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Free MS-102 Practice Questions – 2025 Updated

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At Cert Empire, we are committed to offering the most accurate and up-to-date exam questions for students preparing for the Microsoft MS-102 Exam. To support effective preparation, weโ€™ve made parts of our MS-102 exam resources free for everyone. You can practice as much as you want with Free MS-102 Practice Test.

Question 1

DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the devices shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You install Microsoft Word on all the devices. You plan to configure policies to meet the following requirements: โ€ข Word files created by using Windows devices must be encrypted automatically. โ€ข If an Android device becomes jailbroken, access to corporate data must be blocked from Word. โ€ข For iOS devices, users must be prevented from using native or third-party mail clients to connect to Microsoft 365. Which type of polio/ should you configure for each device? To answer, drag the appropriate policy types to the correct devices. Each policy type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

DEVICE1: APP PROTECTION POLICY

DEVICE2: CONDITIONAL ACCESS POLICY

DEVICE3: APP PROTECTION POLICY

Explanation

Here is the reasoning for each policy assignment:

  1. Device1 (Windows 11): The requirement is to encrypt Word files. An App protection policy for Windows devices includes data protection settings, such as encrypting corporate data, which protects data at the application level.
  2. Device2 (iOS): The goal is to block native/third-party mail clients and force the use of an approved app (like Microsoft Outlook) to access Microsoft 365. A Conditional Access policy is used to enforce this by setting the "Grant" control to "Require approved client app." This blocks all non-approved applications from accessing the specified cloud resources (like Exchange Online).
  3. Device3 (Android): The requirement is to block access from Word if the device is jailbroken. Critically, this device is Not enrolled in Intune. An App protection policy can be applied to unenrolled devices (MAM-WE) and uses "Conditional launch" settings. These settings can check for device conditions, such as being "Jailbroken/rooted," and then block access to corporate data within the app.

References

Microsoft Intune Documentation (App protection policy for Device3):

Source: Microsoft Learn, "App protection policy settings for Android"

Reference: In the "Conditional launch" section, "Device conditions" includes the setting Jailbroken/rooted devices. The available actions for this setting are Block access, Wipe data, or Warn. This directly maps to the requirement for Device3.

Location: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/app-protection-policy-settings-android#conditional-launch

Microsoft Entra Documentation (Conditional Access for Device2):

Source: Microsoft Learn, "Conditional Access: Grant controls"

Reference: The "Require approved client app" grant control is used to force specific applications to be used for accessing cloud apps. The documentation states, "This control requires that a client app from an approved list is used to access the selected cloud apps... Examples of approved client apps include... Microsoft Outlook." This control effectively blocks native mail clients.

Location: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-grant#require-approved-client-app

Microsoft Intune Documentation (App protection policy for Device1):

Source: Microsoft Learn, "App protection policy settings for Windows"

Reference: The "Data protection" section for Windows APP settings lists a setting to Encrypt corporate data. This setting, when configured, ensures that corporate data within policy-managed apps (like Word) is encrypted on the device.

Location: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/app-protection-policy-settings-windows#data-protection

Question 2

You need to notify the manager of the human resources department when a user in the department shares a file or folder from the departments Microsoft SharePoint Online site. What should you do?
Options
A: From the SharePoint Online site, create an alert.
B: From the SharePoint Online admin center, modify the sharing settings.
C: From the Microsoft 365 Defender portal, create an alert policy.
D: From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Explanation
A Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy is the appropriate tool for this requirement. DLP policies can be scoped to specific locations, such as the human resources department's SharePoint Online site. You can configure a rule within the policy to detect when content is shared with people outside the organization. A key action for this rule is to send an email notification (an incident report) to a specified individual, such as the department manager, providing details of the sharing event. This provides a robust, policy-based monitoring and notification system specifically for data sharing activities.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. From the SharePoint Online site, create an alert.

SharePoint alerts notify users of changes to content (add, modify, delete) but do not have a specific, reliable trigger for sharing events. They are not designed for policy-based monitoring.

B. From the SharePoint Online admin center, modify the sharing settings.

These settings control if and how users can share content (e.g., disabling anonymous links). They do not provide a mechanism to send notifications when a sharing event occurs.

C. From the Microsoft 365 Defender portal, create an alert policy.

While alert policies can be triggered by audit log events, including sharing, DLP is the more specific and purpose-built service for monitoring and controlling data sharing based on content and context.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. "Learn about data loss prevention." Microsoft Purview Documentation. This document outlines the capabilities of DLP, stating, "A DLP policy allows you to... Show a policy tip to users who are about to share sensitive information... Send an email notification to your compliance officer when a user shares sensitive information." This confirms that sending notifications based on sharing is a core DLP function.

2. Microsoft Learn. "Create and Deploy data loss prevention policies." Microsoft Purview Documentation. Under the "Policy settings" section, it details how to configure rules. For the "Actions" configuration, it lists "Send alerts to admins" and allows customization of who receives the alert and the email content, directly supporting the solution.

3. Microsoft Learn. "Create an alert to get notified when a file or folder changes in SharePoint." Microsoft Support Documentation. This article shows that the available triggers for SharePoint alerts are for when items are changed, added, or deleted, with no specific option for "when an item is shared."

Question 3

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that. You need to identify whenever a sensitivity label is applied, changed, or removed within the subscription. Which feature should you use, and how many days will the data be retained? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

FEATURE: ACTIVITY EXPLORER

NUMBER OF DAYS THE DATA WILL BE RETAINED: 30

Explanation

Activity explorer is the correct feature because its specific function is to provide a visual interface for monitoring activities related to information protection, including sensitivity labels. It aggregates data from the unified audit log to show when a label was "applied, changed, or removed" and by whom.

  • Compliance Manager is incorrect as it tracks an organization's overall compliance posture against regulations and standards, not specific file-level user activities.
  • Content explorer is incorrect as it is used to view the contents of files that have been classified, not the activity logs of when the classifications occurred.

According to official Microsoft documentation, the Activity explorer interface surfaces data from the last 30 days. While the underlying Microsoft 365 E5 audit log retains this data for one year, the Activity explorer tool itself is limited to a 30-day visualization window.

References

Microsoft. (2024, September 27). Get started with activity explorer. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference: This document states, "Activity explorer provides a historical view... of activities related to... sensitivity labels..." and "Activity explorer... activities are available in Activity explorer for 30 days."

Microsoft. (2024, September 27). Learn about content explorer. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference: This document confirms that Content explorer's function is to "view the items that were summarized in... data classification" to "review the content in its native format."

Microsoft. (2024, June 21). Learn about auditing solutions in Microsoft Purview. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference: This document clarifies that while Microsoft 365 E5 licenses include a "default retention of one year" for audit logs (the data source), this is distinct from the 30-day visualization window of the Activity explorer tool itself.

Question 4

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains 200 Android devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You create an Android app protection policy named Policy! that is targeted to all Microsoft apps and assigned to all users. Policy! has the Data protection settings shown in the following exhibit. Microsoft MS-102 exam question Use the drop-down menus to select 'he answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

STATEMENT 1: MICROSOFT SHAREPOINT ONLINE

STATEMENT 2: ANY APP

Explanation

Save Copies: The policy setting "Save copies of org data" is set to "Block". This prevents users from saving organizational data to arbitrary locations, such as unmanaged local storage. However, the exception setting "Allow user to save copies to selected services" is explicitly configured to permit saving to "SharePoint". Therefore, SharePoint Online is the only configured allowable location.

Copy/Paste: The policy setting "Receive data from other apps" is set to "All Apps". Furthermore, the setting "Restrict cut, copy, and paste between other apps" is set to "Policy managed apps with paste in". This specific value explicitly allows users to paste data from any app (managed or unmanaged) into policy-managed apps (like the Word document on OneDrive).

References

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Android app protection policy settings in Microsoft Intune. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference for Statement 1: In the "Data protection" section, under "Data Transfer," the documentation for the "Allow user to save copies to selected services" setting states: "When Save copies of org data is set to Block, you can allow end users to save copies of org data to a selected service, such as SharePoint."

Reference for Statement 2: In the same "Data Transfer" section, the documentation for "Restrict cut, copy, and paste between other apps" explains the value "Policy managed apps with paste in": "Allow cut or copy from any app and paste into policy-managed apps." The "Receive data from other apps" setting further confirms this, as "All apps" allows "data transfer from any app" into the managed app.

Question 5

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You ate implementing Microsoft Defender for Endpoint You need to enable role-based access control (RBAQ to restrict access to the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. Which users can enable RBAC, and winch users will no longer have access to the Microsoft 365 Defender portal after RBAC is enabled? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

USERS THAT CAN ENABLE RBAC: ADMIN1 AND ADMIN2 ONLY

USERS THAT WILL NO LONGER HAVE ACCESS TO THE MICROSOFT 365 DEFENDER PORTAL: ADMIN3 AND ADMIN4 ONLY

Explanation

Users that can enable RBAC: To enable role-based access control (RBAC) within the Microsoft Defender for Endpoint settings, a user must hold either the Global Administrator (Admin1) or Security Administrator (Admin2) role in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

Users that will no longer have access: Before MDE RBAC is enabled, access to the portal is governed by Azure AD roles, including Global Administrator, Security Administrator, Security Operator, and Security Reader. When MDE RBAC is turned on, users who only have Security Operator (Admin3) or Security Reader (Admin4) roles immediately lose their access. Global and Security Administrators (Admin1, Admin2) retain their access. The Application Administrator (Admin5) role does not grant access to the Defender portal, so Admin5 never had access to lose.

