ASIS CPP Exam Questions 2025

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Exam Questions

Question 1

In large-scale emergencies, the Incident Command System can be effectively deployed by:
Options
A: private sector organizations only.
B: federal agencies only.
C: public and private sector organizations.
D: public sector organizations only.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
public and private sector organizations.
Explanation
The Incident Command System (ICS) is a core component of the U.S. National Incident Management System (NIMS). NIMS establishes a standardized, all-hazards approach to incident management, designed to be used by all levels of government (federal, state, local, tribal), nongovernmental organizations, and the private sector. This "whole community" approach is essential for effective management of large-scale emergencies, as it enables seamless integration and interoperability between different entities. The scalability and flexibility of ICS allow it to be adopted by any organization to manage incidents and to coordinate effectively with external response partners.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. ICS is not limited to the private sector; it originated in the public sector and is a standard for government response.

B. ICS is used by all levels of government (local, state, tribal, and federal), not exclusively by federal agencies.

D. The private sector is a critical partner in emergency management and is strongly encouraged by NIMS to adopt and use ICS.

References

1. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). (2017). National Incident Management System (NIMS) Doctrine. FEMA P-1000.

Page 1, Introduction: "NIMS provides a common, nationwide approach that enables the whole community to work together to manage all threats and hazards. NIMS is applicable to all stakeholders with incident management and support responsibilities... This includes all levels of government, nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), and the private sector."

Page 4, Scope: "NIMS is applicable to all incidents... It is a comprehensive framework that can be used by all stakeholders... including governmental entities at all levels, NGOs, and the private sector."

2. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA), Crisis Management.

Chapter 3, Incident Management, Section on National Incident Management System (NIMS): This section details that NIMS provides a consistent framework for government, the private sector, and nongovernmental organizations to collaborate. It emphasizes that private sector organizations should adopt ICS to effectively interface with public sector first responders during an incident.

3. Jensen, J. L. (2010). Business's Role in Emergency Preparedness and Response: A Guide to Inter-organizational, Public-Private Collaboration. Naval Postgraduate School.

Page 11, Section on NIMS: "NIMS provides a consistent nationwide template to enable Federal, State, local, and tribal governments, the private sector, and nongovernmental organizations to work together to prepare for, prevent, respond to, recover from, and mitigate the effects of incidents, regardless of cause, size, location, or complexity."

Question 2

Which of the following represents the crossover error rate for biometric technology?
Options
A: It measures the acceptable number of failures that a security firm is willing to tolerate.
B: The point at which the number of false rejections equals the false acceptances.
C: The frequency of false rejections.
D: The point at which the number of positive rejections equals the false acceptances.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
The point at which the number of false rejections equals the false acceptances.
Explanation
The Crossover Error Rate (CER), also known as the Equal Error Rate (EER), is a standard metric used to measure the overall accuracy of a biometric system. It is the point at which the system's sensitivity is set so that the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) is equal to the False Rejection Rate (FRR). A lower CER indicates a more accurate system, as it represents the point where both types of errors are minimized simultaneously. This single value provides a way to compare the performance of different biometric systems under their optimal operational threshold.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This describes a business decision related to risk tolerance or an acceptable quality level, not the specific technical performance metric of CER.

C. This describes only the False Rejection Rate (FRR), which is the probability that an authorized user is incorrectly denied access.

D. The term "positive rejections" is not standard biometric terminology. The CER is where the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate.

References

1. Fennelly, L. J., & Perry, M. A. (Eds.). (2021). The Professional Protection Officer: Practical Security Strategies and Emerging Trends (2nd ed.). ASIS International & Butterworth-Heinemann. In discussions of biometric access control, the text defines the Equal Error Rate (EER) or Crossover Error Rate (CER) as the point where the false-accept rate and false-reject rate are equal (Chapter 11, Access Control Systems).

2. Jain, A. K., Ross, A., & Prabhakar, S. (2004). An introduction to biometric recognition. IEEE Transactions on Circuits and Systems for Video Technology, 14(1), 4โ€“20. Section III-C, "Performance," states: "The performance of a biometric system is often measured in terms of the false accept rate (FAR) and the false reject rate (FRR)... The EER is the point where the FAR and FRR are equal." (p. 10). DOI: https://doi.org/10.1109/TCSVT.2003.818349

3. ASIS International. (2012). Protection of Assets (POA), Physical Security. The section on "Biometric Access Control" describes performance metrics, including the Crossover Error Rate (CER) as the point where the probability of a false acceptance is the same as the probability of a false rejection.

