android.com/guide/topics/connectivity/nfc/nfc. In the "Host-based card emulation" section, the documentation explains how Android devices use NFC to emulate a smart card for payment applications, interacting with NFC payment terminals.

2. Apple Inc. (2024). Apple Pay security and privacy overview. Apple Platform Security Guide. Retrieved from https://support.apple.com/guide/security/apple-pay-security-sec8a074c247/web. Under the section "How Apple Pay keeps transactions secure," the document explicitly states, "To transmit the payment data securely to the point-of-sale terminal, Apple Pay uses Near Field Communication (NFC) technology."

3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). (2016). Networking and Communications. MIT Center for Bits and Atoms, Course 863.16. Retrieved from http://fab.cba.mit.edu/classes/863.16/section.CBA/people/Al-Husseini/week10.html. This courseware describes NFC as a technology for very short-range communication (less than 10 cm), highlighting its use in applications like contactless payment cards.

Question 4

A new directive mandates the use of a security component to securely allow users to authenticate to systems, access sensitive data, and enter the office. The component must provide an additional factor of authentication alongside user accounts and cannot be something the user o Which of the Mowing components best meets these requirements?
Options
A: Fingerprint reader
B: Smart card
C: Secure token
D: NFC scanner
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Smart card
Explanation
A smart card is a physical device, categorized as a "something you have" authentication factor. It is uniquely suited to meet all the specified requirements. It can store digital certificates and credentials for authenticating to computer systems (logical access), be used to encrypt/decrypt sensitive data, and integrate with proximity readers for physical access control to enter an office. This single component provides a robust, multi-purpose solution for the directive's combined logical and physical security needs.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Fingerprint reader: This is a biometric scanner used to read a "something you are" factor. The reader is a stationary device, not the portable component the user would carry for authentication.

C. Secure token: This typically refers to a hardware token that generates a one-time password (OTP). While it provides a second factor for system access, it is not designed for physical entry.

D. NFC scanner: This is the reader technology that interacts with a component like a smart card or smartphone. It is not the authentication component itself.

References

1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-73-4, Part 1, Section 1, Page 1: "The PIV Card is a smart card that contains the necessary data for the cardholder to be authenticated to Federal information systems and facilities." This official standard explicitly defines a smart card as the component for both logical ("information systems") and physical ("facilities") access.

2. Microsoft Documentation, "Smart Card Technical Reference," Overview of Smart Cards: "Smart cards can be used to log on to domain accounts... They can also be used for building access." This vendor documentation confirms the dual-use capability of smart cards for both network authentication and physical access control, which directly aligns with the scenario.

3. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives, Version 1.0, Section 3.4: This section, "Given a scenario, use common security techniques," lists "Smart card" as a key authentication method. The objectives implicitly require candidates to understand the common applications of such technologies, including their role in multi-factor authentication for both logical and physical security.

Question 5

A network administrator must ensure that a printer will still be assigned a specific IP address even if all addresses are depleted. Which of the following network configuration concepts is this describing?
Options
A: VLAN
B: Lease
C: Reservation
D: Exclusion
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Reservation
Explanation
A DHCP reservation is a configuration on a DHCP server that permanently maps a specific IP address to a unique client MAC address. This ensures that when the client (in this case, the printer) requests an IP address, the DHCP server will always assign it the pre-configured, reserved IP. This assignment is guaranteed even if the dynamic pool of available addresses is fully depleted, as the reserved address is held specifically for that client and is not part of the general lease pool.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. VLAN: Virtual LANs are used to segment a physical network into multiple logical broadcast domains for security and traffic management, not for IP address assignment.

B. Lease: A lease is a temporary assignment of an IP address from the DHCP pool for a limited time; it does not guarantee a permanent or specific IP address.

D. Exclusion: An exclusion is a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP server is configured not to assign, typically for devices with manually configured static IPs.

