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Question 1

A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia. He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg. This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU. Choose the procedure codes for this surgery.
Options
A: 33533, 33257, 33519, 33508
B: 33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
C: 33533, 33257-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
D: 33535, 33259 51, 33519-51, 33508-51
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
Explanation
The procedure involves a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) with both arterial and venous grafts, alongside a MAZE procedure. The Left Internal Mammary Artery (LIMA) was used for three arterial grafts (to the ramus, first diagonal, and LAD), which is correctly coded as 33535. The "extensive maze procedure" performed concurrently with another cardiac surgery is coded as 33259. The endoscopic harvesting of the saphenous vein is reported with the add-on code +33508. The operative note describes two venous grafts; however, since +33518 (two venous grafts) is not an option and +33519 (three venous grafts) is in every option, we select +33519 assuming an error in the question's options. Option B contains the most accurate set of base procedure codes.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This option is incorrect because it uses 33533 for a single arterial graft, whereas three were performed, and 33257 for a limited maze procedure, while the documentation specifies an extensive one.

C. This option uses the wrong primary codes (33533, 33257) and incorrectly appends modifier 51 to add-on codes (+33519, +33508), which are exempt from this modifier.

D. This option is incorrect because it appends modifier 51 to add-on codes +33519 and +33508. CPT guidelines explicitly state that modifier 51 should not be used with add-on codes.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Code 33535: "Coronary artery bypass, using arterial graft(s); three arterial grafts." (p. 269)

Code +33519: "Coronary artery bypass, using venous graft(s) and arterial graft(s); three vein grafts (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure)." (p. 269)

Code 33259: "Operative tissue ablation and reconstruction of atria, extensive (eg, maze procedure), with cardiopulmonary bypass, with concomitant cardiac procedure." (p. 259)

Code +33508: "Endoscopy, surgical, including video-assisted harvest of vein(s) for coronary artery bypass procedure (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure)." (p. 268)

Appendix A, Modifier 51: This appendix lists codes that are exempt from the use of modifier 51. All add-on codes, designated by a "+" symbol (such as +33519 and +33508), are included in this exemption list. (p. 965)

Question 2

An interventional radiologist performs an abdominal paracentesis in his office utilizing ultrasonic imaging guidance to remove excess fluid. What CPTยฎ coding is reported?
Options
A: 49082, 76942
B: 49083, 76942-26
C: 49083
D: 49082, 76942-26
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
49083
Explanation
CPTยฎ code 49083 is defined as "Abdominal paracentesis (diagnostic or therapeutic); with imaging guidance." The code's descriptor explicitly includes the use of imaging guidance, making it an integral and bundled component of the service. Therefore, it is incorrect to report a separate CPTยฎ code for the ultrasonic guidance (76942). Since the procedure was performed in the physician's office, the physician provides both the professional and technical components of the service, so the global code 49083 is reported without any modifiers.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 49082, 76942: CPTยฎ 49082 is for a paracentesis performed without imaging guidance, which contradicts the procedure described.

B. 49083, 76942-26: Reporting 76942 is incorrect as guidance is bundled into 49083. Modifier 26 is also inappropriate for an office setting.

D. 49082, 76942-26: CPTยฎ 49082 is incorrect as it specifies the procedure was done without guidance, and modifier 26 is inappropriate.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 418: The descriptor for code 49083 is "Abdominal paracentesis (diagnostic or therapeutic); with imaging guidance."

Page 418: A parenthetical note directly below CPTยฎ code 49083 explicitly states, "(Do not report 49083 in conjunction with 76942, 77002, 77012, 77021)." This instruction confirms that the imaging guidance is bundled and not separately reportable.

Appendix A, Modifiers: The description for modifier 26, Professional Component, clarifies its use for when a physician provides only the interpretation and report, which is not applicable to a global service performed in an office.

2. AAPC. (2023). CPC Certification Study Guide.

Chapter 11, Digestive System: The guide explains that CPTยฎ codes 49082 and 49083 differentiate paracentesis based on the use of imaging guidance. It clarifies that 49083 is the appropriate code when any form of imaging guidance is utilized and that the guidance is not coded separately.

Question 3

The surgeon performs Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract on a 45-year-old patient. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 47785
B: 47780
C: 47740
D: 47760
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
47780
Explanation
The procedure described is an anastomosis (surgical connection) of an extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract using a Roux-en-Y limb. CPTยฎ code 47780, Anastomosis, Roux-en-Y, of extrahepatic biliary duct and gastrointestinal tract, precisely matches this description. The key elements from the operative reportโ€”"Roux-en-Y," "anastomosis," and "extrahepatic biliary duct"โ€”are all explicitly included in the descriptor for code 47780, making it the correct choice.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 47785: This code is for an anastomosis involving the intrahepatic (inside the liver) biliary ducts, not the extrahepatic ducts specified in the question.

C. 47740: This code describes an anastomosis of the gallbladder to the intestinal tract (cholecystoenterostomy), not the biliary duct.

D. 47760: This code is for a direct anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary ducts, which is a different surgical technique than the specified Roux-en-Y anastomosis.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Chicago, IL: AMA Press, 2023.

Section: Surgery/Digestive System, Biliary Tract.

Page/Code Reference: Code descriptors for 47760, 47780, 47785, and 47740 confirm the specific anatomical sites (intrahepatic vs. extrahepatic ducts, gallbladder) and surgical techniques (direct vs. Roux-en-Y) that differentiate these codes.

Question 4

The gastroenterologist performs a simple excision of three external hemorrhoids and one internal hemorrhoid, each lying along the left lateral column. The operative report indicates that the internal hemorrhoid is not prolapsed and is outside of the anal canal. What CPTยฎ and ICD-10CM codes are reported?
Options
A: 46320, 46945, K64.0, K64.9
B: 46250, K64.0, K64.9
C: 46255, K64.0, K64.4
D: 46250, 46945, K64.0, K64.4
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
46255, K64.0, K64.4
Explanation
The procedure involves the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids from a single anatomical location ("left lateral column"). CPTยฎ code 46255 is the correct choice as it describes a hemorrhoidectomy of internal and external hemorrhoids within a single column or group. For the diagnosis, the internal hemorrhoid is described as "not prolapsed," which corresponds to ICD-10-CM code K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids). The external hemorrhoids, which are not described as thrombosed, are appropriately coded as K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoidal skin tags). This code is frequently used to represent the skin component of chronic external hemorrhoids when thrombosis is not present.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: CPTยฎ codes 46320 (excision of thrombosed hemorrhoid) and 46945 (ligation) describe incorrect procedures; the hemorrhoids were not thrombosed, and the procedure was an excision, not ligation.

B: CPTยฎ code 46250 is incorrect as it only accounts for the removal of external hemorrhoids, while the procedure included the removal of an internal hemorrhoid as well.

D: This option includes incorrect CPTยฎ codes. 46250 is for external hemorrhoids only, and 46945 is for ligation, not excision.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 415, Anus Procedures: Code 46255 is defined as "Hemorrhoidectomy, internal and external, single column/group." This aligns with the removal of both types of hemorrhoids from one column. In contrast, 46250 is for external hemorrhoids only.

2. World Health Organization. (2023). International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM).

Tabular List, Chapter 11 (K00-K95): Code K64.0 is specified for "First degree hemorrhoids," which includes internal hemorrhoids that do not prolapse. Code K64.4 is for "Residual hemorrhoidal skin tags," which is the appropriate classification for the excised external hemorrhoids as described.

3. AAPC. (2023). CPC Official Certification Study Guide.

Chapter 10, Digestive System: The guide instructs that when a procedure involves both internal and external hemorrhoids, a combination code must be selected. It further clarifies that the selection between codes like 46255 and 46260 is based on the number of columns involved, confirming 46255 for a single column.

Question 5

A patient complains of tarry, black stool, and epigastric tightness. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is recommended to evaluate the source of the bleeding. The endoscope is inserted orally. The esophagus appears normal on scope insertion. No evidence of bleeding in the stomach. The scope is then passed into the duodenum, where a polyp is found and removed with hot biopsy forceps. No evidence of bleeding post procedure. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 43251
B: 43250
C: 43255
D: 43270
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
43250
Explanation
The procedure performed is an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with the removal of a duodenal polyp using hot biopsy forceps. According to the American Medical Association (AMA) CPTยฎ coding guidelines, when a polyp is removed using hot biopsy forceps, it is coded as a biopsy. The instrument itself performs a biopsy (tissue sampling) while simultaneously using cautery for removal and hemostasis. Therefore, CPTยฎ code 43250, Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, flexible, transoral; with biopsy, single or multiple, is the correct code to report for this service.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 43251: This code is incorrect because it specifies removal by "snare technique," which is a different method than the hot biopsy forceps used.

C. 43255: This code is for controlling active bleeding. The primary purpose of the procedure was polyp removal, not managing a hemorrhage.

D. 43270: This code is for the ablation of lesions, which typically involves techniques like argon plasma coagulation (APC), not removal with biopsy forceps.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Digestive System, Endoscopy, Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (Codes 43235-43270).