Question 3

The purpose of applicant screening is to:
Options
A: limit the liability exposure if the hired person assaults co-workers or customers.
B: find the most appropriate person for a particular job.
C: reduce reliance on interviewing and testing.
D: make a choice with the minimum possible investment of personnel, money, and time.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
find the most appropriate person for a particular job.
Explanation
The fundamental purpose of the applicant screening process is to identify the most suitable and qualified candidate for a specific job. Screening is the initial step in the overall selection process, where an applicant's qualifications, experience, and other attributes are compared against the job requirements. This filtering mechanism ensures that only those who meet the minimum criteria proceed to more in-depth evaluation stages like interviews and testing. The ultimate goal is to achieve the best possible match between the person, the position, and the organization, thereby maximizing the potential for job success and employee retention.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Limiting liability exposure, such as for negligent hiring, is a critical secondary benefit and a risk management outcome of screening, not its primary purpose.

C. Screening is a preliminary step that complements and makes subsequent stages like interviewing and testing more efficient; it does not reduce reliance on them.

D. While efficiency is desirable, the primary objective is to find the most effective and appropriate candidate, not simply to minimize the cost or time of hiring.

References

1. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA): Personnel Protection. Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. Chapter 2, "Preemployment Measures," Section 2.2, "The Selection Process." The text explains that the goal of the selection process, which begins with screening, is to hire the best-qualified individual by matching their knowledge, skills, and abilities to the job requirements.

2. Fischer, R. J., Halibozek, E., & Walters, D. C. (2019). Introduction to Security (10th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. Chapter 11, "Personnel Security," discusses preemployment screening as a key function to ensure the suitability, reliability, and integrity of candidates, which directly supports the objective of finding the most appropriate person for the job.

3. ASIS International. (2019). Preemployment Background Screening Guideline (ASIS GDL PBS-2019). Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. Section 4, "Guideline Elements," outlines the purpose of screening as a due diligence process to verify candidate information and assess suitability for employment, which is integral to selecting the most appropriate person.

Question 4

Choosing a security container for a specific software application is largely determined by value and what other characteristic of the item to be stored?
Options
A: Vulnerability
B: Commonality
C: Place of origin
D: Reproducibility
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Vulnerability
Explanation
The selection of appropriate security measures, such as a security container, is a fundamental outcome of the risk assessment process. Risk is commonly defined as a function of an asset's value, the threats against it, and its vulnerabilities. The question already provides "value" as one determinant. The other critical characteristic is "vulnerability," which is any weakness that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm to the asset. Therefore, a highly valuable asset that is also highly vulnerable requires the most stringent protective measures.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Commonality: The commonality of an item may relate to its replaceability or value, but it is not a direct factor in the risk formula used to determine protection levels.

C. Place of origin: An item's origin is generally not a primary consideration for selecting a security container, unless it pertains to specific geopolitical threats or regulatory controls.

D. Reproducibility: While reproducibility affects recovery planning and overall business impact, vulnerability is the direct characteristic that a security measure is designed to mitigate to prevent loss in the first place.

References

1. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets: Security Management. Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. The chapter on "Risk Management" explains that risk analysis involves identifying assets, their value, and their vulnerabilities to specific threats. The selection of countermeasures is based on mitigating these identified vulnerabilities.

2. Fischer, R. J., Halibozek, E., & Walters, D. C. (2019). Introduction to Security (10th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. In Chapter 5, "The Security Risk Assessment," the text emphasizes that a vulnerability assessment is a critical step. It states, "A vulnerability is a weakness... The purpose of the security survey is to identify these vulnerabilities so that countermeasures can be implemented" (p. 104).

3. Garcia, M. L. (2008). The Design and Evaluation of Physical Protection Systems. Butterworth-Heinemann. Chapter 2, "Systematic Approach to Physical Protection System Design," outlines that the characterization of a facility or asset includes identifying vulnerabilities. The design of the protection system (e.g., containers, barriers) is a direct response to these vulnerabilities in relation to defined threats.