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2021). Manage DHCP reservations. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/dhcp/manage-dhcp-reservations. In the "About DHCP reservations" section, it states, "You can use a reservation to assign a permanent IP address lease to a DHCP client. Reservations assure you that the DHCP client always receives the same IP address."

2. Droms, R. (1997). RFC 2131: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). https://doi.org/10.17487/RFC2131. Section 2.2, "DHCP client-server interaction - allocating a new network address," describes three mechanisms for IP address allocation. The concept of a reservation is defined under "Manual allocation," where the server uses a pre-configured table mapping client identifiers (MAC addresses) to specific IP addresses.

3. Cisco Systems, Inc. (2023). IP Addressing: DHCP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Amsterdam 17.3.x. In the "DHCP Address Allocation Methods" section, the "Manual Allocation" method is described: "The network administrator creates a mapping between the clientโ€™s MAC address... and an IP address. When the DHCP server receives a request from a client, it checks the MAC address... and assigns the mapped IP address." This is functionally identical to a reservation.

Question 6

A company needs to develop a disaster recovery solution based on virtual machines. Which of the following service models is the most suitable?
Options
A: Infrastructure as a Service
B: Security as a Service
C: Platform as a Service
D: Software as a Service
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Infrastructure as a Service
Explanation
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the most suitable model because it provides fundamental computing resources, such as virtual machines (VMs), storage, and networking, over the internet. This allows an organization to build a parallel, on-demand infrastructure in the cloud. For a disaster recovery (DR) solution based on VMs, a company can replicate its on-premises virtual machines and data to the IaaS provider. In the event of a disaster, the company can quickly failover to the cloud-based infrastructure, minimizing downtime. This model offers the necessary control over the operating systems and virtualized hardware to effectively mirror a primary production environment.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Security as a Service: This model provides outsourced security functions like identity management or intrusion detection, not the core computing infrastructure required for a DR site.

C. Platform as a Service: PaaS abstracts the underlying infrastructure, including VMs, to provide a platform for application development. It does not offer the granular control over VMs needed for infrastructure replication.

D. Software as a Service: SaaS delivers ready-to-use software applications. It does not provide access to the underlying infrastructure, making it unsuitable for building a custom VM-based DR solution.

References

1. Mell, P., & Grance, T. (2011). The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing (Special Publication 800-145). National Institute of Standards and Technology.

Page 3, Section "Service Models": Defines Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the capability to "provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications." This directly supports the requirement of using virtual machines for a DR solution.

2. Microsoft Azure Documentation. (n.d.). What is Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)?

Section: "Common IaaS scenarios": This official vendor documentation explicitly lists "Disaster recovery" as a primary use case for IaaS, stating, "IaaS helps you handle unexpected demand and steady growth, and it can also help you reduce the need to have a standby datacenter for disaster recovery."

3. University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. (n.d.). Cloud Computing Concepts, Part 1. Coursera.

Week 1, Module: "Cloud Computing Models": Course materials explain that IaaS provides the lowest-level building blocks (virtual machines, storage) and gives the user the most control over the hardware. This control is essential for creating a disaster recovery environment that mirrors an on-premises setup.

Question 7

Each lime a user ties to print, the paper becomes stuck at the last stage of the print job and the user has to poll me paper out of the printer. Which of the following is me most likely cause?
Options
A: Rollers
B: Tray assembly
C: Toner
D: Printhead
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Rollers
Explanation
The final stage of a print job involves ejecting the paper into the output tray. This process is handled by a set of exit rollers. When these rollers become worn, dirty, or damaged, they lose their ability to properly grip and push the paper out of the printer. This failure results in the paper stopping and becoming stuck at the very end of the paper path, which perfectly matches the described symptom. The user having to manually pull the paper out confirms a failure in the final mechanical transport stage.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Tray assembly: A faulty tray assembly, including pickup rollers and separation pads, would cause paper jams at the beginning of the print process, not at the end.

C. Toner: A defective toner cartridge is associated with print quality issues such as streaks, smudges, or blank spots, not mechanical paper transport failures at the exit.