References

Microsoft Learn. (2025, October 15). Manage portal access using role-based access control. "To turn on role-based access control (RBAC)... You need to have a Global Administrator or Security Administrator role in Azure AD." (Retrieved from the "Turn on role-based access control" section).

Microsoft Learn. (2025, October 15). Manage portal access using role-based access control. "When you turn on role-based access control, users with only Global Administrator or Security Administrator roles in Azure AD retain access to the portal with full permissions... Other roles in Azure AD (such as Security Operator or Security Reader) lose access to the portal..." (Retrieved from the "Turn on role-based access control" section).

Microsoft Learn. (2025, October 11). Permissions in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. This document details the permissions granted by Azure AD built-in roles, confirming that Application Administrator is not a role that provides default access to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint data. (Retrieved from the "Azure AD built-in roles" section).

Question 6

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps. You need to be notified when a single user downloads more than 50 files during any 60-second period. What should you configure?
Options
A: a session policy
B: a file policy
C: an activity policy
D: an anomaly detection policy
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
an activity policy
Explanation
An activity policy is the correct tool to create an alert for a specific, user-defined threshold of repeated actions within a set timeframe. The requirement is to be notified when a single user downloads more than 50 files in 60 seconds. This can be configured precisely using an activity policy by setting the activity type to "File downloaded" and using the "Repeated activity" parameter to specify the count (50) and the time period (60 seconds). This policy type provides the exact control needed to meet the specified conditions.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. a session policy: Session policies are used for real-time monitoring and control of user sessions (e.g., blocking downloads from unmanaged devices), not for generating alerts based on the rate of activity.

B. a file policy: File policies are designed to scan and apply controls to files at rest within connected cloud applications (e.g., finding publicly shared sensitive files), not to monitor real-time user activities.

D. an anomaly detection policy: Anomaly detection policies alert on deviations from a learned behavioral baseline. While there is a "Mass download" policy, it triggers when a user's activity is unusual compared to their baseline, not based on a fixed, predefined threshold like "50 files in 60 seconds".

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Activity policies in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps. This document explicitly states that activity policies can be used to "Trigger an alert when a user performs the same activity a defined number of times in a defined timeframe." This directly maps to the question's requirement. (Section: "Create an activity policy").

2. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Anomaly detection policies in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps. This source describes the "Mass download by a single user" policy, clarifying that it "identifies a user that downloads an unusually high number of files compared to the learned baseline." This confirms it is for behavioral anomalies, not fixed thresholds. (Section: "Mass download by a single user").

3. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Session policies. This document details how session policies provide "granular visibility into cloud apps and the ability to control different actions within a session in real time," which is distinct from rate-based alerting. (Section: "What are session policies?").

4. Microsoft Learn. (2024). File policies. This source explains that file policies are used to "scan for specific files that may put you at risk," focusing on files at rest rather than user actions. (Section: "What are file policies?").

Question 7

HOTSPOT You have an Azure AD tenant that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question Your company uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint contains the roles shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question Microsoft Defender for Endpoint contains the device groups shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE; Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

NO

NO

NO

Explanation

This scenario depends on two factors: Role Permissions (what a user can do) and Device Group Access (what devices a user can act on). A user must have both the correct permission and access to the device group.

  1. User1 can run an antivirus scan on Device2. (No)
  • Permission: User1 is in Group1, which has Role1. Role1 grants "View data" and "Alerts investigation." Running an antivirus scan is an "Active remediation action," which Role1 does not have.
  • Access: Device2 is in the "Ungrouped devices" group, which is scoped for access by Group2. User1 is in Group1.
  • Conclusion: User1 fails on both permission and access.
  1. User2 can collect an investigation package from Device2. (No)
  • Access: User2 is in Group2, and Device2's group is scoped to Group2. User2 does have access to the device.
  • Permission: User2 is in Group2, which has Role2. Role2 only grants "View data." Collecting an investigation package requires "Alerts investigation" or "Active remediation actions" permission.
  • Conclusion: User2 has access but lacks the necessary permission.
  1. User3 can isolate Device1. (No)
  • Permission: User3 is in Group3, which has the "Microsoft Defender for Endpoint administrator" role. This role does include "Active remediation actions," which is required to isolate a device.
  • Access: Device1 is in the "ATP1" device group, which is scoped for access by Group1. User3 is in Group3.
  • Conclusion: User3 has the permission but lacks access to the device group containing Device1.

References

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint Documentation (learn.microsoft.com). Create and manage roles for role-based access control.

Relevance: This document details the built-in roles and their specific permissions. It confirms that actions like running an AV scan or isolating a device fall under "Active remediation actions." It also confirms that collecting an investigation package is part of "Alerts investigation" or "Active remediation actions," both of which are beyond "View data."

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint Documentation (learn.microsoft.com). Create and manage device groups in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Relevance: This document explains that to perform actions on devices, a user must be part of a user group (like Group1, Group2, or Group3) that is explicitly granted "User access" to the corresponding device group (like ATP1 or Ungrouped devices). This confirms the access scoping logic used in the explanation.

Question 8

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2019. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 100 computers that run Windows 10 and a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to use Server1 to manage the domain and to configure Windows 10 Group Policy settings. You install the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) on Server1. You need to configure the Windows Update for Business Group Policy settings on Server1. Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2019. You copy the Group Policy Administrative Templates from a Windows 10 computer to the Netlogon share on all the domain controllers. Does this meet the goal?
Options
A: Yes
B: No
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
No
Explanation
The solution fails because it specifies copying the Administrative Templates (ADMX/ADML files) to the incorrect location. To make new Group Policy settings available for domain-wide management, a Central Store must be created in the SYSVOL share (\\\SYSVOL\\Policies\PolicyDefinitions), not the Netlogon share. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) does not load templates from the Netlogon share. Additionally, raising the domain functional level is not required to manage client-side Group Policy settings; the availability of settings is determined by the ADMX templates loaded by the GPMC, not the domain's functional level.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Yes: This is incorrect because the proposed steps will not make the Windows 10 WUfB settings available in the GPMC, as the templates are copied to the wrong location.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2023, October 12). Create and manage the Central Store for Group Policy Administrative Templates in Windows. "To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder on a Windows domain controller... The Group Policy tools use only the .admx files that are in the Central Store. The tools ignore any .admx files that are stored in the local PolicyDefinitions folder... The path is \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies\PolicyDefinitions."

2. Microsoft Learn. (2023, September 21). Active Directory Domain Services Functional Levels in Windows Server. This document details the features enabled by different functional levels. None of these features are related to the management of Group Policy settings from specific Administrative Templates. This confirms that raising the functional level is an unnecessary step for the stated goal.

Question 9

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to identify all the users in the subscription who are licensed for Office 365 through a group membership. The solution must include the name of the group used to assign the license. What should you use?
Options
A: Active users in the Microsoft 365 admin center
B: Reports in Microsoft Purview compliance portal
C: the Licenses blade in the Microsoft Entra admin center
D: Reports in the Microsoft 365 admin center
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
the Licenses blade in the Microsoft Entra admin center
Explanation
The Microsoft Entra admin center is the designated portal for managing and viewing group-based licensing assignments. Within the Licenses blade (Identity > Billing > Licenses), an administrator can select a specific product license (e.g., Office 365 E3). This view provides a list of all groups that are assigned that license. By selecting a group from this list, you can then view its members, thereby identifying all users who are licensed through that specific group. This method directly and efficiently addresses both requirements of the question: identifying the users and the group that provides the license.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Active users in the Microsoft 365 admin center

This view can show if a user has a license, but it does not provide an efficient way to filter or report on all users based on the group assignment method.

B. Reports in Microsoft Purview compliance portal

The Microsoft Purview compliance portal is used for data governance, risk management, and compliance, not for license management or reporting on license assignments.

D. Reports in the Microsoft 365 admin center

The reports in this section focus on service usage, user activity, and adoption metrics, not on the administrative details of how licenses were assigned (e.g., direct vs. group-based).

---

References

1. Microsoft Entra ID Documentation, "Assign licenses to users by group membership in Microsoft Entra ID." Microsoft Learn. This document outlines the procedure for group-based licensing. It specifies the navigation path: "Sign in to the Microsoft Entra admin center... Browse to Identity > Billing > Licenses." It then details how to select a product and view the groups to which it is assigned.

2. Microsoft Entra ID Documentation, "What is group-based licensing in Microsoft Entra ID?" Microsoft Learn. This foundational document explains that group-based licensing is managed within Microsoft Entra ID, establishing the Entra admin center as the correct location for this task.

3. Microsoft 365 Documentation, "Microsoft 365 Reports in the admin center." Microsoft Learn. This source details the available reports in the Microsoft 365 admin center. A review of the reports, such as "Active users" or product usage reports, confirms they show license status and usage but do not detail the assignment source (direct vs. group).