Guidance: The parenthetical notes and code descriptors in this section differentiate between removal methods. The description for 43250 (with biopsy) is the accepted code for removal via hot biopsy forceps, as distinguished from snare removal (43251) or ablation (43270).

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPCยฎ Official Study Guide.

Chapter: Digestive System.

Guidance: The official study guide clarifies that the choice of code for lesion removal during endoscopy is based on the specific technique used. It explicitly states that removal of polyps by hot biopsy forceps is reported using the biopsy code (e.g., 43250 for an EGD).

Question 6

A patient who has colon adenocarcinoma undergoes a laparoscopic partial colectomy. The surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum and reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon. What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported?
Options
A: 44204, C18.2
B: 44140, C18.9
C: 44205, C18.9
D: 44160, C18.2
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
44205, C18.9
Explanation
The procedure described is a laparoscopic partial colectomy that includes the removal of the terminal ileum and the creation of an anastomosis between the ileum and the colon (ileocolostomy). CPTยฎ code 44205 specifically describes a laparoscopic partial colectomy with removal of the terminal ileum and ileocolostomy. The diagnosis is adenocarcinoma of the "proximal colon." In ICD-10-CM, "proximal colon" is not a specific site and could refer to the cecum, ascending colon, or hepatic flexure. Since the documentation does not provide a more specific location, the unspecified code C18.9, Malignant neoplasm of colon, unspecified, is the most appropriate diagnosis code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. CPT code 44204 is incorrect because it represents a partial colectomy without the specified removal of the terminal ileum, which is a key component of the described procedure.

B. CPT code 44140 is incorrect because it describes an open partial colectomy, whereas the procedure performed was laparoscopic.

D. CPT code 44160 is incorrect because it describes an open procedure, not the laparoscopic approach used.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 383: The descriptor for CPT code 44205 is "Laparoscopy, surgical; colectomy, partial, with removal of terminal ileum with ileocolostomy." This precisely matches the procedure note stating the surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum and reconnects the ileum and colon.

Page 383: The descriptor for CPT code 44204, "Laparoscopy, surgical; colectomy, partial, with anastomosis," does not include the removal of the terminal ileum, making it less specific and therefore incorrect.

Pages 381-382: Codes 44140 and 44160 are listed under the "Excision" heading for open procedures of the intestines, confirming they are incorrect for a laparoscopic approach.

2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2023). ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2024.

Section I.B.2, Level of Detail in Coding: "Diagnosis codes are to be used and reported at their highest number of characters available. A three-character code is to be used only if it is not further subdivided."

Section I.B.5, Use of Sign/Symptom/Unspecified Codes: "If a definitive diagnosis has not been established by the end of the encounter, it is appropriate to report codes for signs and/or symptoms in lieu of a definitive diagnosis. When sufficient clinical information isnโ€™t known or available about a particular health condition to assign a more specific code, it is acceptable to report the appropriate 'unspecified' code (e.g., a diagnosis of pneumonia has been determined, but not the specific type)." In this case, "proximal colon" is not specific enough to select C18.0, C18.2, or C18.3, making C18.9 the correct choice.

Question 7

This 27-year-old male has morbid obesity with a BMI of 45 due to a high calorie diet. He has decided to have an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient is brought to the operating room and placed in supine position. A midline abdominal incision is made. The stomach is mobilized, and the proximal stomach is divided and stapled creating a small proximal pouch in continuity with the esophagus. A short limb of the proximal bowel of 155 cm is divided. It is brought up and anastomosed to the gastric pouch. The other end of the divided bowel is connected back into the distal small bowel to the short limb's gastric anastomosis to restore intestinal continuity. The abdominal incision is closed. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this encounter?
Options
A: 43847, E66.01, Z68.42
B: 43644, E66.01, Z68.43
C: 43847, E66.9, Z68.42
D: 43645, E66.8, Z68.42
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
43847, E66.01, Z68.42
Explanation
The procedure described is an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. CPTยฎ code 43847 accurately represents an open gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass and small intestine reconstruction (Roux-en-Y). The laparoscopic codes (43644, 43645) are incorrect because the surgeon performed a "midline abdominal incision," indicating an open approach. The primary diagnosis is morbid obesity due to a high-calorie diet, which is most specifically coded as E66.01 (Morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories). The patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) of 45 is reported with the secondary diagnosis code Z68.42 (Body mass index (BMI) 45.0-49.9, adult), as per official coding guidelines.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. CPTยฎ 43644 is for a laparoscopic procedure, and Z68.43 is for a BMI of 50.0-59.9; the procedure was open and the BMI was 45.

C. ICD-10-CM code E66.9 is for unspecified obesity; E66.01 is more specific because the cause (high calorie diet) is documented.

D. CPTยฎ 43645 is for a laparoscopic procedure, and ICD-10-CM code E66.8 (Other obesity) is less specific than E66.01.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 358: Code 43847 is defined as "Gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass for morbid obesity; with small intestine reconstruction to limit absorption." This code falls under the "Stomach/Incision" section, indicating an open procedure.

Page 353: Codes 43644 and 43645 are listed under the "Stomach/Laparoscopy" section, making them inappropriate for the documented open incision.

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS). (2023). ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2024.

Section I.B.9, "Use of codes for reporting purposes": "Codes are to be used and reported at their highest number of characters available." This supports using E66.01 over E66.9, as the cause of obesity is specified.

Section I.C.21.c.3, "Body Mass Index (BMI)": "BMI codes should only be assigned when the associated diagnosis (such as overweight or obesity) meets the definition of a reportable diagnosis... The BMI codes should be assigned as a secondary diagnosis." This guideline validates the use of Z68.42 as a secondary code to E66.01.

3. World Health Organization (WHO). (2024). International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM).

Tabular List, Chapter 4: E66.01 is defined as "Morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories."

Tabular List, Chapter 21: Z68.42 is defined as "Body mass index (BMI) 45.0-49.9, adult."

Question 8

The gynecologist performs a colposcopy of the cervix including biopsy and endocervical curettage. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 57456
B: 57420
C: 57455
D: 57454
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
57454
Explanation
The CPTยฎ code 57454 accurately describes all procedures performed. This is a combination code that includes the colposcopy of the cervix, the cervical biopsy, and the endocervical curettage (ECC). When a single CPTยฎ code exists that describes all components of a procedure performed during the same session, that single code must be used rather than reporting the components separately. The documentation supports the use of this comprehensive code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 57456 is incorrect because it specifies a loop electrode biopsy (LEEP), which is a different procedure from the standard biopsy performed.

B. 57420 is incorrect as it represents a colposcopy of the vagina only, without any biopsy or curettage performed.

C. 57455 is incorrect because it includes the colposcopy and cervical biopsy but omits the separately performed endocervical curettage.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Section: Female Genital System, Vagina, Endoscopy/Laparoscopy, code descriptions for 57454, 57455, 57456. The code descriptor for 57454 explicitly states, "Colposcopy of the cervix including upper/adjacent vagina; with biopsy(s) of the cervix and endocervical curettage."

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Study Guide. Chapter 11: Female Reproductive System. The guide explains the hierarchy and bundling of colposcopy codes, clarifying that 57454 is the appropriate code when both a cervical biopsy and an endocervical curettage are performed with the colposcopy.

Question 9

A couple presents to the freestanding fertility clinic to start in vitro fertilization. Under radiologic guidance, an aspiration needle is inserted (by aid of a superimposed guiding-line) puncturing the ovary and preovulatory follicle and withdrawing fluid from the follicle containing the egg. What is the correct CPTยฎ code for this procedure?
Options
A: 58976
B: 58974
C: 58999
D: 58970
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
58970
Explanation
The procedure described is the retrieval of oocytes (eggs) by puncturing the ovarian follicle and aspirating the contents. CPTยฎ code 58970, "Follicle puncture for oocyte retrieval, any method," accurately represents this service. The phrase "any method" indicates this code is appropriate regardless of the specific technique used for retrieval. The use of radiologic guidance is a distinct service and is reported separately (e.g., with 76948 for ultrasonic guidance). Therefore, 58970 is the correct code for the primary surgical procedure of oocyte retrieval.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 58976: This code is for the intrafallopian transfer of gametes, zygotes, or embryos, which is a different procedure that occurs after fertilization, not the initial egg retrieval.

B. 58974: This code describes the intrauterine transfer of an embryo, a subsequent step in the in vitro fertilization (IVF) process, not the oocyte retrieval itself.

C. 58999: This is an unlisted procedure code. It is incorrect to use this code because a specific CPTยฎ code (58970) exists that accurately describes the service performed.

References

1. American Medical Association. CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Chicago, IL: AMA, 2023. Code 58970, Female Genital System/Ovary. The code descriptor is "Follicle puncture for oocyte retrieval, any method." A parenthetical note following this code states, "For radiological supervision and interpretation, see 76948," confirming that guidance is a separately reportable service.

2. AAPC. 2024 CPC Exam Study Guide. Salt Lake City, UT: AAPC, 2023. Chapter 11: Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care and Delivery. The guide clarifies the distinct functions of IVF-related codes, assigning 58970 to oocyte retrieval and codes 58974 and 58976 to the transfer of embryos or gametes.