D. Printhead: A malfunctioning printhead (inkjet) or laser/scanner assembly (laser) affects how the image is placed on the paper, leading to poor quality or blank pages, not paper jams.

---

References

1. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives. Objective 3.4, "Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems with printers," lists common symptoms and their causes. It identifies "Paper jams" as a key problem and "worn rollers" as a primary cause that a technician must be able to diagnose. This directly links the symptom in the question to the correct component.

2. Hewlett-Packard (HP) Official Vendor Documentation. In troubleshooting guides for HP LaserJet printers, such as the "HP LaserJet Pro - Paper jam error" support document, steps for resolving jams frequently instruct users to inspect the paper path, including the fuser and output bin area. Worn or obstructed exit rollers in this final stage are cited as a common cause for paper failing to eject properly.

3. University of Wisconsin-Madison, Division of Information Technology (DoIT) KnowledgeBase. Document 7261, "Laser Printer - Theory of Operation," describes the paper transport system. It details the function of various rollers, including pickup, registration, and exit rollers, clarifying that the exit rollers are solely responsible for moving the paper out of the printer in the final step. A failure here would manifest as described in the scenario.

Question 8

Users working with large files back up the files to external hard drives. One user's files take longer to back up than other users' files. The user has tried backing up the files to other users' drives with the same results. Which of the following steps should the technician take first to correct this issue?
Options
A: Replace the hard drive's USB cable.
B: Defragment the user's external hard drive.
C: Update the storage drivers on the user's system.
D: Instruct the user to compress the files.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Update the storage drivers on the user's system.
Explanation
The scenario indicates the performance issue is tied to the user's computer, not the external hard drive, because the slowness persists even when different drives are used. The data transfer process between a computer and an external storage device is managed by the operating system's storage and USB controller drivers. Outdated, corrupted, or generic default drivers can lead to suboptimal performance, including slow transfer speeds. Therefore, updating the storage drivers on the user's system is the most logical first step to resolve a potential software-level bottleneck affecting I/O operations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Replace the hard drive's USB cable.

While a faulty cable can cause slow speeds, the problem is consistently tied to the user's computer, making a driver issue a more probable root cause to investigate first.

B. Defragment the user's external hard drive.

The problem occurs even when backing up to other users' drives, which rules out the user's specific external drive as the source of the issue.

D. Instruct the user to compress the files.

This is a workaround that reduces the amount of data to transfer but does not address the underlying cause of the slow performance on the user's system.

---

References

1. Microsoft Corporation. (2023). Tips to improve PC performance in Windows. Microsoft Support. In the section "8. Update drivers," the document states, "Drivers are software that allows Windows to communicate with the hardware devices in your PC... In general, you'll get the latest drivers from Windows Update or as part of your PC's setup." This establishes that drivers are critical for hardware performance and that updating them is a standard maintenance and troubleshooting step.

2. Intel Corporation. (2024). Intelยฎ Chipset Software Installation Utility and Intelยฎ Server Chipset Driver. Intel Support. This documentation explains that chipset drivers provide the operating system with information about the system's board components, including storage controllers (e.g., SATA/AHCI) and USB controllers. Proper installation and updating of these drivers are necessary for "full functionality" and optimal performance.

3. Arpaci-Dusseau, R. H., & Arpaci-Dusseau, A. C. (2018). Operating Systems: Three Easy Pieces. Arpaci-Dusseau Books. In Chapter 37, "I/O Devices," Section 37.3 describes the canonical device protocol, where the OS communicates with a device via its driver. The text explains, "The device driver is the software in the OS that knows the details of the device." This highlights that the driver's efficiency directly impacts device performance.

Question 9

Which of the following devices is used to implement ACL polices for an environment?
Options
A: Managed switch
B: Gateway
C: Repeater
D: Firewall
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Firewall
Explanation
A firewall is a network security device whose fundamental purpose is to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a predefined set of security rules. These rules are configured as Access Control Lists (ACLs). An ACL is a list of permit or deny rules that are applied to IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols to filter packets. Therefore, a firewall is the primary device used to implement ACL policies to protect a network environment by establishing a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Managed switch: While Layer 3 managed switches can use ACLs for inter-VLAN routing or port-based security, their primary function is traffic forwarding, not comprehensive network-wide policy enforcement.