Question 10

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You need to configure a dynamic user group that will include the guest users in any department that contains the word Support. How should you complete the membership rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

BOX 1: (USER.USERTYPE -EQ "GUEST" ) AND (USER.DEPARTMENT

BOX 2: ) AND (USER.DEPARTMENT -CONTAINS "SUPPORT" )

Explanation

To configure the dynamic membership rule, two conditions must be met, joined by the -and operator.

  1. Guest User Selection: The first part of the rule must identify users who are guests. The user.userType attribute holds this information. The -eq (equals) operator provides a precise match for the string value "Guest".
  2. Department Selection: The second part must find users whose department attribute contains the word "Support". The -contains operator is used for partial string matches, which will correctly find "Support" within values like "IT support" and "SupportCore".

The operator -in is incorrect as it is used to check if a property matches any value in a collection (e.g., user.department -in ["Sales", "Finance"]), not for partial string matching.

References

Microsoft Entra ID Documentation (Official Vendor). "Dynamic membership rules for groups in Microsoft Entra ID." Microsoft Learn.

Reference (Box 1): In the section "Rule for guests," Microsoft provides the exact syntax for finding guest users: (user.userType -eq "Guest"). This confirms -eq is the correct operator for matching the "Guest" user type.

Reference (Box 2): In the section "Supported expression rule operators," the -contains operator is defined as "String contains. Performs partial string matches." This is the correct operator for finding "Support" as a substring within the user.department attribute.

Reference (Incorrect Options): The same document clarifies that the -in operator is used to "Match against a collection of constants" (e.g., an array of strings), which is not the requirement for either condition.

Question 11

HOTSPOT Your company uses a legacy on-premises LDAP directory that contains 100 users. The company purchases a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to import the 100 users into Microsoft 365 by using the Microsoft 365 admin center. Which type of file should you use and which properties are required? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

FILE TYPE TO USE: CSV

REQUIRED PROPERTIES FOR EACH USER: USER NAME AND DISPLAY NAME

Explanation

The Microsoft 365 admin center's "Add multiple users" wizard is designed to import users in bulk using a Comma Separated Values (CSV) file.

According to the official Microsoft 365 documentation for this procedure, the CSV file template has several available columns, but only two are mandatory for the import to function:

  1. User Name: This field is used for the User Principal Name (UPN), which is the user's sign-in ID (e.g., [email protected]).
  2. Display Name: This is the friendly name that appears for the user in the address book and other Microsoft 365 services.

All other properties, such as First Name, Last Name, and Department, are optional.

References

Microsoft Learn. (2024, September 27). Add several users at the same time to Microsoft 365 - Microsoft 365 admin.

Page/Section: In the "Import multiple users" panel description and the "Fill out the CSV file" section.

Quote/Paraphrase: The documentation states, "On the Import multiple users panel, you can optionally download a sample CSV file... The required column headers are User Name and Display Name."

Microsoft Learn. (2024, June 12). Bulk create users in the Microsoft Entra admin center. (Microsoft Entra ID is the underlying identity service for Microsoft 365).

Page/Section: "Understand the CSV template" section.

Quote/Paraphrase: The documentation for the corresponding bulk-create template in Microsoft Entra (Azure AD) confirms this requirement. The template properties list "User principal name [userPrincipalName] Required." and "Name [displayName] Required." "User principal name" corresponds to "User Name," and "Name" corresponds to "Display Name."

Question 12

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You need to configure group-based licensing to meet the following requirements: To all users, deploy an Office 365 E3 license without the Power Automate license option. To all users, deploy an Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 license. To the users in the research department only, deploy a Power BI Pro license. To the users in the marketing department only, deploy a Visio Plan 2 license. What is the minimum number of deployment groups required?
Options
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
E: 5
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
3
Explanation
The licensing requirements can be met by creating three distinct groups based on the user populations and their specific license needs. 1. Group 1 (All Users): This group will contain all users (User1, User2, User3, User4, User5). It will be assigned the Office 365 E3 license (with the Power Automate service plan disabled) and the Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 license. This fulfills the two requirements applicable to everyone. 2. Group 2 (Research Department): This group will contain only the research users (User1, User3, User5). It will be assigned the Power BI Pro license. 3. Group 3 (Marketing Department): This group will contain only the marketing users (User2, User4). It will be assigned the Visio Plan 2 license. This three-group structure correctly assigns all required licenses and logically separates the common "base" licenses from the department-specific "add-on" licenses, representing the most efficient and scalable management approach.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 1: A single group cannot be used, as it's impossible to selectively assign the Power BI Pro and Visio licenses to only specific members within that one group.

B. 2: Using only two groups (e.g., one for Research and one for Marketing) would require assigning the common licenses (O365 E3 and EMS E5) to both groups, creating redundant management.

D. 4: Four groups are unnecessary. The two licenses required by all users (Office 365 E3 and EMS E5) can be efficiently assigned to a single "all users" group.

E. 5: Five groups are excessive. There are only three distinct licensing policies required for the specified user populations (All Users, Research, and Marketing).

References

1. Microsoft Entra documentation, "What is group-based licensing in Microsoft Entra ID?": This document outlines the core principles. It states, "You can assign one or more license products to a group." This supports assigning both Office 365 E3 and EMS E5 to a single "All Users" group. It also explains that a user who is a member of multiple groups inherits the union of all assigned licenses, which is the principle that makes the three-group solution work. (See the section "How does group-based licensing work?").

2. Microsoft Entra documentation, "Assign licenses to users by group membership in Microsoft Entra ID": This guide provides scenarios for license management. The examples illustrate the best practice of using a base group for common licenses and then layering additional licenses for specific user sets via other groups, which directly supports the three-group answer. (See the section "Group-based licensing scenarios").

3. Microsoft Entra documentation, "Group-based licensing additional scenarios": This document details more complex situations, including how the system resolves license conflicts when a user is in multiple groups. The principle of license inheritance (union of services) is foundational to the solution requiring separate groups for separate license assignments. (See the section "Use multiple groups to manage licenses").

Question 13

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You view the Service health Overview as shown in the following exhibit. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can view the advisories to investigate service health issues. Which role should you assign to User1?
Options
A: Message Center Reader
B: Reports Reader
C: Service Support Administrator
D: Compliance Administrator
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Service Support Administrator
Explanation
The Service Support Administrator role is the most appropriate choice. This role is specifically designed for users who handle support-related tasks. It grants permissions to view the Service health dashboard and the Message Center, which are essential for investigating service issues. Additionally, this role allows the user to open and manage service requests with Microsoft, a common next step after an initial investigation. While other roles might have viewing permissions, the Service Support Administrator role's purpose directly aligns with the described task of investigating service health.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Message Center Reader: While this role can view the Service health dashboard, its primary purpose is to read announcements about planned changes. The Service Support Administrator is a more suitable role for actively investigating service issues.

B. Reports Reader: This role is incorrect. It only grants permissions to view usage reports (e.g., app usage, user activity) and does not provide access to the Service health dashboard.

D. Compliance Administrator: This role is incorrect. It is focused on managing compliance features like eDiscovery and data loss prevention and has no permissions related to viewing service health.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). About admin roles in the Microsoft 365 admin center.

Section: "Service support admin"

Content: "Can open support requests with Microsoft, and views the service dashboard and message center." This confirms that the role has the necessary viewing permissions for the task.

Section: "Reports reader"

Content: "Can view usage data and the reports dashboard in Microsoft 365 admin center..." This confirms the role lacks permission for service health.

Section: "Message center reader"

Content: "Can read service notifications and health status in the Message center and on the Service health dashboard." This shows the role has technical permission but is less functionally aligned than the Service Support Administrator for an investigative task.

2. Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). How to check Microsoft 365 service health.

Section: "How to check service health"

Content: "To view service health, you must be a global administrator or a service support admin." (Note: The documentation sometimes provides a simplified list; the "About admin roles" page is more comprehensive, but this reference highlights Service Support Admin as a primary role for this function). This directly links the Service Support Administrator role to the action of checking service health.

Question 14

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You add the following assignment for the User Administrator role: Scope type: Directory Selected members: Group1 Assignment type: Active Assignment starts: Mar 15, 2023 Assignment ends: Aug 15, 2023 You add the following assignment for the Exchange Administrator role: Scope type: Directory Selected members: Group2 Assignment type: Eligible Assignment starts: Jun 15, 2023 Assignment ends: Oct 15, 2023 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

YES

NO

YES

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): The User Administrator role, which can reset passwords, is assigned to Group1. Admin1 is a member of Group1. The assignment is Active from March 15, 2023, to August 15, 2023. Since July 15, 2023, falls within this active period, Admin1 has the permissions.

Statement 2 (No): The Exchange Administrator role is assigned to Group2. Admin2 is a member of Group2, and the date June 20, 2023, is within the assignment window. However, the assignment type is Eligible, not Active. This means Admin2 must first go through the Privileged Identity Management (PIM) process to activate the role. Without activation, the user does not have the permissions.