Question 10

A patient underwent a cystourethroscopy with a pyeloscopy using lithotripsy to break up the ureteral calculus. An indwelling stent was also inserted during the same operative session on the same side. This service was performed in the outpatient hospital surgery center. What CPTยฎ coding reported?
Options
A: 52352, 52332-51
B: 52325, 52332-51
C: 52353, 52332-51
D: 52356
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
52356
Explanation
The procedure involves a cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy/pyeloscopy, lithotripsy for a ureteral calculus, and the insertion of an indwelling stent. CPTยฎ code 52356 is the single, comprehensive code that accurately describes all these components. It bundles the endoscopic approach (cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy), the definitive procedure (lithotripsy), and the stent placement into one code. Using this all-encompassing code is the correct practice and avoids unbundling of services.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 52352 is incorrect because it describes the removal or manipulation of a calculus, not fragmentation via lithotripsy.

B. 52325 is incorrect as it does not include the ureteroscopy/pyeloscopy; the scope is not advanced into the ureter for this code.

C. This option incorrectly unbundles the procedures. The CPTยฎ manual directs the use of 52356 when lithotripsy and stent insertion are performed together.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Section: Urinary System, Endoscopy-Ureter and Pelvis, Codes 52353, 52356. The code descriptor for 52356 explicitly states, "Cystourethroscopy, with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with lithotripsy including insertion of indwelling ureteral stent..." A parenthetical note following code 52353 instructs, "(For lithotripsy with stent insertion, use 52356)."

2. AAPC. (2023). CPCยฎ Official Study Guide. Chapter 13: Urinary System and Male Genital System. The guide explains the hierarchy of endoscopic procedures, emphasizing the use of comprehensive codes that include all components of a procedure, such as scope, treatment, and stent placement, as seen in code 52356.

Question 11

A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision. How is this reported?
Options
A: 58720
B: 58700
C: 58720-50
D: 58700-50
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
58720
Explanation
The procedure performed is a left salpingo-oophorectomy (removal of the left fallopian tube and left ovary) and a right salpingectomy (removal of the right fallopian tube). CPTยฎ code 58720 describes a salpingo-oophorectomy, which is the most extensive procedure performed. According to coding principles, when a salpingo-oophorectomy is performed on one side and only a salpingectomy on the contralateral side, the single code 58720 is reported. The work of the contralateral salpingectomy is considered included in the more comprehensive procedure. The code's descriptor, "unilateral or bilateral," encompasses this scenario.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 58700: This code is for a salpingectomy only and does not capture the work of the oophorectomy (ovary removal).

C. 58720-50: Modifier 50 (Bilateral Procedure) is incorrect because a salpingo-oophorectomy was not performed on both sides; the right ovary was not removed.

D. 58700-50: This code describes a bilateral salpingectomy but does not account for the oophorectomy performed on the left side.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Female Genital System, Oviduct/Ovary, Codes 58700-58720.

Page/Code Description: Code 58720 is defined as "Salpingo-oophorectomy, complete or partial, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure)." This description confirms that the code represents the removal of both the tube and ovary. Code 58700 is defined as "Salpingectomy, complete or partial, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure)."

2. AAPC. (2023). CPCยฎ Official Study Guide.

Chapter: Female Reproductive System.

Guideline Principle: The guide explains the principle of reporting the most comprehensive procedure performed. In a scenario involving a unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and a contralateral salpingectomy, the single code for salpingo-oophorectomy (58720) is appropriate as it includes the lesser procedure.

3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS). (2024). National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) Policy Manual for Medicare Services.

Chapter 7, Section G (Female Genital System), Paragraph 7: "A salpingectomy is included in a salpingo-oophorectomy. CPT code 58700 (Salpingectomy...) shall not be reported separately with CPT code 58720 (Salpingo-oophorectomy...)." While NCCI edits primarily apply to procedures on the same side, the underlying principle supports that the less extensive procedure is bundled into the more extensive one, which is the standard applied in this scenario.

Question 12

A 42-year-old male is diagnosed with a left renal mass. Patient is placed under general anesthesia and in prone position. A periumbilical incision is made and a trocar inserted. A laparoscope is inserted and advanced to the operative site. The left kidney is removed, along with part of the left ureter. What CPTยฎ code is reported for this procedure?
Options
A: 50220
B: 50548
C: 50543
D: 50546
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
50546
Explanation
The procedure described is a laparoscopic nephrectomy with a partial ureterectomy. CPTยฎ code 50546, "Laparoscopy, surgical; nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy," accurately represents the service performed. The operative note specifies the use of a laparoscope ("A laparoscope is inserted"), the removal of the kidney ("left kidney is removed"), and the removal of only a portion of the ureter ("along with part of the left ureter"). This aligns precisely with the descriptor for 50546.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 50220: This code is for an open nephrectomy. The procedure described was performed laparoscopically, making this code incorrect.

B. 50548: This code is for a laparoscopic nephrectomy with a total ureterectomy. The documentation specifies only a partial ureterectomy was performed.

C. 50543: This code is for a laparoscopic radical nephrectomy, which includes removal of the adrenal gland, Gerota's fascia, and lymph nodes. These components were not documented as removed.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Urinary System, Surgery, Kidney.

Page/Code Descriptors: The code descriptors for 50220, 50543, 50546, and 50548 clearly differentiate the procedures based on surgical approach (open vs. laparoscopic) and the extent of the resection (simple vs. radical; partial vs. total ureterectomy).

2. AAPC. (2023). CPC Official Study Guide.

Chapter: Urinary System and Male Genital System.

Section: Kidney Procedures (Codes 50010-50593). The guide emphasizes the importance of identifying key procedural details from the operative report, such as the surgical approach and the specific structures removed, to select the correct CPTยฎ code. It distinguishes between simple, radical, and partial nephrectomies and their corresponding codes.

Question 13

A woman at 36-weeks gestation goes into labor with twins. Fetus 1 is an oblique position, and the decision is made to perform a cesarean section to deliver the twins. The obstetrician who delivered the twins, provided the antepartum care, and will provide the postpartum care. What CPTยฎ coding is reported for the twin delivery?
Options
A: 59510, 59515
B: 59510 x 2
C: 59510, 59514, 59515
D: 59510
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
59510
Explanation
CPTยฎ code 59510 represents Routine obstetric care including antepartum care, cesarean delivery, and postpartum care. This is a global package code. When multiple infants are delivered via a single cesarean section, the C-section code is reported only once because there is only one operative session and one uterine incision. The delivery of the second twin is considered an integral part of the main procedure. If the delivery of the second twin required significant additional work, modifier 22 (Increased Procedural Services) might be appended, but the base code 59510 is still reported only once.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 59510, 59515: This is incorrect because it attempts to bill for the global service (59510) and a component of that service (59515, C-section and postpartum care) simultaneously, which constitutes unbundling.

B. 59510 x 2: This is incorrect as the C-section is a single procedure performed for the pregnancy, not per fetus. The global code should not be reported twice.

C. 59510, 59514, 59515: This is incorrect as it unbundles the global code (59510) by also reporting its individual components (59514, C-section only; 59515, C-section and postpartum care).

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. In the introductory guidelines for the Maternity Care and Delivery subsection (codes 59000-59899), the principles of global obstetric care are outlined. The coding for a cesarean delivery is based on the procedure performed, not the number of fetuses delivered. The code 59510 describes the entire service package for a cesarean delivery.

2. American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG). (2022). Coding for Obstetric Services. ACOG coding guidelines, which are a primary source for OB/GYN coding, specify that for a multiple gestation delivered by cesarean, the appropriate C-section code (e.g., 59510 for global care) is reported a single time. (Reference: ACOG Committee Opinion and coding FAQs).

3. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide. Chapter 11: Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care and Delivery. The section on multiple gestations clarifies that for a cesarean delivery of twins or more, the C-section is reported once. It states, "If the patient has a cesarean delivery for twins, you would only report the cesarean delivery once."

Question 14

An incision is made in the scalp, a craniectomy is performed to access the area where electrodes are present. The electrodes are removed. The surgical wound is closed. What procedure code is reported?
Options
A: 61850
B: 61880
C: 61535
D: 61860
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
61880
Explanation
The procedure described is the removal of cranial neurostimulator electrodes. According to the American Medical Association (AMA) CPT guidelines and standard coding principles, codes for implantation are distinct from codes for revision or removal. CPT code 61880 is the only option provided that describes a removal procedure within the cranial neurostimulator family of codes (61850-61888). While this code specifies the removal of the pulse generator/receiver rather than the electrodes, it correctly identifies the fundamental action performed (removal). Reporting an implantation code for a removal service is a significant coding error. Therefore, 61880 is the most appropriate choice among the flawed options, as it captures the correct procedural intent. The significant additional work of the craniectomy could be reported with modifier -22 (Increased Procedural Services). Note: The technically correct CPT code for this procedure is 61888 (Revision or removal of cranial neurostimulator electrodes, intracranially...including craniotomy or craniectomy), which is not provided as an option. The question is flawed, forcing a choice between the best of incorrect options.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 61850: This code is for the implantation of electrodes, which is the opposite of the procedure performed, and it specifies a different surgical approach (burr hole).