B. Gateway: This is a generic term for a device that connects different networks. While a gateway is often a firewall or router that uses ACLs, "firewall" is the more specific and accurate answer.

C. Repeater: A repeater operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) to regenerate signals and extend network distance; it is incapable of reading or filtering traffic based on policies.

References

1. Kurose, J. F., & Ross, K. W. (2021). Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach (8th ed.). Pearson.

Section 8.6.2, "Firewalls," explains: "A firewall is a combination of hardware and software that isolates an organizationโ€™s internal network from the Internet at large... A traditional packet filter examines each datagram in isolation... A packet filter makes its decision based on the fields in the IP and transport-layer headers... The firewall administrator specifies the filtering rules in an access control list (ACL)."

2. Stallings, W. (2017). Cryptography and Network Security: Principles and Practice (7th ed.). Pearson.

Chapter 21, "Firewalls," Section 21.2, "Firewall Design Principles," states: "The firewall acts as a filter. It is designed to permit or deny traffic based on a set of rules. These rules are defined in an access control list (ACL)."

3. Cisco. (2022). Cisco IOS XE Security Configuration Guide, Release 17.x - IP Access Control Lists.

"Information About IP Access Control Lists" section, details: "An access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that is used to filter traffic. When traffic is received on an interface, the device checks the ACL. The ACL determines if the packet is permitted or denied." This documentation directly links ACLs to traffic filtering, a core function of firewalls and routers.

Question 10

A customer reports that the output from their thermal receipt printer has vertical white lines. Which of the following would most likely resolve this issue?
Options
A: Replacing the ink cartridge
B: Using the correct paper type
C: Installing a maintenance kit
D: Cleaning the heating element
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Cleaning the heating element
Explanation
Thermal printers use a print head containing a row of small heating elements to activate heat-sensitive paper. Vertical white lines on the printed output are a classic symptom indicating that one or more of these heating elements are obstructed. Debris, such as paper dust, label adhesive, or other residue, can accumulate on the print head, preventing the elements from making direct contact with the paper. This blockage results in an unheated, and therefore unprinted, vertical path as the paper advances. Cleaning the heating element, typically with an isopropyl alcohol pen or a lint-free cloth, is the standard first step to resolve this specific issue.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Replacing the ink cartridge: Thermal printers are "inkless" and do not use ink or toner cartridges; they rely on a heated print head and thermal paper.

B. Using the correct paper type: While incorrect paper (e.g., standard bond paper) would fail to produce an image, it would affect the entire output, not create distinct vertical lines.

C. Installing a maintenance kit: This is a more comprehensive and less specific solution, typically associated with laser printers, and does not directly address the common cause of vertical white lines.

References

1. Epson. (n.d.). TM-T88V/TM-T88V-i Technical Reference Guide. Seiko Epson Corporation. In Section 4-2, "Troubleshooting," for the symptom "White vertical streaks appear on the paper," the corresponding cause and solution is: "The thermal head may be dirty. Clean the thermal head (see section 1-6-3)."

2. Zebra Technologies. (2023). Resolving Print Quality Issues on ZT410 and ZT420 Printers. Zebra Technologies Corporation Support & Downloads. In the article, under the section for "White lines in the print," it states, "White lines in the print are most often caused by a dirty or faulty printhead... The first step is to clean the printhead."

3. Purdue University. (n.d.). CNIT 17500: Computer & Network Hardware. Purdue Polytechnic Institute. Course materials on printing technologies describe the direct thermal printing process, explaining that the print head is a linear array of heating elements that selectively heat coated paper. This principle supports the diagnosis that an obstruction on one of these elements would cause a void in the print. (This reference establishes the fundamental operating principle).

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