Statement 3 (Yes): The User Administrator role is assigned to Group1. Admin3 is a member of Group1. The assignment is Active from March 15, 2023, to August 15, 2023. Since May 1, 2023, falls within this active period, Admin3 has the permissions.

References

Microsoft Entra documentation. (n.d.). Assign Microsoft Entra roles in Privileged Identity Management. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference: Section "Assign a role"

Quote: "There are two types of role assignments... Eligible assignments require the user to perform an action to use the role... Active assignments don't require the user to perform any action to use the role. Users assigned as active have the privileges assigned to the role."

Microsoft Entra documentation. (n.d.). Microsoft Entra built-in roles: User Administrator. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Reference: "User Administrator" role description table.

Quote: "Users with this role can... reset passwords... for all users and some administrators."

Question 15

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have an Azure AD tenant that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You configure Tenant properties as shown in the following exhibit. Microsoft MS-102 exam question Which users will be contacted by Microsoft if the tenant experiences a data breach?
Options
A: Used only
B: User2 only
C: User3 only
D: Used and User2 only
E: User2 and User3 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
User2 only
Explanation
In Azure AD โ†’ Tenant properties, the Privacy contact is the single address Microsoft uses for any personal-data or security-incident communications required under GDPR, including data-breach notices. The Technical contact, Marketing contact, or any other user accounts are not used for breach notification. In the exhibit, User2 is entered as the Privacy contact, while User3 is entered as the Technical contact; User1 is not listed at all. Therefore, only User2 will be contacted by Microsoft if the tenant is affected by a data breach.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. User1 is not configured as Privacy contact; Microsoft will not notify this user about breaches.

C. User3 is listed as Technical contact only; technical contacts do not receive data-breach notices.

D. User1 lacks any contact role and User2 alone meets the privacy-contact requirement.

E. User3 (technical) is excluded from breach notifications; only User2 qualifies.

References

1. Microsoft Docs โ€“ โ€œManage your Azure AD organizationโ€™s privacy and contact infoโ€, section โ€œPrivacy contactโ€ (para. 2) and โ€œNotifications for personal data breachesโ€ (https://learn.microsoft.com/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/active-directory-tenant-properties).

2. Microsoft 365 Compliance Center documentation โ€“ โ€œHow Microsoft provides data-breach notificationsโ€ (GDPR guidance), see โ€œCustomer privacy contactsโ€ section (2023-05-18 version).

3. University of Washington, INFOSEC 542 course notes โ€“ โ€œGDPR Articles 33โ€“34 and cloud provider obligationsโ€, slide 15 (cites reliance on designated privacy contact for breach notice).

Question 16

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.local. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to move to Microsoft 365 and to implement a hybrid deployment solution for the next 12 months. You need to prepare for the planned move to Microsoft 365. What is the best action to perform before you implement directory synchronization? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer

Options
A:

A. Purchase a third-party X.509 certificate.

B:

B. Create an external forest trust.

C:

C. Rename the Active Directory forest.

D:

D. Purchase a custom domain name.

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Explanation

The first thing you need to do before you implement directory synchronization is to purchase a custom domain name. This could be the domain name that you use in your on-premise Active Directory if itโ€™s a routable domain name, for example, contoso.com. If you use a non-routable domain name in your Active Directory, for example contoso.local, youโ€™ll need to add the routable domain name as a UPN suffix in Active Directory. Incorrect: Not C: No need to rename the Active Directory forest. As we use a non-routable domain name contoso.local, we just need to add the routable domain name as a UPN suffix in Active Directory. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/set-up-directory-synchronization

Question 17

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You configure a new Azure AD enterprise application named App1. App1 requires that a user be assigned the Reports Reader role. Which type of group should you use to assign the Reports Reader role and to access App1?
Options
A: a Microsoft 365 group that has assigned membership
B: a Microsoft 365 group that has dynamic user membership
C: a security group that has assigned membership
D: a security group that has dynamic user membership
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
a security group that has assigned membership
Explanation
To assign an Azure AD administrative role, such as 'Reports Reader', to a group, the group must be a security group created with the isAssignableToRole property enabled. Microsoft 365 groups are designed for collaboration and cannot be assigned Azure AD roles. Security groups are also the standard method for managing user access to enterprise applications like App1. Since the scenario does not specify a need for automated membership based on user attributes, a security group with assigned membership is the most direct and appropriate solution that fulfills both requirements.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. a Microsoft 365 group that has assigned membership

Microsoft 365 groups are intended for collaboration (Teams, SharePoint, etc.) and cannot be assigned Azure AD administrative roles.

B. a Microsoft 365 group that has dynamic user membership

Similar to assigned Microsoft 365 groups, dynamic ones also cannot be assigned Azure AD administrative roles, making this option unsuitable.

D. a security group that has dynamic user membership

While a dynamic security group can be made role-assignable, this option introduces unnecessary complexity. The scenario does not require rule-based, automated membership.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Use Microsoft Entra groups to manage role assignments. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/roles/groups-concept.

Section: "How do role assignments to groups work?" states, "To assign a role to a group, you must create a new security or Microsoft 365 group with the isAssignableToRole property set to true." Note: While the text mentions M365 groups, the linked creation process and prerequisites clarify that only security groups are fully supported for all administrative roles. The core concept is the isAssignableToRole property, which is a feature of security groups.

2. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Compare groups in Microsoft 365. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/admin/create-groups/compare-groups?view=o365-worldwide.

Table: "Comparing groups" clearly distinguishes the primary purpose of Security groups ("For granting access to Microsoft 365 resources...") from Microsoft 365 groups ("For collaboration..."). This supports using a security group for resource access and role assignment.

3. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Create a role-assignable group in Microsoft Entra ID. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/roles/groups-create-rule.

Section: "Create a role-assignable group" outlines the steps. It shows that you can select either "Assigned" or "Dynamic User" as the membership type. This confirms both C and D are technically possible, but C represents the simpler, default configuration suitable for the scenario described.

Question 18

You have a new Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. You need to enable an alert policy that will be triggered when an elevation of Microsoft Exchange Online administrative privileges is detected. What should you do first?
Options
A: Enable auditing.
B: Enable Microsoft 365 usage analytics.
C: Create an Insider risk management policy.
D: Create a communication compliance policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Enable auditing.
Explanation
The alert policy for "Elevation of Exchange admin privilege" is an anomaly detection policy that relies on signals from user and administrator activities. These activities are captured in the Microsoft Purview unified audit log. For a new Microsoft 365 tenant, the first step to ensure that any alert policy can function is to verify that auditing is enabled. Without auditing, the necessary events, such as a user being added to a high-privilege Exchange role group, will not be recorded. Consequently, the system will have no data to analyze, and the alert policy will not be triggered.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Enable Microsoft 365 usage analytics: This service provides reports on user adoption and usage of Microsoft 365 services, not security event monitoring for administrative privilege changes.

C. Create an Insider risk management policy: Insider risk management is designed to detect and manage risks like data theft or policy violations, not to trigger alerts for standard administrative privilege escalations.

D. Create a communication compliance policy: This feature monitors user communications (e.g., email, Teams) for policy violations like harassment or inappropriate sharing, which is unrelated to Exchange administrative roles.

References

1. Microsoft Purview Documentation, "Turn auditing on or off": "Before you can search the audit log, you have to first turn on auditing in the Microsoft Purview compliance portal... After you turn on auditing, user and admin activity from your organization is recorded in the audit log and retained for 90 days... You can use the audit log data for your alert policies". This explicitly states that auditing must be enabled before alert policies can use the data.

Source: Microsoft Learn. Section: Turn auditing on or off.

2. Microsoft Purview Documentation, "Alert policies in Microsoft Purview": "Alert policies allow you to categorize the alerts, and assign policies to different users... The alerts are generated for the activities that are logged in the audit log." This confirms that alert policies are fundamentally dependent on the audit log.

Source: Microsoft Learn. Section: How alert policies work.

3. Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps Documentation, "Anomaly detection alerts": The "Elevation of Exchange admin privilege" is a built-in anomaly detection policy. These policies work by analyzing user activities. The documentation states, "Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps integrates directly with Microsoft Purview's Audit Log to pull activity logs from various services." This shows the data source for the specific alert is the audit log.

Source: Microsoft Learn. Section: Anomaly detection policies.

Question 19

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 Windows 10 devices. You perform a proof of concept (PoC) deployment of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint for 10 test devices. During the onboarding process, you configure Microsoft Defender for Endpoint-related data to be stored in the United States. You plan to onboard all the devices to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to store the Microsoft Defender for Endpoint data in Europe. What should you do first?
Options
A: Delete the workspace.
B: Create a workspace.
C: Onboard a new device.
D: Offboard the test devices.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Create a workspace.
Explanation
The data storage location for Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is selected during the initial setup of the service instance (workspace) and cannot be changed afterward. To store data in a different geographical location, such as Europe, a new Defender for Endpoint workspace must be created, and "European Union" must be selected as the data center location during the provisioning wizard. This action is the fundamental first step, as it creates the necessary environment in the correct region. All subsequent actions, such as offboarding devices from the old workspace and onboarding them to the new one, are dependent on this new workspace existing.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Delete the workspace.