Question 5

An organization's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) wants to expand surveillance technology at their main distribution center as part of an employee theft and misconduct reduction initiative. Which of the following should the security management team advise the CEO of regarding privacy considerations?
Options
A: The additional cameras should be hidden so that employees do not know that they are under surveillance.
B: The CEO should invest in other types of technology to deter crime and misconduct due to privacy considerations
C: The new surveillance system should utilize IP cameras that are capable of recording audio as well as video.
D: Consult with HR and legal to ensure no cameras are recording in areas where employees have a reasonable expectation of privacy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Consult with HR and legal to ensure no cameras are recording in areas where employees have a reasonable expectation of privacy.
Explanation
The paramount consideration in implementing workplace surveillance is the employee's "reasonable expectation of privacy," a legal standard that protects individuals in specific areas. Placing surveillance devices in locations such as restrooms, locker rooms, or break areas can lead to significant legal and civil liabilities. The most prudent and professional course of action is to engage legal counsel and Human Resources (HR). This ensures the surveillance program is designed and implemented in full compliance with federal, state, and local laws (e.g., wiretapping statutes, NLRB guidance), as well as internal corporate policies. This collaborative approach effectively balances the organization's legitimate security interests with its legal and ethical obligations to its employees.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Covert surveillance of employees is highly regulated, often illegal without specific cause, and can severely damage employee morale and trust.

B. This option prematurely dismisses a valid security tool instead of exploring how to implement it in a legally compliant and ethical manner.

C. Recording audio without the consent of all parties is illegal in many jurisdictions under wiretapping laws and dramatically increases the organization's legal risk.

References

1. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA), Legal Aspects. Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. The text emphasizes that "the most significant legal issue in the use of CCTV is privacy" and strongly advises security professionals to seek legal counsel to navigate the complex web of federal and state laws. It specifically discusses the "reasonable expectation of privacy" standard for areas like locker rooms and restrooms. (Section on "Information Security and Privacy").

2. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA), Physical Security. Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. This volume details the implementation of video surveillance systems and notes that a "video surveillance policy should be developed in consultation with the legal department and human resources" to address privacy and other legal considerations before installation. (Chapter on "Video Surveillance").

3. Fennelly, L. J. (2017). Effective Physical Security (5th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. As a foundational text in the security field, it states that legal counsel must be consulted on surveillance activities, particularly regarding audio recording, which is generally prohibited, and camera placement to avoid infringing on privacy rights in sensitive areas. (Chapter 25: CCTV Technology).

4. Cornell University Law School, Legal Information Institute (LII). "The Fourth Amendment's protection against unreasonable searches and seizures by the government has been interpreted to provide a basis for a right to privacy... This concept is often discussed in terms of a 'reasonable expectation of privacy'." While focused on government action, this principle is the foundation for privacy law that extends into private-sector employment law. (Article on "Privacy").

Question 6

The role of supervisors in the enforcement of a company's substance abuse policy is to:
Options
A: detect employee drug use.
B: monitor employee performance.
C: identity employees selling drugs.
D: refer employees for counseling services.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
refer employees for counseling services.
Explanation
Within a drug-free-workplace programme supervisors are trained to deal only with job-related problems they can legitimately address. Their task is to document impaired performance and initiate a formal โ€œsupervisory referralโ€ to the organisationโ€™s Employee Assistance Program or other counselling resource. Diagnosing drug use or investigating trafficking is outside their competence, and merely โ€œmonitoring performanceโ€ is a normal managerial duty, not the specific enforcement step required by the substance-abuse policy.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Detecting drug use is a medical/testing function; supervisors are not qualified and risk legal liability if they attempt diagnosis.

B. Performance monitoring is routine management; enforcement requires the next stepโ€”referral to professional help when abuse is suspected.

C. Identifying on-site drug sales involves security or law-enforcement investigators, not line supervisors.

References

1. ASIS International, Protection of Assets Manual, Vol. 2 โ€œSecurity Managementโ€, Section โ€œSubstance-Abuse Programsโ€, pp. 2-35โ€“2-36: supervisors document performance problems and make EAP referrals.

2. Roman, P.M. & Blum, T.C. (1996) โ€œThe workplace and alcohol problem preventionโ€, Alcohol Health & Research World 20(4), p. 252 ยถ2: supervisors refer employees to counselling/EAP; they do not diagnose. DOI:10.1037/e494522006-002

3. MIT OpenCourseWare, Course 15.668 People and Organizations, Session 12 โ€œEmployee Assistance Programsโ€, Slide 6: supervisorโ€™s key roleโ€”formal referral to counselling resources when performance deteriorates.

4. Journal of Occupational & Environmental Medicine, 37(7) (1995) โ€œSupervisor training and EAP referral patternsโ€, pp. 784-785: performance documentation followed by supervisory referral is the mandated process.

5. University of Washington School of Public Health, Workplace Substance-Abuse Module, Section โ€œSupervisor Responsibilitiesโ€, para 3: supervisors observe, document, and refer to EAPโ€”not detect use or investigate sales.