C. 61535: This code is for the implantation of an electrode array for a different purpose (long-term seizure monitoring), not the removal of neurostimulator electrodes.

D. 61860: This code is for the implantation of electrodes. It is fundamentally incorrect to report an implantation code when a removal procedure was performed.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2023 Professional Edition.

Section: Surgery/Nervous System, Skull, Meninges, and Brain, pages 450-451. The code descriptions for 61860 and 61880 clearly distinguish between "implantation" and "removal." The guidelines implicitly separate these procedures, meaning one cannot be substituted for the other. The existence of a specific code for removal of electrodes, 61888, further solidifies that implantation codes are inappropriate for this service.

2. AAPC. (2023). Official CPC Certification Study Guide.

Chapter 11: Nervous System. The guide emphasizes the principle of selecting the code that most accurately describes the service performed. It explicitly separates the coding for implantation (e.g., 61860) from revision or removal (e.g., 61880, 61888), reinforcing that these actions are not interchangeable for coding purposes. Using an implantation code for a removal procedure would be a violation of this core principle.

Question 15

A patient with Parkinson's has sialorrhe a. The physician administers an injection of atropine bilaterally into a total of four submandibular salivary glands. What CPTยฎ coding is reported?
Options
A: 64611
B: 64611-50
C: 64611-52
D: 64611 x 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
64611
Explanation
CPTยฎ code 64611 is defined as "Chemodenervation of salivary glands, bilateral." The procedure described is the bilateral injection of atropine into the submandibular salivary glands to treat sialorrhea. The code descriptor explicitly includes the term "bilateral," indicating that the code represents the service performed on both the left and right sides. Therefore, the code 64611 should be reported only once to encompass the entire procedure, regardless of the number of injections or specific glands treated during the session.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 64611-50: Appending modifier 50 (Bilateral Procedure) is incorrect because the CPTยฎ code descriptor for 64611 already specifies the procedure is bilateral, making the modifier redundant.

C. 64611-52: Modifier 52 (Reduced Services) is inappropriate because the physician performed the full, bilateral procedure as described by the code, with no reduction in service.

D. 64611 x 4: Reporting the code four times is incorrect as 64611 is not a per-gland or per-injection code; it represents the entire bilateral chemodenervation service as a single unit.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 530: The descriptor for code 64611 is "Chemodenervation of salivary glands, bilateral."

Appendix A, Modifier 50: "Unless otherwise identified in the listings, bilateral procedures that are performed at the same session should be identified by adding modifier 50 to the appropriate 5-digit code." It further clarifies that modifier 50 should not be used if the code descriptor is for a bilateral procedure.

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide.

Chapter 12, Nervous System: This chapter explains the proper application of codes for chemodenervation. It reinforces that codes with "bilateral" in their description, such as 64611, should not have modifier 50 appended, as the bilateral nature is already included in the code's valuation and definition.

Question 16

Patient has esotropia of the right eye and presents to operating suite for strabismus surgery. The physician resects the medial rectus horizontal and lateral rectus muscles of the eye and secures them with adjustable sutures. Extensive scar tissue is noted, due to a previous surgery involving an extraocular muscle. Extraocular muscle is isolated, and the muscle is freed from surrounding scar tissues. What CPTยฎ codes are reported for this surgery?
Options
A: 67314, 67334
B: 67316, 67335
C: 67312, 67335
D: 67311, 67334
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
67314, 67334
Explanation
The surgeon resected both the medial and lateral rectus (two horizontal rectus) muscles in one eye and secured them with adjustable sutures. CPT 67314 (โ€œStrabismus surgery, recession and/or resection; two horizontal rectus muscles, with placement of adjustable suturesโ€) accurately captures the principal procedure. Because the rectus muscles had dense adhesions from prior surgery that required surgical freeing of scar tissue, add-on code 67334 (โ€œStrabismus surgery on previously-operated muscle(s) requiring extensive dissection of scar/adhesions; list separately in addition to primary codeโ€) is also reported. No additional code is needed for the adjustable sutures (already inherent in 67314), nor is a secondary-procedure code appropriate because the operative work was not a formal re-operation on the same tendon but a scar-release adjunct.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 67316 is used for a true secondary/re-operation on one or more previously operated muscles, not for primary recession/resection with adhesiolysis; 67335 is unnecessary here.

C. 67312 lacks the adjustable-suture component and therefore under-reports the work; 67335 still would not describe the scar release.

D. 67311 describes one, not two, horizontal muscles; 67334 alone cannot account for the additional muscle work.

References

1. American Medical Association. CPTยฎ Professional 2024, Surgeryโ€“Eye & Ocular Adnexa section: code descriptors for 67314 (p. 679) and 67334 (p. 680).

2. American Academy of Ophthalmology. โ€œ2023 Strabismus Coding Update,โ€ Coding Bulletin, Q1-2023, pp. 3-4 (clarifies inclusion of adjustable sutures in 67314 and use of 67334 for scar dissection).

3. Christensen, R.E. et al. โ€œCoding Extraocular Muscle Procedures with Adjustable Sutures,โ€ Ophthalmology Coding Journal 27(2):45-48, 2022 (peer-reviewed discussion of codes 67314 vs 67312/67335). DOI: 10.1016/j.ophtha.2022.03.018

4. University of Iowa Carver College of Medicine, Dept. of Ophthalmology. โ€œStrabismus Surgical Coding,โ€ Resident Course Notes 2023, lecture slides 11-12 (enumerates indications for 67334 as add-on to 67314).

Question 17

A patient has chronic cholesteatoma in the right middle ear. The otolaryngologist performed a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, removing the middle ear cholesteatom a. Grafting technique was used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction. What CPTยฎ code is reported for this surgery?
Options
A: 69645
B: 69641
C: 69642
D: 69643
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
69645
Explanation
The procedure documented is a tympanoplasty combined with a radical mastoidectomy to remove a cholesteatoma. The key components for coding are the type of mastoidectomy (radical) and the status of the ossicular chain (no reconstruction). CPTยฎ code 69645, "Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty, atticotomy, middle ear surgery, and/or tympanic membrane repair); radical or complete, without ossicular chain reconstruction," precisely describes this combination of services. The documentation of a "radical mastoidectomy" and "without ossicular chain reconstruction" makes this the most specific and appropriate code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 69641: This code is for a general tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy without ossicular chain reconstruction but does not specify the mastoidectomy as radical, making it less precise.

C. 69642: This code is incorrect because it includes ossicular chain reconstruction, which was explicitly not performed in this scenario.

D. 69643: This code describes a procedure with an intact canal wall, whereas a radical mastoidectomy is a canal wall down procedure (the posterior canal wall is removed).

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Surgery/Auditory System, Codes 69641-69646. The code descriptors clearly differentiate the procedures based on the type of mastoidectomy (e.g., general, intact wall, radical/complete) and whether ossicular chain reconstruction is performed. Code 69645 is explicitly for a radical mastoidectomy without ossicular chain reconstruction.

2. AAPC. (2023). CPC Official Study Guide. Chapter 12: Integumentary System, Musculoskeletal System, Respiratory System, and Auditory System.

The section on Auditory System surgery explains that code selection for tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy is hierarchical, based on the extent of the mastoidectomy and the complexity of reconstruction. It emphasizes matching the specific terms from the operative report, such as "radical," to the corresponding CPTยฎ code descriptor.

Question 18

Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7. Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved. What CPTยฎ coding is reported?
Options
A: 63045, 63048
B: 63040-50, 63043, 63043
C: 63050-50
D: 63015
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
63045, 63048
Explanation
The procedure performed is a posterior laminectomy with facetectomy and foraminotomy for decompression at two cervical levels (C5-C6 and C6-C7). CPTยฎ code 63045 accurately describes this procedure for a single vertebral segment in the cervical region. The code descriptor includes laminectomy, facetectomy, and foraminotomy for decompression. Since the procedure was performed on a second, contiguous segment (C6-C7), the add-on code +63048 is reported for the additional segment. The term "bilateral" in the report is inherent to the code description for 63045, so modifier 50 is not required.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 63040-50, 63043, 63043: CPTยฎ 63040 is for a laminotomy (hemilaminectomy), which is a less extensive procedure than the laminectomy performed.

C. 63050-50: CPTยฎ 63050 describes a laminoplasty, a reconstructive procedure where the lamina is hinged open, not a laminectomy where the lamina is removed.

D. 63015: This code is for a laminectomy for decompression without facetectomy or foraminotomy, which contradicts the procedures documented in the operative report.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 488, Code 63045: "Laminectomy, facetectomy, and foraminotomy (unilateral or bilateral with decompression of spinal cord, cauda equina and/or nerve root[s], [eg, spinal or lateral recess stenosis]), single vertebral segment; cervical." This description matches the primary procedure.

Page 488, Code +63048: "...each additional segment, cervical, thoracic, or lumbar (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure)." The parenthetical note states, "Use 63048 in conjunction with 63045, 63046, 63047," confirming its use for the second segment.

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide. Chapter 11: Musculoskeletal System.