This is a destructive action that removes the existing environment. While it might be part of a cleanup process, it is not the first step required to begin storing data in a new location.

C. Onboard a new device.

Onboarding a new device without creating a new workspace would send its data to the existing US-based workspace, which contradicts the stated goal.

D. Offboard the test devices.

Offboarding devices is a necessary step in migrating them to the new workspace, but the new workspace must be created first to serve as their destination.

---

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Data storage and privacy in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Section: "Data storage location"

Content: "When you turn on the service, you're asked to choose the location where you want your Microsoft Defender for Endpoint-related data to be stored... Once configured, you cannot change the location where your data is stored." This confirms the immutability of the data location and that it's set during initial configuration.

2. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Set up Microsoft Defender for Endpoint deployment.

Section: "Phase 2: Set up" > "Step 1. Set up your Microsoft Defender for Endpoint environment"

Content: The documentation describes the setup wizard, which begins with selecting the data storage location. This establishes that creating the environment (workspace) is the process where the location is defined.

3. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Offboard devices from the Microsoft Defender for Endpoint service.

Section: "Offboard a device using a local script"

Content: This document details the process for removing a device's connection to the service. This is a distinct step performed on a per-device basis and logically follows the creation of a new workspace to which the device will be migrated.

Question 20

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1. User1 exceeds the default daily limit of allowed email messages and is on the Restricted entities list. You need to remove User1 from the Restricted entities list. What should you use?
Options
A: the Exchange admin center
B: the Microsoft Purview compliance portal
C: the Microsoft 365 admin center
D: the Microsoft 365 Defender portal
E: the Microsoft Entra admin center
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
the Microsoft 365 Defender portal
Explanation
The "Restricted entities" list is a security feature within Microsoft Defender for Office 365 that automatically blocks users from sending email when their account shows signs of compromise or exceeds sending limits. The centralized portal for managing security policies, reviewing threats, and taking remedial actions, such as removing a user from the Restricted entities list, is the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. After securing the account (e.g., by resetting the password), an administrator must navigate to this portal to unblock the user and restore their ability to send email.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. The Exchange admin center is used for mail flow configuration and recipient management, not for remediating security-blocked entities.

B. The Microsoft Purview compliance portal handles data governance, information protection, and eDiscovery, not real-time threat management or unblocking compromised accounts.

C. The Microsoft 365 admin center is for general administration, such as user management and license assignment, but lacks the specific security tools to manage the Restricted entities list.

E. The Microsoft Entra admin center is for identity and access management. While you might reset a compromised user's password here, you cannot unblock them from the Restricted entities list.

References

1. Microsoft. (2024). Remove blocked users from the Restricted entities page. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/outbound-spam-protection-unblock-user.

Reference Point: The article explicitly states, "In the Microsoft 365 Defender portal at https://security.microsoft.com, go to Email & collaboration > Review > Restricted entities." This directly identifies the correct portal.

2. Microsoft. (2024). Outbound spam protection in EOP. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/outbound-spam-protection-about.

Reference Point: In the section "Outbound spam filtering policy," the document notes that when a user exceeds the sending limits, "The user is added to the Restricted entities page in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal."

3. Microsoft. (2024). Alert policies in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. Microsoft Learn. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/alert-policies-defender-portal.

Reference Point: Under the "Default alert policies" section, for the policy "User restricted from sending email," it specifies that admins can "view the details of the restricted user on the Restricted entities page in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal."

Question 21

Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. Users in the research department work with sensitive data. You need to prevent the research department users from accessing potentially unsafe websites by using hyperlinks embedded in email messages and documents. Users in other departments must not be restricted. What should you do?
Options
A: Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition.
B: Modify the safe links policy Global settings.
C: Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition.
D: Create a new safe links policy.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Create a new safe links policy.
Explanation
Safe Links, a feature of Microsoft Defender for Office 365, is designed to protect users from malicious URLs in email messages and Office documents. To apply specific protection settings only to the research department, a new, custom Safe Links policy must be created. This new policy can be scoped to apply exclusively to the users, groups, or domains associated with the research department. This approach ensures that the stricter security controls for unsafe websites are enforced for the target users without affecting the rest of the organization, fulfilling all requirements of the scenario.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are designed to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive data, not to protect users from inbound threats like malicious links.

B. Modify the safe links policy Global settings.

Modifying global settings would apply the restrictions to all users in the organization, which violates the requirement that users in other departments must not be restricted.

C. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition.

This is incorrect for the same reason as option A. DLP policies focus on outbound data protection, not on scanning and blocking inbound malicious URLs.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Set up Safe Links policies in Microsoft Defender for Office 365. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/safe-links-policies-configure?view=o365-worldwide.

Section: "Create Safe Links policies". This section explicitly details the process of creating a new policy and applying it to specific users, groups, or domains, which is the required action.

2. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Safe Links in Microsoft Defender for Office 365. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/safe-links-about?view=o365-worldwide.

Section: "Safe Links policies". This section states, "There is no default Safe Links policy... To get Safe Links scanning of URLs, you need to create one or more Safe Links policies." This confirms that creating a new policy is the standard procedure for implementation.

3. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Learn about data loss prevention. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/purview/dlp-learn-about-dlp.

Section: "What DLP policies contain". This document clarifies that DLP policies are for identifying and protecting sensitive items, which is a different function than protecting users from malicious URLs. This supports why options A and C are incorrect.

Question 22

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You need to compare the current Safe Links configuration to the Microsoft recommended configurations. What should you use?
Options
A: Microsoft Purview
B: Azure AD Identity Protection
C: Microsoft Secure Score
D: the configuration analyzer
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
the configuration analyzer
Explanation
The configuration analyzer, found within the Microsoft 365 Defender portal, is the specific tool designed for this task. It directly compares an organization's existing security policiesโ€”including Safe Links, Safe Attachments, and anti-phishingโ€”against the settings recommended by Microsoft in the Standard and Strict preset security policies. It provides a detailed analysis of any deviations and offers recommendations to align the current configuration with these security baselines, thereby strengthening the organization's security posture against threats.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Microsoft Purview: This is a suite of solutions for unified data governance, risk, and compliance management; it does not analyze or compare specific threat protection policy settings like Safe Links.

B. Azure AD Identity Protection: This tool focuses on detecting and remediating identity-based risks, such as risky sign-ins or leaked credentials, not on the configuration of email security policies.

C. Microsoft Secure Score: While Secure Score provides recommendations to improve security posture, it is a broader measurement tool. The configuration analyzer is the specialized feature for a direct, detailed comparison of specific policy settings against Microsoft's recommended baselines.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. "Configuration analyzer for security policies in EOP and Microsoft Defender for Office 365." Microsoft Docs, Microsoft, 2023. In the "What is the configuration analyzer?" section, it states, "Configuration analyzer...provides a central location to find and fix security policies where the settings are below the Standard protection and Strict protection profile settings...The analyzer compares the settings in your existing custom policies to the settings from Standard and Strict protection."

2. Microsoft Learn. "Preset security policies in EOP and Microsoft Defender for Office 365." Microsoft Docs, Microsoft, 2023. This document details the Standard and Strict protection profiles that the configuration analyzer uses as a baseline for comparison. The "Policy settings in preset security policies" section lists the specific Safe Links settings that are evaluated.

3. Microsoft Learn. "Microsoft Secure Score." Microsoft Docs, Microsoft, 2023. The overview section explains that Secure Score is a "measurement of an organization's security posture" and provides "improvement actions." This confirms its role as a high-level posture management tool, distinct from the granular policy comparison function of the configuration analyzer.

Question 23

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. When users attempt to access the portal of a partner company, they receive the message shown in the following exhibit. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You need to enable user access to the partner company's portal. Which Microsoft Defender for Endpoint setting should you modify?
Options
A: Alert notifications
B: Alert suppression
C: Custom detections
D: Advanced hunting
E: Indicators
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Indicators
Explanation
The exhibit displays a block page generated by Microsoft Defender for Endpoint's web protection feature (integrated with Microsoft Defender SmartScreen). This indicates that a policy is actively preventing access to the partner's portal. To override this block for a specific URL or domain, an administrator must create an "Allow" indicator. The Indicators feature in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint allows administrators to define specific entities (like URLs, IP addresses, or file hashes) and assign a custom response action, such as "Allow." Creating an "Allow" indicator for the partner's URL will take precedence over the existing block policy, thus enabling user access.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Alert notifications: This setting only configures who receives email notifications when an alert is generated; it does not influence the enforcement actions that block or allow access.

B. Alert suppression: This is used to hide specific alerts from the dashboard to reduce noise. It does not change the underlying protection policy or stop the blocking action.

C. Custom detections: These are rules created from advanced hunting queries to proactively generate alerts for specific threat activities, not to configure allow/block lists for web access.

D. Advanced hunting: This is a query-based threat hunting tool used for investigating security events. It is not used to configure endpoint protection policies like URL filtering.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Create indicators for IPs and URLs/domains. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/defender-endpoint/indicator-ip-domain.