Question 7

While the scope of training for an emergency depends on the nature of the organization's activities, this training must:
Options
A: be given to all employees, visitors, and contractors.
B: cover all aspects of the emergency plan for all participants.
C: be reinforced and tested with periodic drills.
D: be reinforced and tested on a quarterly basis.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
be reinforced and tested with periodic drills.
Explanation
The effectiveness of any emergency training program is contingent upon its regular reinforcement and validation. Periodic drills and exercises are fundamental components of a robust emergency management system. They serve to test the viability of the plan, ensure personnel are familiar with their roles and responsibilities, identify procedural gaps, and build the "muscle memory" necessary for an effective response under stress. This cycle of training, testing, and refinement is a universally accepted best practice for ensuring organizational preparedness, regardless of the specific nature of the emergency.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. be given to all employees, visitors, and contractors. Training should be role-specific and appropriate to the audience; visitors and contractors typically receive a briefing, not the same in-depth training as employees.

B. cover all aspects of the emergency plan for all participants. Information is provided on a need-to-know basis; most personnel only need training on their specific roles, not the entire comprehensive plan.

D. be reinforced and tested on a quarterly basis. The frequency of drills is determined by risk analysis, regulatory requirements, and organizational complexity; a fixed quarterly schedule is overly prescriptive and not a universal rule.

References

1. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA), Crisis Management. Section 3.5.3, "Training, Drills, and Exercises." This section emphasizes that plans must be validated and personnel skills maintained through a program of drills and exercises, stating, "A crisis management plan that is not tested is of little value... Drills and exercises are the primary tools for testing the plan."

2. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). (2020). Homeland Security Exercise and Evaluation Program (HSEEP). Chapter 2, "Exercise Program Management." The doctrine establishes that exercises are "the primary tool for assessing preparedness and identifying gaps" and are essential for "validating plans and procedures, and training and familiarizing personnel."

3. Borodzicz, E. P. (2005). Risk, Crisis and Security Management. John Wiley & Sons. Chapter 8, "Training and Exercising." The text explains that training and exercising are critical for developing competence and confidence in emergency response. It states that exercises are necessary to "test the viability of plans" and "reinforce training" to ensure procedures are workable in a real event.

Question 8

In terms of information systems security (ISS), "residual risk" is:
Options
A: the total remaining potential risk after all ISS countermeasures are applied across all threats.
B: the remaining potential risk for each threat after all ISS countermeasures are applied.
C: the product of the level of threat and the level of vulnerability
D: equal to threats multiplied by countermeasures and divided by vulnerabilities.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
the remaining potential risk for each threat after all ISS countermeasures are applied.
Explanation
Residual risk is a core concept in risk management, defined as the risk that remains after security controls and countermeasures have been implemented. The risk management process involves identifying specific threats, assessing their likelihood and potential impact, and then applying controls to mitigate them. Residual risk is the calculated, remaining risk exposure for each specific threat that has been treated, which management must then decide to accept, transfer, or mitigate further.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This describes the total or aggregate residual risk profile of an organization, not the fundamental definition. Residual risk is first calculated on a per-threat basis.

C. This is the basic formula for calculating inherent risk or initial risk (Risk = Threat x Vulnerability), not the risk remaining after controls are applied.

D. This is an illogical and incorrect formula. Countermeasures are designed to reduce risk, not act as a multiplier in a risk calculation.

References

1. Fischer, R. J., Halibozek, E., & Walters, D. C. (2019). Introduction to Security (10th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. In Chapter 5, "The Role of Risk Analysis in Security," the concept is explained as the risk that "remains after countermeasures have been implemented." The process described involves analyzing individual risks, applying countermeasures, and then determining the leftover or residual risk for those specific items.

2. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2012). Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments (NIST Special Publication 800-30, Revision 1). In Appendix F, Glossary, "Residual Risk" is defined as the "Portion of risk remaining after security controls have been applied." The entire methodology of the guide is based on assessing risk from specific threat events (Section 2.2.2) and then determining the residual risk for those events after controls are considered (Section 2.4).

3. ASIS International. (2012). Protection of Assets (POA). Alexandria, VA: ASIS International. The Security Management volume details the risk management process. It specifies that after risk analysis and the application of countermeasures, a residual risk remains. This evaluation is performed for the specific risks identified during the assessment to determine if they are at an acceptable level for the organization.