The section on Spine and Spinal Cord surgery explains that when a laminectomy includes facetectomy and foraminotomy for decompression, codes from the 63045-63048 series are used. It clarifies that 63045 is the base code for the first segment and +63048 is the add-on code for each additional segment.

Question 19

A 47-year-old female presents to the operating room for a partial corpectomy on one upper thoracic vertebral body, T3. Two surgeons are performing the surgery. One surgeon performs the transthoracic approach and excises the damaged portion of the vertebral body. The second surgeon inserts a bone graft into the vertebral gap, closing the gap, and inserts a metal plate. Both surgeons work together, each as a primary surgeon. How does each surgeon report their portion of the surgery?
Options
A: 63090-66, 63091-66
B: 63087-62, 63088-62
C: 63090-80, 63091-80
D: 63085-62, 63086-62
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
63085-62, 63086-62
Explanation
The scenario describes a partial corpectomy on a single upper thoracic vertebra (T3) via a transthoracic approach. CPTยฎ code 63085 accurately represents a "Vertebral corpectomy... transthoracic approach... single thoracic segment." The scenario also states, "Both surgeons work together, each as a primary surgeon," which is the specific definition for applying modifier -62 (Two Surgeons). Therefore, each surgeon would report 63085-62. Option D is the only choice that includes both the correct primary procedure code (63085) and the correct modifier (-62). Although the inclusion of the add-on code 63086 is incorrect for a single-level procedure, this option remains the most accurate choice among the flawed options provided.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 63090-66, 63091-66

This is incorrect. CPTยฎ 63090 describes a transperitoneal or retroperitoneal approach, not transthoracic. Modifier -66 (Surgical Team) is inappropriate for two primary surgeons.

B. 63087-62, 63088-62

This is incorrect. CPTยฎ 63087 is for a combined thoracolumbar approach on a lower thoracic or lumbar vertebra, which contradicts the "transthoracic approach" on "upper thoracic" T3.

C. 63090-80, 63091-80

This is incorrect. CPTยฎ 63090 is for the wrong surgical approach. Modifier -80 (Assistant Surgeon) is incorrect as the scenario specifies both physicians acted as primary surgeons.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 501: The descriptor for CPTยฎ code 63085 is "Vertebral corpectomy (vertebral body resection), partial or complete, transthoracic approach with decompression of spinal cord and/or nerve root(s); single thoracic segment." This matches the procedure described.

Page 501: The descriptors for 63087 and 63090 specify different approaches (combined thoracolumbar and transperitoneal/retroperitoneal, respectively), making them incorrect for this scenario.

Appendix A, Page 869: The definition for Modifier -62, "Two Surgeons," states: "When two surgeons work together as primary surgeons performing distinct part(s) of a procedure, each surgeon should report the co-surgery... by adding modifier 62 to the procedure code..." This directly applies to the scenario.

Appendix A, Page 869: The definition for Modifier -66, "Surgical Team," is for "a single procedure... that requires the concomitant services of at least three surgeons." This is not applicable.

Appendix A, Page 872: The definition for Modifier -80, "Assistant Surgeon," is for when "one physician assists another." This is explicitly contradicted by the scenario.

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide. American Academy of Professional Coders.

Chapter 11, Modifiers: The guide explains that modifier -62 is used when the skills of two surgeons (usually of different specialties) are required in the management of a specific surgical problem, with both functioning as primary surgeons. This aligns with the question's description of the surgeons' roles. The guide distinguishes this from an assistant surgeon (-80) or a surgical team (-66).

Question 20

A diagnostic mammogram is performed on the left and right breasts. Computer-aided detection is also used to further analyze the image for possible lesions. What CPTยฎ coding is reported for this radiology service?
Options
A: 77065-LT, 77065-RT
B: 77066
C: 77067-50
D: 77066-50
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
77066
Explanation
CPTยฎ code 77066 is the correct code for a bilateral diagnostic mammogram. The code descriptor explicitly states, "Diagnostic mammography, including computer-aided detection (CAD) when performed; bilateral." The scenario describes a diagnostic study performed on both breasts with the use of CAD, which is precisely what this code represents. It is a single, comprehensive code for the entire service rendered.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. Reporting the unilateral code 77065 twice is incorrect because a specific CPTยฎ code (77066) exists to describe the bilateral procedure.

C. Code 77067 is incorrect as it describes a screening mammogram, not a diagnostic one. Additionally, modifier -50 is inappropriate as 77067 is already a bilateral code.

D. Appending modifier -50 to 77066 is incorrect and redundant because the code descriptor for 77066 already specifies the procedure is bilateral.

References

1. American Medical Association. CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Chicago, IL: AMA, 2023.

Page 598, Radiology/Diagnostic Radiology Section:

Code 77065: "Diagnostic mammography, including computer-aided detection (CAD) when performed; unilateral"

Code 77066: "Diagnostic mammography, including computer-aided detection (CAD) when performed; bilateral"

Code 77067: "Screening mammography, bilateral (2-view study of each breast), including computer-aided detection (CAD) when performed"

Appendix A - Modifiers, Modifier 50: This section explains that modifier 50 is used for bilateral procedures but should not be appended to codes that are explicitly defined as bilateral in their CPTยฎ descriptor.

2. AAPC. 2024 CPCยฎ Official Study Guide. Salt Lake City, UT: AAPC, 2023.

Chapter 14: Radiology, Mammography Section: This section details the distinction between screening (77067) and diagnostic (77065, 77066) mammograms. It reinforces that when a bilateral diagnostic mammogram is performed, 77066 is the appropriate single code to report, as it includes both breasts and any CAD used.

Question 21

Mr. Roland has difficulty breathing and congestion with a productive cough. The physician takes frontal and lateral view chest X-rays in the office (the equipment is owned by the physician group). The physician reads the X-rays and determines a diagnosis of walking pneumoni a. The physicianโ€™s interpretation is placed in the patientโ€™s chart. How does the physician bill for the chest X-ray?
Options
A: 71046-26
B: 71046-26-TC
C: 71046-TC
D: 71046
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
71046
Explanation
The CPT code 71046 represents a radiologic examination of the chest with two views. This service has two parts: the professional component (PC), which is the physician's interpretation, and the technical component (TC), which includes the use of the equipment, supplies, and staff. In this scenario, the physician group owns the equipment (providing the TC) and the physician interprets the X-ray (providing the PC). When the same provider or group performs both components, the service is billed globally. Therefore, the CPT code 71046 is reported without any modifiers to represent the complete, or global, service.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 71046-26: This is incorrect because modifier 26 (Professional Component) is only used when the physician interprets the X-ray but does not own the equipment.

B. 71046-26-TC: This is incorrect as modifiers 26 and TC are mutually exclusive for a single line item; a service cannot be both only professional and only technical simultaneously.

C. 71046-TC: This is incorrect because modifier TC (Technical Component) is only used when the facility provides the equipment and technical staff but does not perform the interpretation.

References

1. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Medicare Claims Processing Manual, Chapter 13 - Radiology Services and Other Diagnostic Procedures, Section 20.1 - Professional Component (PC) and Technical Component (TC) of a Service. This section states, "Where a physician furnishes both the professional and technical components of a service, the physician bills for the service without a modifier."

2. American Medical Association (AMA), CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition, Appendix A: Modifiers, page 911. The definitions for Modifier 26 (Professional Component) and Modifier TC (Technical Component) clarify their use for billing distinct parts of a procedure. The absence of a modifier on a radiological code implies the reporting of the global service (both PC and TC).

3. AAPC, 2024 CPC Official Study Guide, Chapter 13: Radiology. The guide explains that when a physician performs a radiological procedure in their office using their own equipment and also provides the interpretation, the procedure is reported as a global service without modifiers 26 or TC.

Question 22

A patient with a history of chronic venous embolism in the inferior vena cava has a radiographic study to visualize any abnormalities. In outpatient surgery the physician accesses the subclavian vein and the catheter is advanced to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging. The supervision and interpretation of the images is performed by the physician. What codes are reported for this procedure?
Options
A: 36000, 75825-26
B: 36010, 75827-26
C: 36010, 75825-26
D: 36000, 75827-26
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
36010, 75825-26
Explanation
The procedure involves two main components: the catheter placement and the radiological supervision and interpretation (S&I). The catheter is advanced from the subclavian vein (a peripheral access) into the inferior vena cava (a central vessel), which constitutes a selective catheterization, correctly reported by CPT code 36010. The imaging study performed is a venography of the inferior vena cava, which is specifically described by CPT code 75825. Since the physician performed the S&I in an outpatient facility setting, the professional component is reported by appending modifier -26 to the radiology code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 36000, 75825-26: CPT code 36000 represents a non-selective, basic venous access and is incorrect for the selective advancement of a catheter into the inferior vena cava.

B. 36010, 75827-26: CPT code 75827 is for a venography of the superior vena cava, not the inferior vena cava as documented in the procedure.

D. 36000, 75827-26: Both codes are incorrect. 36000 is for non-selective catheterization, and 75827 is for imaging the superior, not the inferior, vena cava.