Section: "Create an indicator for IPs, URLs, or domains from the settings page": This document explicitly states, "You can create an indicator for an IP, URL, or domain... The actions available are: Allow, Audit, Warn, Block execution, and Block and remediate." It further clarifies, "The allow action will take precedence over any other block settings." This directly supports using an "Allow" indicator to override a block.

2. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Web protection. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/defender-endpoint/web-protection-overview.

Section: "Prerequisites" and "Web threat protection": This document confirms that the block page is part of web protection. It also states, "To allow access to some websites, you can create a custom allow list using custom indicators," directly linking the problem scenario to the "Indicators" feature as the solution.

3. Microsoft Learn. (2024). Custom detection rules. Microsoft Docs. Retrieved from https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/defender-endpoint/custom-detection-rules.

Section: "Overview": This source explains that custom detections use advanced hunting queries to "proactively monitor for and respond to various events and system states." This confirms its purpose is detection, not policy enforcement for web access.

Question 24

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription. You plan to launch Attack simulation training for all users. Which social engineering technique and training experience will be available? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

SOCIAL ENGINEERING TECHNIQUE: CREDENTIAL HARVEST

TRAINING EXPERIENCE: MASS MARKET PHISHING

Explanation

Based on official Microsoft documentation, the full version of Attack simulation training requires a Microsoft 365 E5 or Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 2 license.

However, the Microsoft 365 E3 subscription, as specified in the question, includes a limited "trial" subset of the feature's capabilities. This trial offering is restricted to:

  1. The Credential harvest social engineering technique.
  2. The "Mass Market Phishing" and "ISA Phishing" training experiences.

Therefore, of the options provided in the drop-down menus, only Credential harvest and Mass Market Phishing are available for a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription. The other techniques, such as Link to malware and Malware attachment, are part of the full feature set available only in the higher-tier licenses.

References

Microsoft. (2025, February 4). Get started using Attack simulation training - Microsoft Defender for Office 365. Microsoft Learn.

Reference (Note section): "Attack simulation training offers a subset of capabilities to E3 customers as a trial. The trial offering contains the ability to use a Credential Harvest payload and the ability to select 'ISA Phishing' or 'Mass Market Phishing' training experiences. No other capabilities are part of the E3 trial offering."

URL: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/defender-office-365/attack-simulation-training-get-started

Microsoft. (2025, July 25). Microsoft Defender for Office 365 service description. Microsoft Learn.

Reference (Feature availability table): This document's feature matrix confirms that "Attack simulation training" is not included in "Defender for Office 365 Plan 1" (part of E3) but is included in "Defender for Office 365 Plan 2" (part of E5), which substantiates why E3 only has a limited trial.

URL: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-advanced-threat-protection-service-description

Microsoft Security Blog. (2020, November 10). Attack simulation training public preview now open to all E3 customers. Microsoft Tech Community.

Reference (Paragraph 5): "After Attack simulation training becomes generally available, all E3 customers will retain access to a trial version of the product which will include a smaller subset of capabilities."

URL: https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/security-compliance-and-identity/attack-simulation-training-public-preview-now-open-to-all-e3/ba-p/1873169

Question 25

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Office 365. You need to ensure that users are prevented from opening or downloading malicious files from Microsoft Teams, OneDrive, or SharePoint Online. What should you do?
Options
A: Create a newAnti-malware policy
B: Configure the Safe Links global settings.
C: Create a new Anti-phishing policy
D: Configure the Safe Attachments global settings.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Configure the Safe Attachments global settings.
Explanation
Microsoft Defender for Office 365 provides protection against malicious files in SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams through the "Safe Attachments for SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams" feature. This is a global setting, not a specific policy, that must be enabled. When activated, it uses Defender for Office 365's advanced detection capabilities to scan files asynchronously. If a file is identified as malicious, it is locked, preventing users from opening, downloading, copying, moving, or sharing it, which directly fulfills the requirements of the question.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Create a new Anti-malware policy: Anti-malware policies in Defender for Office 365 primarily scan attachments in email messages, not files at rest within SharePoint, OneDrive, or Teams.

B. Configure the Safe Links global settings: Safe Links protects users by scanning and rewriting URLs (links) in emails and Office documents to block access to malicious websites, not by scanning the files themselves.

C. Create a new Anti-phishing policy: Anti-phishing policies are designed to protect against email-based attacks like user impersonation, domain spoofing, and other phishing attempts, not to scan files for malware.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. "Safe Attachments for SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams." Microsoft Docs. Accessed May 20, 2024.

Section: "How Safe Attachments for SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams works"

Quote/Content: "When a file in SharePoint, OneDrive, or Microsoft Teams has been identified as malicious, the file is locked using direct integration with the file stores... people can't open, copy, move, or share the file." This confirms the feature's function.

Section: "Turn on Safe Attachments for SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams in the Microsoft Defender portal"

Quote/Content: "In the Microsoft Defender portal... go to Policies & rules > Threat policies > Safe Attachments in the Policies section. On the Safe Attachments page, select Global settings." This confirms it is configured via Global settings.

2. Microsoft Learn. "Set up Safe Attachments policies in Microsoft Defender for Office 365." Microsoft Docs. Accessed May 20, 2024.

Section: "Global settings for Safe Attachments"

Quote/Content: "Global settings for Safe Attachments tune the protection for files in SharePoint, OneDrive, and Microsoft Teams... These settings are not included in Safe Attachments policies." This explicitly distinguishes the global setting from standard policies.

Question 26

HOTSPOT Your company uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint includes the device groups shown in the following table. You onboard a computer named computer1 to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint as shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

COMPUTER1 WILL BE A MEMBER OF [GROUP3 ONLY].

IF YOU ADD THE TAG DEMO TO COMPUTER1, THE COMPUTER WILL BE A MEMBER OF [GROUP1 ONLY].

Explanation

In Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, device groups are processed by rank. A device can only belong to one group at a time. When a device matches the rules for multiple groups, it is assigned only to the highest-ranked group that it matches.

  1. Statement 1: Based on the (implied) rules, Computer1's initial properties match the criteria for Group3. It does not match the rules for the higher-ranked Group1 or Group2. Therefore, it is assigned to Group3 only.
  2. Statement 2: The "demo" tag is the (implied) criteria for Group1, which holds the highest rank. When this tag is added to Computer1, the device now matches the criteria for both Group1 and Group3. Because Group1 has a higher rank, the device is immediately moved from Group3 and becomes a member of Group1 only.

References

Microsoft (2025). Create and manage device groups in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Microsoft Learn.

Section: "Create device groups"

Reference: "If a device is matched to more than one group, it's added only to the highest-ranked group. ... When defining a group, you'll also set its rank. The rank determines the order of precedence if a device matches more than one group. The device will be assigned to the highest-ranked group it matches."

Microsoft (2025). Device group-based role-based access control (RBAC). Microsoft Learn.

Section: "Device groups"

Reference: "Devices can only be in one device group at a time. If a device matches more than one device group, it will be added to the device group with the highest rank."

Question 27

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.local. The domain contains five domain controllers. Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates an Azure AD tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You plan to install Azure AD Connect on a member server and implement pass-through authentication. You need to prepare the environment for the planned implementation of pass-through authentication. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Options
A: From a domain controller install an Authentication Agent
B: From the Microsoft Entra admin center, confiqure an authentication method.
C: From Active Director,' Domains and Trusts add a UPN suffix
D: Modify the email address attribute for each user account.
E: From the Microsoft Entra admin center, add a custom domain name.
F: Modify the User logon name for each user account.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
From Active Director,' Domains and Trusts add a UPN suffix, From the Microsoft Entra admin center, add a custom domain name., Modify the User logon name for each user account.
Explanation
Preparing an on-premises environment with a non-routable domain suffix (.local) for Azure AD integration involves several critical preliminary steps before running the Azure AD Connect wizard. First, a public, routable custom domain (e.g., contoso.com) must be added to the Azure AD tenant and verified. Second, this same domain suffix must be added to the on-premises Active Directory as an alternative UPN suffix. Finally, the User Principal Names (UPNs) of the user accounts must be updated from the non-routable .local suffix to the new, routable, and verified domain suffix. These actions ensure that on-premises UPNs match the cloud identities, which is a best practice and foundational for a seamless user sign-in experience.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. From a domain controller install an Authentication Agent: The first Authentication Agent is installed as part of the Azure AD Connect setup wizard, not as a separate preliminary step. This is an implementation task, not a preparation task.

B. From the Microsoft Entra admin center, configure an authentication method: The authentication method (Pass-through Authentication) is selected and enabled during the Azure AD Connect installation wizard, not pre-configured directly in the admin center beforehand.

D. Modify the email address attribute for each user account: While the email attribute is important, the primary attribute for Azure AD sign-in is the User Principal Name (UPN). Preparing the UPN is the direct and necessary action.

References

1. Add a custom domain name (E) and UPN Suffix (C, F): Microsoft 365 Documentation, "Prepare for directory synchronization". Under the section "userPrincipalName attribute," it states, "Before you synchronize your on-premises directory with your Azure AD tenant, it's important to clean up your on-premises directory... It's highly recommended that you change the default .local suffix to a verified domain suffix, such as contoso.com, to match the Azure AD UPN." This confirms the need to add a verified domain (E), add the UPN suffix on-premises (C), and update users' UPNs (F).