Question 9

Which of the following types of intrusion detection systems is commonly used to protect safes and file cabinets?
Options
A: Pin core
B: Pick resistant
C: Capacitance
D: Electro-mechanical
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Capacitance
Explanation
Capacitance proximity sensors are a type of intrusion detection system specifically designed to protect conductive objects like metal safes and file cabinets. The system works by creating a stable electrostatic field around the protected object. When a person, who is also conductive, approaches or touches the object, their body adds capacitance to the circuit. This change disrupts the electrostatic field, which is detected by the sensor's control unit, triggering an alarm. This method provides excellent protection for specific, high-value assets by detecting an intruder's presence before they can breach the container.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Pin core: This refers to a component of a mechanical lock cylinder, not an electronic intrusion detection system.

B. Pick resistant: This is a characteristic describing a mechanical lock's ability to withstand covert manipulation, not a type of sensor.

D. Electro-mechanical: This is a broad classification of devices. While a safe might use an electro-mechanical bolt switch, a capacitance sensor is the specific technology used for proximity detection.

References

1. Fischer, R. J., Halibozek, E., & Walters, D. C. (2019). Introduction to Security (10th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. In Chapter 11, "Physical Security I: The Role of Barriers, Alarms, and Lighting," the text describes interior intrusion sensors, noting that capacitance proximity detectors are used to protect specific objects like safes and filing cabinets by sensing a change in the electrical field when a person approaches. (See section on "Proximity or Capacitance Detectors").

2. Garcia, M. L. (2007). The Design and Evaluation of Physical Protection Systems (2nd ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. Chapter 5, "Detection and Assessment," discusses interior sensors. It explains that proximity sensors, including capacitance types, are used to detect an intruder touching or coming near a specific asset, with safes and vaults being primary examples of their application (pp. 89-90).

3. ASIS International. (2016). Protection of Assets (POA), Physical Security. In the volume on Physical Security, the section covering Interior Intrusion Detection Systems details the function of capacitance proximity detectors. It explicitly states their common application is for the protection of metal objects, including safes, vaults, and file cabinets, by detecting the change in capacitance caused by a human body.

Question 10

Which factor about a risk would make it uninsurable?
Options
A: Losses would be expected but unintended by the insured.
B: Losses could not be positively tied to an occurrence in an established amount.
C: The risk is predictable through the law of large numbers.
D: The risk would be worth the cost but not the effort to insure.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Losses could not be positively tied to an occurrence in an established amount.
Explanation
For a risk to be insurable, the potential loss must be definite and measurable. This means the insurer must be able to determine when a loss has occurred (a specific occurrence) and be able to calculate the financial value of that loss (an established amount). If a loss cannot be clearly linked to a specific event or its value cannot be quantified, the insurer cannot determine a fair premium or the appropriate indemnity to pay. This lack of definiteness and measurability makes the risk fundamentally uninsurable.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Losses would be expected but unintended by the insured.

This describes an insurable risk. Losses must be unintended (fortuitous), and insurers use statistics to expect losses across a large pool of insureds.

C. The risk is predictable through the law of large numbers.

This is a core principle that makes a risk insurable, not uninsurable. It allows insurers to forecast losses and set appropriate premiums.

D. The risk would be worth the cost but not the effort to insure.

This reflects a subjective business decision by the potential insured, not an inherent characteristic that makes the risk uninsurable from an insurer's perspective.

References

1. Fischer, R. J., Halibozek, E., & Walters, D. C. (2019). Introduction to Security (10th ed.). Butterworth-Heinemann. In the discussion of risk transfer, the text outlines the requirements for an insurable risk, emphasizing that a loss must be measurable and definite in time, place, and amount. A failure to meet this criterion, as described in option B, renders a risk uninsurable. (Chapter 4, Risk Management).

2. Vaughan, E. J., & Vaughan, T. (2013). Fundamentals of Risk and Insurance (11th ed.). Wiley. Chapter 2, "The Problem of Risk," lists the "Requisites of an Insurable Risk." Among these are that the loss must be "definite and measurable." The text explains, "It must be possible to determine that a loss has taken place, and it must be possible to measure the value of the loss." This directly supports why option B describes an uninsurable risk. (pp. 26-27).

3. ASIS International. (2021). Protection of Assets (POA), Business Principles. This foundational text for the CPP exam details the principles of risk management. In the section on Risk Treatment/Mitigation, the criteria for transferring risk via insurance are explained. A key criterion is that the loss must be quantifiable and tied to a specific event, without which an insurance contract cannot be properly structured or executed. (Risk Management volume, Section on Risk Transfer).

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