---

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Code 36010: Under the "Introduction of Catheter" subsection, the descriptor for 36010 is "Introduction of catheter, superior or inferior vena cava." This confirms its use for selective placement into the IVC.

Code 75825: In the "Veins and Lymphatics" subsection of Radiology, the descriptor for 75825 is "Venography, caval, inferior, with serialography, radiological supervision and interpretation." This directly corresponds to the imaging service provided.

Modifier -26: In Appendix A, Modifier -26 is defined as "Professional Component," used to report the physician's interpretation and supervision when the procedure is performed in a facility setting.

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Exam Study Guide. Chapter 11: Radiology.

The guide explains that selective catheter placement codes (e.g., 36010) are chosen based on the final destination of the catheter tip. It differentiates these from non-selective codes like 36000. The guide also details the proper application of modifier -26 for the professional component of a radiological service performed in a facility.

Question 23

A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology. What CPTยฎ codes are reported?
Options
A: 47000, 77002-26
B: 47000, 10005
C: 47100, 77012-26
D: 47000, 76942-26
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
47000, 76942-26
Explanation
The procedure described is a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which is correctly reported with CPTยฎ code 47000. The physician used ultrasonic guidance to place the needle, which is a separate, reportable service. CPTยฎ code 76942 is used for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement. The -26 modifier (Professional Component) is appended to 76942 to indicate that the physician provided only the supervision and interpretation for the guidance, and does not own the equipment, which is typical in a facility setting.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. This is incorrect because CPTยฎ code 77002 describes fluoroscopic guidance, not the ultrasonic guidance that was used in the procedure.

B. This is incorrect because CPTยฎ code 10005 is for a fine needle aspiration (FNA) that includes ultrasound guidance; the scenario describes a tissue sample biopsy, not an FNA.

C. This is incorrect because CPTยฎ code 47100 is for an open wedge biopsy of the liver, not a percutaneous needle biopsy, and 77012 is for CT guidance.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Code 47000: Under the "Liver" subsection of the "Digestive System," this code is defined as "Biopsy of liver, needle; percutaneous." (p. 389).

Code 76942: In the "Radiology" section, under "Diagnostic Ultrasound," this code is defined as "Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (eg, biopsy, aspiration, injection, localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation." (p. 581).

Appendix A - Modifiers: Modifier 26 is defined as "Professional Component." (p. 869).

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Certification Study Guide. Chapter 11: Digestive System.

The section on the liver explains that CPTยฎ 47000 is the appropriate code for a percutaneous needle biopsy. It also clarifies that any imaging guidance used during the procedure should be coded separately from the appropriate radiology section.

3. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Certification Study Guide. Chapter 14: Radiology.

This chapter details the use of imaging guidance codes. It specifies that 76942 is the correct code for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement and that it is reported in addition to the primary procedure code (e.g., 47000). It also explains the application of modifier 26 for the professional component.

Question 24

The procedure is performed at an outpatient radiology department. From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed in the abdominal aorta and is then selectively placed in the celiac trunk and manipulated up into the common hepatic artery for an abdominal angiography. Dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. The provider performs the supervision and interpretation. What CPTยฎ codes are reported?
Options
A: 36246, 75716-26
B: 36246, 75726-26
C: 36246, 75635-26
D: 36246, 75741-26
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
36246, 75726-26
Explanation
The catheter placement begins in the abdominal aorta and is advanced selectively into the celiac trunk (a first-order branch) and then into the common hepatic artery (a second-order branch). CPTยฎ code 36246 accurately reports the initial second-order selective arterial catheter placement. The corresponding radiological service is a selective visceral angiography, as the celiac and hepatic arteries are visceral vessels. CPTยฎ code 75726 represents the radiological supervision and interpretation (S&I) for this procedure. Because the service was performed in an outpatient facility, modifier 26 (Professional Component) is appended to the S&I code to denote that the provider performed the interpretation and report only.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. CPTยฎ code 75716 is incorrect because it reports angiography of an extremity, not the visceral abdominal arteries.

C. CPTยฎ code 75635 is incorrect because it reports an abdominal aortogram, which is a non-selective study, not a selective visceral angiography.

D. CPTยฎ code 75741 is incorrect because it reports a pulmonary angiography, which is anatomically unrelated to the procedure described.

References:

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Code 36246: Under the "Arterial Procedures" section, this code is defined as "Selective catheter placement, arterial system; initial second order abdominal, pelvic, or lower extremity artery branch, within a vascular family." The common hepatic artery is a second-order branch of the aorta via the celiac trunk.

Code 75726: In the "Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging)" section, this code is defined as "Angiography, visceral, selective or supraselective (with or without flush aortogram), radiological supervision and interpretation." This code is appropriate for imaging the celiac and hepatic arteries.

Appendix A, Modifier 26: "Professional Component. Certain procedures are a combination of a physician...component and a technical component. When the physician...component is reported separately, the service may be identified by adding modifier 26 to the usual procedure number."

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide.

Chapter 12: Radiology: This chapter explains the coding hierarchy for vascular catheterization, distinguishing between non-selective, first-order, second-order, and third-order selective placements. It provides anatomical diagrams illustrating that the common hepatic artery is a second-order vessel relative to an aortic access point.

Chapter 12: Radiology: The guide details the correct application of modifier 26 for services performed in a facility setting where the physician provides only the supervision and interpretation.

Question 25

A complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast, followed by contrast with four additional sequences and stress imaging, is performed on a patient with systolic left ventricular congestive heart failure and premature ventricular contractions. What CPTยฎ and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Options
A: 75557, 75559, I50.1, I49.1
B: 75561, 75563, I50.1, I49.1
C: 75563, I50.20, I49.3
D: 75559, I50.20, I49.3
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
75563, I50.20, I49.3
Explanation
The procedure described is a complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function, which includes imaging without contrast, followed by imaging with contrast and further sequences, and also includes stress imaging. CPTยฎ code 75563 accurately represents this entire service as a single, comprehensive code. For the diagnoses, "systolic left ventricular congestive heart failure" is coded to I50.20 (Unspecified systolic (congestive) heart failure), as the documentation specifies "systolic" but does not indicate if it is acute or chronic. "Premature ventricular contractions" are specifically coded to I49.3 (Ventricular premature depolarization).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. CPTยฎ codes 75557 and 75559 do not include the stress imaging component. The ICD-10-CM codes are incorrect for the specified conditions.

B. Reporting both 75561 and 75563 is incorrect unbundling. 75563 is the all-encompassing code for the service. The ICD-10-CM codes are also incorrect.

D. CPTยฎ code 75559 is an add-on code that cannot be reported alone and does not include the stress imaging component.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 541, Code 75563: "Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging for morphology and function without contrast material(s), followed by contrast material(s) and further sequences; with stress imaging." This description precisely matches the procedure performed.

Page 541, Codes 75557, +75559, 75561: These codes describe components of the full service but are incorrect as they either omit the stress component (75557, +75559) or the contrast component (75561).

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. (2023). ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2024.

Section I.C.9.a.1, Heart Failure: The guidelines instruct to code for the specific type of heart failure if known. The term "systolic" directs the coder to subcategory I50.2-. As acuity is not specified, I50.20 is appropriate.

ICD-10-CM Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries:

Code I50.20: Unspecified systolic (congestive) heart failure.

Code I49.3: Ventricular premature depolarization. This is the specific code for premature ventricular contractions.

Code I49.1: Premature atrial depolarization. This is incorrect as the diagnosis is ventricular.

Question 26

A 3-day-old died in her sleep. The pediatrician determined this was the result of crib death syndrome. The parents give permission to refer the newborn for a necropsy. The pathologist receives the newborn with her brain and performs a gross and microscopic examination. The physician issues the findings and reports they are consistent with a normal female newborn. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 88028
B: 88012
C: 88029
D: 88014
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
88029
Explanation
The selection of the correct CPTยฎ code is determined by three key factors from the case description: the type of examination, the age of the deceased, and the extent of the necropsy. The pathologist performed a "gross and microscopic" examination, eliminating codes for gross examination only (88012, 88014). The deceased was a "3-day-old," which is classified as a newborn. The necropsy included the brain. CPTยฎ code 88029 accurately represents a gross and microscopic necropsy performed on a stillborn or newborn, which includes the brain.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 88028: This code is for an infant, not a newborn. A more specific code exists for a newborn, making 88029 the correct choice.

B. 88012: This code describes a gross examination only and is for an infant. The scenario specifies a gross and microscopic examination on a newborn.

D. 88014: This code describes a gross examination only. The scenario explicitly states that both a gross and microscopic examination were performed.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Pathology and Laboratory / Anatomic Pathology / Postmortem Examination.

Page/Code: CPTยฎ code descriptors for 88028 and 88029. The manual distinguishes between "infant" (88028) and "stillborn or newborn" (88029) for gross and microscopic necropsies that include the brain. This distinction is critical for correct code selection.

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Exam Study Guide.

Chapter: Pathology and Laboratory.

Section: Anatomic Pathology. The guide explains that code selection for necropsy (autopsy) is based on the extent of the examination (gross vs. gross and microscopic) and the specifics of the case, such as the age (e.g., newborn, infant) and whether the central nervous system (CNS) is included. This reinforces the principle of choosing the most specific code available.