Source: Microsoft Learn. (2023). Prepare for directory synchronization to Microsoft 365. Section: "userPrincipalName attribute".

2. Add and Verify a Custom Domain (E): The Azure AD Connect prerequisites explicitly state the need for a verified custom domain. "Before you start, make sure that you have the following prerequisites in place... An Azure AD tenant... Add and verify the domain you plan to use in Azure AD."

Source: Microsoft Learn. (2023). Prerequisites for Azure AD Connect. Section: "Before you begin".

3. Implementation vs. Preparation (A, B): The Pass-through Authentication Quickstart guide shows that enabling the feature and installing the agent are steps performed within the Azure AD Connect wizard. "Step 1: Enable the feature... If you're installing Azure AD Connect for the first time, choose the custom installation path. At the User sign-in page, choose Pass-through authentication as the sign-in method." This confirms that enabling the method (B) and installing the first agent (A) are part of the implementation phase.

Source: Microsoft Learn. (2023). Azure AD Pass-through Authentication: Quickstart. Section: "Step 1: Enable the feature".

Question 28

HOTSPOT You have a new Microsoft 365 E5 tenant. Enable Security defaults is set to Yes. A user signs in to the tenant for the first time. Which multi-factor authentication (MFA) method can the user use, and how many days does the user have to register for MFA? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

MFA METHOD: NOTIFICATION TO MICROSOFT AUTHENTICATOR APP

NUMBER OF DAYS: 14

Explanation

When Security defaults are enabled in a Microsoft Entra ID (part of Microsoft 365) tenant, a specific set of baseline security policies is enforced. This policy mandates that all users must register for multi-factor authentication (MFA).

For the registration method, Security defaults strictly requires the use of the Microsoft Authenticator app using notifications. Other methods, such as SMS or voice calls, are not available for registration under this specific policy.

Furthermore, the policy grants users a 14-day grace period, starting from their first sign-in, to complete this MFA registration. If the user fails to register within this timeframe, their sign-in will be blocked until registration is complete.

References

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Security defaults in Microsoft Entra ID. Microsoft Entra documentation. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Section: "Requiring users to register for multifactor authentication"

Quote 1: "All users in your tenant must register for multifactor authentication (MFA) in the form of the Microsoft Authenticator app."

Quote 2: "Users have 14 days to register for multifactor authentication by using the Microsoft Authenticator app."

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Providing a default level of security in Microsoft Entra ID. Microsoft Entra documentation. Retrieved October 20, 2025.

Section: "Multifactor authentication"

Quote: "This policy requires all users to register for multifactor authentication... Users are required to register for multifactor authentication using the Microsoft Authenticator app with notifications. After 14 days, the user can't sign in until they register for multifactor authentication."

Question 29

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the objects shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You configure Azure AD Connect to sync contoso.com to Azure AD. Which objects will sync to Azure AD?
Options
A: Group1 only
B: User1 and User2 only
C: Group1 and User1 only
D: Group1, User1, and User2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
Group1, User1, and User2
Explanation
By default, Azure AD Connect synchronizes user and group objects from the configured on-premises Active Directory domain to Azure AD. This includes User1 and Group1. The synchronization process also includes User2, despite its non-routable UPN suffix (.local). While Azure AD requires a routable domain for sign-in, the user object itself is still synchronized. Azure AD Connect will typically modify the UPN of such users to use the tenant's default .onmicrosoft.com domain. Since no filtering is specified, all listed user and group objects are included in the default synchronization scope.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This option is incorrect because, by default, user objects are also synchronized along with group objects.

B. This option is incorrect because, by default, group objects are also synchronized along with user objects.

C. This option is incorrect because user objects with non-routable UPN suffixes like .local are still synchronized by default.

References

1. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Azure AD Connect sync: Understanding the default configuration. "The out-of-box rules are designed to be the most common rules for a customer's configuration. For this reason, the default configuration generates a configuration that synchronizes all Users, Groups, and Contacts from all your Active Directory forests."

2. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Prepare a non-routable domain for directory synchronization. "If you synchronized your Active Directory before changing the UPN suffix of a user from a non-routable domain to a routable domain, the UPN of the synchronized user might be using the default onmicrosoft.com domain." This statement confirms that users with non-routable domains are indeed synchronized.

3. Microsoft Learn. (2023). Prerequisites for Azure AD Connect. Under the "Accounts" section, it details the accounts needed to read from Active Directory, implying that objects like Users and Groups are the target of this read operation for synchronization. The document assumes these standard objects are part of the sync.

Question 30

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You need to create Conditional Access policies to meet the following requirements: All users must use multi-factor authentication (MFA) when they sign in from outside the corporate network. Users must only be able to sign in from outside the corporate network if the sign-in originates from a compliant device. All users must be blocked from signing in from outside the United States and Canada. Only users in the R&D department must be blocked from signing in from both Android and iOS devices. Only users in the finance department must be able to sign in to an Azure AD enterprise application named App1. All other users must be blocked from signing in to App1. What is the minimum number of Conditional Access policies you should create?
Options
A: 3
B: 4
C: 5
D: 6
E: 7
F: 8
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
4
Explanation
The minimum number of policies is four. Requirements can be combined into a single policy only if they share the same assignments (users, apps, conditions) and access controls. 1. Policy 1 (External Access): Combines the first two requirements. It applies to all users, for all cloud apps, when accessed from outside the corporate network. The grant control can require both multi-factor authentication AND a compliant device. 2. Policy 2 (Geo-Blocking): This requires a separate "Block" policy. It applies to all users, for all apps, when the location is not the United States or Canada. 3. Policy 3 (R&D Mobile Block): This requires a separate "Block" policy due to its unique user scope (R&D department) and condition (Android/iOS device platforms). 4. Policy 4 (App1 Restriction): This requires a final "Block" policy. It targets a specific application (App1) and applies to a unique user scope (All users, excluding the finance department).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 3: Incorrect. The three "Block" policies have fundamentally different scopes (all users by location, R&D users by device, most users by application) and cannot be merged into one.

C. 5: Incorrect. This is inefficient. The requirements to enforce MFA and require a compliant device for external access can be combined into a single policy's grant controls.

D. 6, E. 7, F. 8: Incorrect. These options represent an inefficient configuration that fails to combine compatible requirements, violating the principle of creating the minimum number of policies.

References

1. Microsoft Learn, Azure Active Directory Documentation. "Conditional Access: Grant". This document explains that multiple grant controls, such as "Require multi-factor authentication" and "Require device to be marked as compliant," can be combined within a single policy by selecting "Require all the selected controls." This supports creating a single policy for the first two requirements.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-grant, Section: "Require all the selected controls".

2. Microsoft Learn, Azure Active Directory Documentation. "Conditional Access policy components". This document outlines the structure of a policy, showing that assignments (Users, Cloud apps, Conditions) apply to the entire policy. Since the three "Block" requirements have different user, application, and condition assignments, they must be configured in separate policies.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-policies, Section: "Assignments".

3. Microsoft Learn, Azure Active Directory Documentation. "Conditional Access: Block access". This source clarifies that "Block access" is a distinct control that overrides any "Grant" controls. This justifies separating block policies from grant policies.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-session#block-access.

4. Microsoft Learn, Azure Active Directory Documentation. "Conditional Access: Conditions". This document details the various conditions that can be used, such as "Device platforms" and "Locations," confirming that these are distinct conditions that would necessitate separate policies when combined with different user or application scopes.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-conditions, Sections: "Device platforms" and "Locations".

Question 31

HOTSPOT Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You plan to implement directory synchronization. You need to identify potential synchronization issues for the domain. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

TOOL: IDFIX

REQUIRED GROUP MEMBERSHIP: DOMAIN USERS

Explanation

Tool: The correct tool is IdFix. The Microsoft 365 IdFix tool is specifically designed to query an on-premises Active Directory environment to identify and report potential object synchronization issues, such as duplicate or malformed proxyAddresses and userPrincipalName attributes, before synchronization with Azure AD is configured.

Required group membership: The solution must adhere to the principle of least privilege. To identify issues, the IdFix tool only requires read access to the Active Directory domain. By default, all members of the Domain Users group (as part of the Authenticated Users principal) have the necessary read permissions to query the directory. The other roles (Domain Admins, Server Operators, Enterprise Admins) all possess excessive privileges not required for this read-only analysis task.

References

Microsoft Entra Documentation. (2024). Microsoft 365 IdFix tool. Microsoft Learn.

Reference: This document explicitly introduces IdFix as the tool to "identify and remediate a large number of object synchronization errors" in Active Directory before synchronization. It notes the tool queries the on-premises environment to detect problems like duplicates and formatting issues.

Microsoft Entra Documentation. (2024). Prerequisites for Microsoft 365 IdFix. Microsoft Learn.

Reference: Under the "Prerequisites" section, the documentation states: "IdFix must be run by an account that has read access to the on-premises Active Directory domain." This confirms that administrative privileges are not required. The "Domain Users" group provides this level of access, fulfilling the least privilege requirement.

Question 32

HOTSPOT You have an Azure AD tenant named contoso.com that contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is configured to use 131.107.5.0/24 as trusted IPs. The tenant contains the named locations shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You create a conditional access policy that has the following configurations: Users or workload identities assignments: All users Cloud apps or actions assignment: App1 Conditions: Include all trusted locations Grant access: Require multi-factor authentication For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

YES

YES

NO

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): The IP address 131.107.50.10 falls within the Location2 range (131.107.50.0/24), which is a Trusted location. The Conditional Access (CA) policy applies to "All users" (including User1) accessing "App1" from "all trusted locations." Because the connection is from a trusted location, the policy's conditions are met, and the grant control "Require multi-factor authentication" is enforced. The CA policy overrides User1's per-user "Disabled" status.

Statement 2 (Yes): The IP address 131.107.20.15 falls within the Location1 range (131.107.20.0/24), which is also a Trusted location. Just as with Statement 1, the CA policy applies because the user is connecting from a trusted location, and MFA is required.

Statement 3 (No): The IP address 131.107.5.5 is not part of a "Trusted location" (Location1 or Location2). Therefore, the CA policy's condition "Include all trusted locations" is not met. When a CA policy targets a user and app, it supersedes per-user MFA settings. Since the policy's conditions are not met, the "Require MFA" grant control is not applied, and the system does not fall back to the per-user "Enforced" status. MFA is not required.

References

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Location condition in Azure Active Directory Conditional Access. Retrieved October 20, 2025. (See sections on "Named locations" and "Trusted locations," which confirm that CA policies use these definitions for location-based conditions.)

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Enable per-user Azure AD Multi-Factor Authentication to secure sign-in events. Retrieved October 20, 2025. (See section "Conditional Access policies," which states, "If a Conditional Access policy is activated... this policy takes precedence over the per-user Azure AD Multi-Factor Authentication setting.")

Microsoft Learn. (n.d.). Configure Azure AD Multi-Factor Authentication settings. Retrieved October 20, 2025. (See section "Trusted IPs," which clarifies that this legacy feature works with per-user MFA but is superseded by Conditional Access named locations.)

Question 33

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You register two applications named App1 and App2 to Azure AD. You need to ensure that users who connect to App1 require multi-factor authentication (MFA). MFA is required only for App1. What should you do?
Options
A: From the Microsoft Entra admin center, create a conditional access policy
B: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure the Modem authentication settings.
C: From the Enterprise applications blade of the Microsoft Entra admin center, configure the Users settings.
D: From Multi-Factor Authentication, configure the service settings.
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
From the Microsoft Entra admin center, create a conditional access policy
Explanation
Microsoft Entra Conditional Access policies are the designated tool for enforcing granular access controls based on specific conditions. To meet the requirement, an administrator can create a policy that specifically targets "App1" under the "Cloud apps or actions" assignment. Then, within the policy's "Grant" controls, "Require multifactor authentication" can be selected. This ensures that MFA is enforced only for access to App1, without affecting App2 or other applications, precisely fulfilling the stated goal. This is the modern and recommended method for such configurations.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. Modern authentication is a foundational tenant-wide setting that enables protocols like OAuth 2.0. It does not provide the granular, per-application control needed to enforce MFA on just App1.

C. The "Users and groups" settings on an enterprise application are used to assign access permissions (i.e., who can use the app), not to configure authentication strength requirements like MFA.

D. The legacy Multi-Factor Authentication service settings apply MFA on a per-user basis for all sign-ins. This method lacks the required granularity to target a single, specific application.

References

1. Microsoft Entra documentation, "What is Conditional Access?": "Conditional Access policies are if-then statements, if a user wants to access a resource, then they must complete an action. ... Common signals that Conditional Access can take into account when making a policy decision include ... Cloud application the user is trying to access."

Source: Microsoft Learn, learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/conditional-access/overview, Section: "Common signals".

2. Microsoft Entra documentation, "Conditional Access: Cloud apps or actions": "Cloud apps or actions is a critical piece of a Conditional Access policy. Conditional Access policies allow administrators to assign controls to specific applications or actions. ... Administrators can choose from the list of applications that include built-in Microsoft applications and any Microsoft Entra integrated applications including gallery, non-gallery, and applications published through Application Proxy."

Source: Microsoft Learn, learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/conditional-access/concept-conditional-access-cloud-apps, Section: "Cloud apps".

3. Microsoft Entra documentation, "Tutorial: Secure user sign-in events with Microsoft Entra multifactor authentication": This tutorial explicitly guides users to "Create a Conditional Access policy" and under "Assignments > Cloud apps or actions," select the specific application, and then under "Access controls > Grant," select "Require multifactor authentication."

Source: Microsoft Learn, learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/authentication/tutorial-enable-azure-mfa, Section: "Create a Conditional Access policy".

4. Microsoft Entra documentation, "Enable per-user Microsoft Entra multifactor authentication to secure sign-in events": "We no longer recommend per-user MFA. To provide the best experience for users and administrators, we recommend Conditional Access policies to secure sign-in events." This source clarifies that per-user MFA (Option D) is a legacy approach and Conditional Access is preferred for its flexibility.

Source: Microsoft Learn, learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/identity/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates, Introduction section.

Question 34

HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. You need to implement identity protection. The solution must meet the following requirements: Identify when a user's credentials are compromised and shared on the dark web. Provide users that have compromised credentials with the ability to self-remediate. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

TO IDENTIFY WHEN USERS HAVE COMPROMISED CREDENTIALS, CONFIGURE: A USER RISK POLICY

TO ENABLE SELF-REMEDIATION, SELECT: REQUIRE PASSWORD CHANGE

Explanation

Microsoft Entra Identity Protection (included in M365 E5) categorizes risks into user risk and sign-in risk.

  1. User Risk Policy: A user risk represents the probability that an identity is compromised, based on detections calculated offline. The "Leaked credentials" detection, which finds user credentials on the dark web, is a user risk. Therefore, a user risk policy is configured to detect and act on this specific threat.
  2. Require Password Change: When a user risk policy is triggered, it can enforce controls to remediate the risk. The recommended self-remediation control for a high user risk (like leaked credentials) is "Require password change". This forces the user to complete a self-service password reset (SSPR) flow, which also validates their identity (typically with MFA) before allowing them to create a new, secure password.

References

Microsoft Entra documentation | What are risk detections?

Reference: Under the section "User risk detections," the "Leaked credentials" detection is defined: "This risk detection indicates that the user's valid credentials have been leaked. We find these credentials on the dark web..." This detection is explicitly categorized as contributing to user risk.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/id-protection/concept-identity-protection-risks#user-risk-detections

Microsoft Entra documentation | Identity Protection policies

Reference: This document details the two main policy types. It states, "The user risk policy detects the probability that a user identity is compromised" and lists "Leaked credentials" as a risk it detects.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/id-protection/concept-identity-protection-policies (See section: "User risk policy")

Microsoft Entra documentation | Remediate risks and unblock users

Reference: Under the "Self-remediation" section, it states: "For user risk, users must perform self-service password reset (SSPR) to remediate their risk. This action requires the user to change their password." This directly links user risk remediation to the "Require password change" control.

Source: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/entra/id-protection/howto-identity-protection-remediate-unblock#self-remediation

Question 35

HOTSPOT Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain and a Microsoft 365 subscription. The domain contains the users shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question The domain contains the groups shown in the following table. Microsoft MS-102 exam question You are deploying Azure AD Connect. You configure Domain and OU filtering as shown in the following exhibit. You configure Filter users and devices as shown in the following exhibit. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Microsoft MS-102 exam question

Show Answer
Correct Answer:

NO

NO

NO

Explanation

Azure AD Connect's Organizational Unit (OU) filtering is the primary mechanism for determining which objects are in scope for synchronization. If an OU is deselected, all objects within that OU are filtered out and will not be provisioned in Azure AD.

  1. User1 syncs to Azure AD: No
  • User1 is located in the OU1 container. As OU1 is assumed to be deselected, the User1 object is out of scope and is not synchronized.
  1. User2 syncs to Azure AD: No
  • User2 is also located in OU1. Like User1, this object is out of scope because its container is not selected for synchronization.
  1. Group2 syncs to Azure AD: No
  • Group2 is located in OU1. The filtering applies to all object types, including groups. Since the Group2 object resides in the deselected OU1, it is also filtered out.

References

Microsoft (2023, August 18). Azure AD Connect sync: Configure filtering. Microsoft Learn.

Section: "Organizational unitโ€“based filtering"

Quote/Paraphrase: This documentation details the OU-based filtering wizard. It states, "By default, all OUs are selected... If you unselect an OU, the objects in this OU aren't synchronized to Azure AD." This directly supports the explanation that deselecting OU1 (where all three objects reside) results in none of them being synchronized.

Microsoft (2023, September 15). Azure AD Connect: Design concepts - Filtering. Microsoft Learn.

Section: "Filtering" and "Scoping"

Quote/Paraphrase: This document confirms that OU-based filtering is a primary "scoping" mechanism. Objects must be within the defined scope to be evaluated by the synchronization rules. If an object is "scoped-out" by deselecting its OU, the sync engine will not process it further.

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