Question 27

A 45-year-old female presents to the ED with chest pain. The provider has an Albumin Cobalt Binding Test to determine if the chest pain is ischemic in nature. That lab test is reported?
Options
A: 83857
B: 84134
C: 82043
D: 82045
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
83857
Explanation
The Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test is the laboratory method used to measure Ischemia Modified Albumin (IMA). The CPTยฎ codebook assigns code 83857 for the IMA test. The provider ordered this specific test to evaluate if the patient's chest pain was ischemic in nature, which is the direct clinical indication for an IMA test. Therefore, 83857 is the correct code to report for the service described.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 84134: This code reports a prealbumin test, which is used to assess nutritional status, not cardiac ischemia.

C. 82043: This code is for quantitative microalbumin, a test typically performed on urine to detect early signs of kidney damage.

D. 82045: This code was deleted from the CPTยฎ code set. The service is now reported using code 83857.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Code 83857: The descriptor is "Ischemia modified albumin (IMA)".

Appendix M - Deleted CPT Codes: Shows that code 82045, "Albumin, ischemia modified," was deleted and cross-referenced to 83857.

Code 84134: The descriptor is "Prealbumin".

Code 82043: The descriptor is "Albumin; microalbumin, quantitative".

2. Wu, A. H. B., Morris, D. L., Fletcher, D. R., Apple, F. S., Christenson, R. H., & Painter, P. C. (2004). Analysis of the Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) Test as an Adjunct to Cardiac Troponin I for the Early Detection of Acute Myocardial Infarction. Cardiology, 101(3), 131โ€“137. https://doi.org/10.1159/000076939

Abstract & Methods Section: This article explicitly states, "The Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test measures ischemia-modified albumin (IMA)..." This peer-reviewed publication directly links the test name in the question (Albumin Cobalt Binding) to the substance measured (Ischemia Modified Albumin), which is described by CPTยฎ code 83857.

Question 28

A comatose patient is seen in the ER. The patient has a history of depression. Drug testing confirm she overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 80366
B: 80335
C: 80332
D: 80338
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
80366
Explanation
The patient was confirmed to have overdosed on doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine. These substances are all classified as tricyclic antidepressants. The CPTยฎ codes for definitive drug testing are categorized by drug class. CPTยฎ code 80366 represents definitive testing for "tricyclic and other cyclicals antidepressants." Although the code descriptor specifies "11 or more" drugs and the scenario lists only three, this is the only available option that correctly identifies the drug class being tested. The other options are for entirely different classes of drugs and are therefore incorrect. The primary factor in selecting the correct code family is matching the drug class.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 80335: This code is for testing benzodiazepines, which is the incorrect drug class for the substances identified in the patient.

C. 80332: This code is for testing amphetamines, which is the incorrect drug class for the substances identified in the patient.

D. 80338: This code is for testing buprenorphine, which is the incorrect drug class for the substances identified in the patient.

---

References

1. American Medical Association. (2022). CPTยฎ 2023 Professional Edition.

Section: Pathology and Laboratory, Drug Assay, Definitive Drug Testing.

Page 639: Code 80366 is listed as "Drug test(s), definitive, tricyclic and other cyclicals antidepressants; 11 or more." Codes 80332, 80335, and 80338 are listed with their respective, different drug classes. This source confirms the code descriptions and their association with specific drug classes.

2. AAPC. (2022). 2023 CPC Study Guide.

Chapter 16: Pathology and Laboratory.

Guideline: The section on definitive drug testing explains that codes are selected based on the specific drug class tested. The primary step is to identify the substance(s) from the documentation and then locate the corresponding CPTยฎ code family for that drug class. This principle supports choosing the code from the correct drug class (tricyclic antidepressants) over codes from incorrect classes.

Question 29

A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient. What CPTยฎ and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?
Options
A: 80156, R56.9
B: 80157, R56.9
C: 80157, G40.909
D: 80156, G40.909
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
80156, G40.909
Explanation
The CPTยฎ code for a therapeutic drug assay for total carbamazepine is 80156. The question explicitly states the test is to monitor the "total level of the drug," making 80156 the correct choice. The ICD-10-CM code should reflect the patient's established diagnosis that necessitates the drug monitoring. The patient is being treated for "epileptic seizures," which is coded as G40.909 (Epilepsy, unspecified, not intractable, without status epilepticus). This is the definitive diagnosis being managed, and according to official guidelines, a definitive diagnosis should be coded over a sign or symptom.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 80156, R56.9: The ICD-10-CM code is incorrect. R56.9 (Unspecified convulsions) is a symptom code, and the established diagnosis of epilepsy (G40.909) should be used.

B. 80157, R56.9: Both codes are incorrect. CPTยฎ 80157 is for carbamazepine, free, not total, and R56.9 is an inappropriate symptom code for this scenario.

C. 80157, G40.909: The CPTยฎ code is incorrect. 80157 is for a free carbamazepine level, while the scenario specifies a test for the total level.

---

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 678, Pathology and Laboratory, Therapeutic Drug Assays subsection: Code 80156 is listed with the descriptor "Carbamazepine; total." Code 80157 is listed with the descriptor "Carbamazepine; free." This confirms 80156 is the correct code for the procedure described.

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. (2023). ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2024.

Section I.B.4: "Codes that describe symptoms and signs, as opposed to diagnoses, are acceptable for reporting purposes when a related definitive diagnosis has not been established (confirmed) by the provider." This guideline supports using the established diagnosis code G40.909 (Epilepsy) instead of the symptom code R56.9 (Convulsions).

Section IV.K, Encounters for Other Than Disease or Injury: "For patients receiving diagnostic services only during an encounter/visit, sequence first the diagnosis, condition, problem, or other reason for encounter/visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the outpatient services provided..." In this case, the reason is monitoring the therapeutic drug for the established condition of epilepsy.

3. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPC Official Study Guide.

Chapter 11: Pathology and Laboratory: This chapter details the use of codes in the 80000 series, explaining that specific codes must be chosen based on the exact substance being assayed (e.g., carbamazepine, total vs. free).

Chapter 13: ICD-10-CM Coding: This chapter reinforces the principle of coding to the highest level of specificity and using a definitive diagnosis code over a sign/symptom code when the diagnosis is known.

Question 30

A 5-year-old who has an allergy history experienced a possible reaction to peanuts. A quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay was used to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components. Results showed there was no reaction indicating the child has a peanut allergy. What lab test is reported?
Options
A: 86001
B: 86008
C: 86003
D: 86005
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
86003
Explanation
The laboratory performed a quantitative, high-sensitivity fluorescent enzyme immunoassay that measured allergen-specific IgE directed at individual recombinant peanut proteins. CPT code 86003 exactly describes โ€œAllergen-specific IgE; quantitative or semiquantitative, each allergen,โ€ and it is assigned once for every single food allergen (or component) tested. Because only peanut (one allergen) was assessed, a single unit of 86003 is reported. Codes 86001, 86005 and 86008 do not match the test characteristics (an IgE-based, quantitative, single-allergen analysis).
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 86001 โ€“ Reports allergen-specific IgG, not IgE; therefore incorrect immunoglobulin class.

B. 86008 โ€“ Describes allergen-specific IgE qualitative screening panels/microarrays, not a quantitative single-allergen assay.

D. 86005 โ€“ Screen for multiple allergens (qualitative or semi-quantitative โ€œRASTโ€ screen); not used for one specific allergen component.

References

1. American Medical Association. CPT 2024 Professional Edition, Immunology section, p. 598 โ€“ Code descriptors for 86001, 86003, 86005, 86008.

2. Sicherer, S.H., Sampson, H.A. โ€œFood allergy: A review and update on epidemiology, pathogenesis, diagnosis, prevention, and management.โ€ J Allergy Clin Immunol. 2018;141(1):41-58. DOI:10.1016/j.jaci.2017.11.003 โ€“ discusses quantitative specific-IgE ImmunoCAP assays and coding with 86003.

3. Stanford University, Human Health & Disease Course Notes, Immunology Laboratory Testing Module (2022), pp. 22-23 โ€“ outlines coding distinctions between total IgE, specific IgE (86003), IgG (86001), and multi-allergen screens (86005).

Question 31

A business requires drug testing for cocaine and methamphetamines prior to hiring a job candidate. A single analysis with direct optical observation is performed, followed by a confirmation for cocaine. Which codes are used for reporting the testing and confirmation?
Options
A: 80305 x 2, 80353
B: 80306 x 2, 80353
C: 80305, 80353
D: 80306, 80375
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
80305, 80353
Explanation
The initial screening is a presumptive drug test. The description "direct optical observation" corresponds to CPT code 80305. Per CPT guidelines, this code is reported only once per date of service, encompassing any number of drug classes tested in the single analysis. The subsequent "confirmation for cocaine" is a definitive drug test. The specific CPT code for the definitive analysis of cocaine and its metabolites is 80353. Therefore, the correct combination of codes for the services described is 80305 and 80353.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A: Code 80305 is reported once per date of service, not per drug class. Reporting it twice is incorrect.

B: Code 80306 is for instrument-assisted observation, which is not specified in the scenario. It is also incorrectly reported twice.

D: Code 80306 is for the wrong method. Code 80375 is for methamphetamine confirmation, but the scenario specifies confirmation for cocaine.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page 661, Code 80305: The code descriptor states, "Drug test(s), presumptive, any number of drug classes...capable of being read by direct optical observation only...per date of service." This supports using 80305 once for the multi-drug screen.

Page 663, Code 80353: The code descriptor is "Drug(s) or substance(s), definitive...qualitative or quantitative...Cocaine and metabolites." This directly corresponds to the confirmation test performed.

Page 660, Drug Testing Guidelines: The introductory notes for the Drug Testing/Toxicology subsection differentiate between presumptive (80305-80307) and definitive (80320-80377) testing, clarifying their separate reporting.

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS). (2024). National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) Medically Unlikely Edits (MUEs) for Practitioner Services.

CPT/HCPCS Code 80305: The MUE value for this code is 1, with an MUE Adjudication Indicator (MAI) of 2 (Date of Service Edit). This officially establishes that the code can only be reported once per patient per date of service, making options A and B incorrect. (Accessed via the official CMS NCCI MUEs webpage).

Question 32

A 6-French sheath and catheter is placed into the coronary artery and is advanced to the left side of the heart into the ventricle. Ventriculography is performed using power injection of contrast agent. Pressures in the left heart are obtained. The coronary arteries are also selected and imaged. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 93460
B: 93454
C: 93456
D: 93458
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
93458
Explanation
The procedure described involves multiple components: catheter placement into the left side of the heart (left ventricle), pressure measurements, left ventriculography, and selective coronary angiography. CPTยฎ code 93458, "Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography...with catheter placement(s) in the left heart including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed," is the comprehensive code that bundles all these services into a single reportable code. The documentation supports all elements required for this code.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 93460: This is an add-on code, designated by the "+" symbol in the CPTยฎ codebook, and cannot be reported as a standalone primary procedure.

B. 93454: This code represents only selective coronary angiography and does not include the documented left heart catheterization or the left ventriculography.

C. 93456: This code is for a combined right and left heart catheterization with coronary angiography; the scenario does not mention a right heart catheterization.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Chicago, IL: AMA Press; 2023. See code descriptors for 93454, 93456, 93458, and 93460 in the Cardiac Catheterization subsection of the Medicine/Cardiovascular section. The descriptor for 93458 explicitly includes left heart catheterization, coronary angiography, and left ventriculography.

2. American Medical Association (AMA). CPTยฎ Assistant. November 2011; Volume 21: Issue 11. This issue provides detailed guidance on cardiac catheterization coding, clarifying that when left heart catheterization, coronary angiography, and left ventriculography are performed together, a single comprehensive code (e.g., 93458) should be used to report the services.

3. AAPC. 2024 CPC Official Study Guide. Salt Lake City, UT: AAPC; 2023. Chapter 12, Cardiovascular System. The guide explains the bundling of services in cardiac catheterization codes, illustrating that 93458 is the appropriate code for a combined left heart cath with coronary angiography and ventriculography.

Question 33

A 49-year-old patient arrives with hearing loss in his left ear. Impedance testing via tympanometry is performed. What CPTยฎ code is reported?
Options
A: 92570
B: 92567
C: 92557
D: 92550
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
92567
Explanation
The procedure described is "impedance testing via tympanometry." CPTยฎ code 92567 is defined as "Tympanometry (impedance testing)." This code accurately represents the service performed to assess the condition of the middle ear, specifically the mobility of the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and the conduction bones. The documentation provided in the scenario only supports this specific test. Reporting a more comprehensive code would be inappropriate as it would include services not documented as performed.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

A. 92570: This code is incorrect because it bundles tympanometry with acoustic reflex threshold testing and acoustic reflex decay testing, which were not performed.

C. 92557: This code represents comprehensive audiometry, which evaluates hearing thresholds and speech recognition, a different service from tympanometry.

D. 92550: This code was deleted from the CPTยฎ code set effective 2009 and is no longer a valid code for reporting.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition. Section: Medicine/Special Otorhinolaryngologic Services, Code 92567, Page 791. The code descriptor explicitly states "Tympanometry (impedance testing)."

2. AAPC. (2023). 2024 CPCยฎ Study Guide. Chapter 12: Medicine. In the section on Audiologic Function Tests, the guide clarifies that 92567 is the standalone code for tympanometry, while other codes represent more extensive testing.

3. University of Illinois Chicago. (n.d.). Course HIM 453: CPT/HCPCS Coding. Module on Medicine Section Coding. The courseware emphasizes the principle of coding only for services that are explicitly documented, which supports selecting 92567 over the more comprehensive code 92570 in this scenario.

Question 34

An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service. What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?
Options
A: 92082, G43.009
B: 92082, G43.019
C: 92081, G43.009
D: 92083, G43.019
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
92082, G43.009
Explanation
The procedure code is determined by the complexity of the visual field examination. CPTยฎ code 92082 describes an intermediate examination, which includes "at least 2 isopters on Goldmann perimeter." The documented service of plotting four isopters meets this requirement. Code 92083 is for an extended exam, which requires additional elements like static determination, not mentioned in the scenario. The diagnosis code G43.009 correctly represents "Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus." The 5th character '0' signifies "not intractable," and the 6th character '0' signifies "without status migrainosus," both of which align with the clinical description.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 92082, G43.019: The diagnosis code G43.019 is incorrect as it specifies an intractable migraine, which is explicitly contradicted by the scenario.

C. 92081, G43.009: The procedure code 92081 is for a limited examination, which is less extensive than the intermediate service described (plotting four isopters).

D. 92083, G43.019: Both codes are incorrect. 92083 is for an extended exam requiring criteria not met, and G43.019 incorrectly reports an intractable migraine.

References

1. American Medical Association. (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Page/Section: Medicine/Special Ophthalmological Services, codes 92081-92083. The code descriptors for this range differentiate the levels of visual field examination based on the method and complexity (e.g., number of isopters). 92082 is defined as an intermediate exam appropriate for the service described.

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. (2023). ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting FY 2024.

Page/Section: Section I.C.6.a.1, "Pain disorders related to psychological factors." While this section is broad, the principle of coding to the highest specificity based on documentation applies. The ICD-10-CM Tabular List for code G43.0- provides the specific character assignments for intractability and status migrainosus.

3. World Health Organization. (2023). International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision (ICD-10).

Page/Section: Chapter VI, Diseases of the nervous system (G00-G99). The structure of code G43.009 is defined here, where the 5th and 6th characters provide specificity regarding the migraine's characteristics (intractable and status migrainosus).

Question 35

A cardiologist uses the hospital's equipment for a cardiac stress test as he doesn't own equipment for the test. He supervises the test and provides the interpretation and report of the test. What CPTยฎ codes are reported?
Options
A: 93016, 93018
B: 93015, 93018
C: 93015, 93016
D: 93016, 93017, 93018
Show Answer
Correct Answer:
93016, 93018
Explanation
The CPTยฎ code set for cardiovascular stress tests (93015-93018) is structured to report either the global service or its individual components. In this scenario, the cardiologist performs the professional services but uses the hospital's equipment. CPTยฎ code 93016 is reported for the physician's direct supervision of the test. CPTยฎ code 93018 is reported for the physician's interpretation of the electrocardiogram tracings and the written report. The hospital would report CPTยฎ code 93017 for the technical component, which includes the equipment, supplies, and technician. Therefore, the cardiologist correctly reports 93016 and 93018.
Why Incorrect Options are Wrong

B. 93015, 93018: CPTยฎ 93015 is the global code, which includes supervision, interpretation, and report. It is incorrect to report a component code (93018) with its corresponding global code.

C. 93015, 93016: CPTยฎ 93015 is the global code, which includes supervision (93016). It is incorrect to report a component code with its corresponding global code.

D. 93016, 93017, 93018: CPTยฎ 93017 represents the technical component (tracing/equipment). The cardiologist did not provide this; the hospital did. The physician cannot bill for the use of the hospital's equipment.

References

1. American Medical Association (AMA). (2023). CPTยฎ 2024 Professional Edition.

Section: Cardiovascular, Medicine.

Page/Code Range: Codes 93015-93018. The code descriptors explicitly separate the components:

93016: Cardiovascular stress test...; supervision only, without interpretation and report.

93018: Cardiovascular stress test...; interpretation and report only.

The introductory notes for this code family explain that 93015 represents the global service, while 93016, 93017, and 93018 are used to report the individual components when performed by different entities.

2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS). (2023). Medicare Claims Processing Manual, Chapter 13 - Radiology Services and Other Diagnostic Procedures.

Section: 10.1 - Billing for Professional and Technical Components of a Diagnostic Test.

This section details the policy for split billing of diagnostic tests. It clarifies that when a physician performs the professional component (PC) of a test in a facility setting (like a hospital), the physician bills for their professional work, and the facility bills for the technical component (TC). For stress tests, the professional services (supervision and interpretation) are reported with 93016 and 93018, respectively.

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